Tuesday 10 October 2017

Test Bank for Campbell Biology Concepts & Connections, 8th Edition By Reece, Taylor

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Campbell Biology: Concepts and Connections, 8e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 3    The Molecules of Cells

3.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Lactose intolerance is the inability to
  1. A) produce milk proteins.
  2. B) produce lactose.
  3. C) digest cellulose.
  4. D) digest lactose.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3
Global LO:  5

2) Lactose intolerance
  1. A) is common in people of all ages, from infancy to adulthood.
  2. B) is most common in people of European descent.
  3. C) can currently be treated by gene therapy to treat the underlying cause.
  4. D) does not affect the consumption of beverages made from soy or rice.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3
Global LO:  5

3) Organic compounds
  1. A) always contain nitrogen.
  2. B) are synthesized only by animal cells.
  3. C) always contain carbon.
  4. D) always contain oxygen.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

4) Which of the following statements regarding carbon is false?
  1. A) Carbon has a tendency to form covalent bonds.
  2. B) Carbon has the ability to bond with up to six other atoms.
  3. C) Carbon has the capacity to form single and double bonds.
  4. D) Carbon has the ability to bond together to form extensive branched or unbranched "carbon skeletons."
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1
5) Which of the following statements about hydrocarbons is false?
  1. A) Hydrocarbons are inorganic compounds.
  2. B) Hydrocarbons contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms.
  3. C) Hydrocarbons consist of atoms linked by single or double bonds.
  4. D) Hydrocarbons can form straight, branched, or ringed structures.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

6) Propanol and isopropanol are isomers. This means that they have
  1. A) the same molecular formula but different chemical properties.
  2. B) different molecular formulas but the same chemical properties.
  3. C) the same molecular formula and the same chemical properties.
  4. D) the same molecular formula but represent different states of the compound.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

7) A hydroxyl group is
  1. A) also called a carbonyl group.
  2. B) characteristic of proteins.
  3. C) characteristic of alcohols.
  4. D) composed of two oxygen atoms.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

8) Which of the following is a carboxyl group?
  1. A) -C-O
  2. B) -OH
  3. C) -NH2
  4. D) -COOH
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1


9) Which of the following is an amino group?
  1. A) -OH
  2. B) -NH2
  3. C) -COOH
  4. D) -CO
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1
10) Which of the following statements about the functional groups of organic compounds is false?
  1. A) Functional groups may help make organic compounds hydrophilic.
  2. B) Many biological molecules have two or more functional groups.
  3. C) Functional groups participate in chemical reactions.
  4. D) All functional groups include a carbon atom.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

11) Which of the following contains a carboxyl and an amino group?
  1. A) amino acid
  2. B) fat
  3. C) sugar
  4. D) vinegar
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

12) Which of the following functional groups is capable of regulating gene expression?
  1. A) -OH
  2. B) -COOH
  3. C) -CO
  4. D) -CH3
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1


13) Which of the following statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is false?
  1. A) Cells typically make all of their macromolecules from a set of 40-50 common monomers and a few other ingredients that are rare.
  2. B) The monomers used to make polymers are essentially universal.
  3. C) Monomers serve as building blocks for polymers.
  4. D) Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.2

14) Which of the following statements about dehydration synthesis is false?
  1. A) One monomer loses a hydrogen atom, and the other loses a hydroxyl group.
  2. B) H2O is formed as the monomers are joined.
  3. C) Covalent bonds are formed between the monomers.
  4. D) Animal digestive systems utilize this process to break down food.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.2
15) The results of dehydration synthesis can be reversed by
  1. A) condensation.
  2. B) hydrolysis.
  3. C) polymerization.
  4. D) the addition of an amino group.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.1

16) What is the general function of enzymes within a cell?
  1. A) to promote the synthesis of monomers
  2. B) to induce chemical reactions
  3. C) to stop chemical reactions
  4. D) to speed up chemical reactions
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.6


17) The molecular formula of most monosaccharides represents a multiple of
  1. A) CH3
  2. B) CH2
  3. C) CHO.
  4. D) CHO2.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.4
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

18) A molecule with the formula C55H110O55 is probably a(n)
  1. A) oil.
  2. B) steroid.
  3. C) protein.
  4. D) polysaccharide.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.4
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3
Global LO:  2

19) Many names for sugars end in the suffix
  1. A) -acid.
  2. B) -ose.
  3. C) -hyde.
  4. D) -ase.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.4
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3
20) Sucrose is formed
  1. A) from two glucose molecules.
  2. B) from two monosaccharides through dehydration synthesis.
  3. C) when ionic bonds link two monosaccharides.
  4. D) when glucose and lactose are combined.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.5
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3


21) A disaccharide forms when
  1. A) two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis.
  2. B) two starches join by dehydration synthesis.
  3. C) two monosaccharides join by hydrolysis.
  4. D) two starches join by hydrolysis.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.5
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

22) High-fructose corn syrup is made from corn. The main carbohydrate in corn is a polysaccharide called
  1. A) fructose.
  2. B) starch.
  3. C) hydrocarbon.
  4. D) cellulose.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.6
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

23) Which of the following lists contains only polysaccharides?
  1. A) sucrose, starch, and cellulose
  2. B) starch, amino acids, and glycogen
  3. C) cellulose, starch, and glycogen
  4. D) fructose, cellulose, and glucose
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.7
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

24) Cellulose differs from starch in that
  1. A) starch is formed by plants and cellulose by animals.
  2. B) most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.
  3. C) starch is made of glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is made of fructose monomers.
  4. D) cellulose is highly branched, whereas starch is unbranched.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.7
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

25) Foods that are high in fiber are most likely derived from
  1. A) plants.
  2. B) dairy products.
  3. C) red meats.
  4. D) fish.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.7
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3
Global LO:  2, 5

26) Cows can derive nutrients from cellulose because
  1. A) they produce the enzymes that break down cellulose.
  2. B) they chew their food so thoroughly that cellulose fibers are broken down.
  3. C) their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms.
  4. D) they convert cellulose into starch, which is easily broken down in the intestinal tract.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.7
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

27) The storage form of carbohydrates is ________ in animals and ________ in plants.
  1. A) starch; glycogen
  2. B) glycogen; starch
  3. C) cellulose; glycogen
  4. D) glycogen; cellulose
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.7
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3

28) Which of the following organisms contain the polysaccharide chitin?
  1. A) animals and plants
  2. B) plants and bacteria
  3. C) fungi and insects
  4. D) insects and plants
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.7
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3


29) An oil may be converted into a substance that is solid at room temperature by
  1. A) adding hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.
  2. B) removing water, causing a dehydration synthesis reaction to occur.
  3. C) removing hydrogens, increasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.
  4. D) cooling it, so that double bonds form and the fats solidify.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4
30) A diet high in animal products and hydrogenated vegetable margarine may increase the risk for atherosclerosis. This is because
  1. A) most animal fats are unsaturated and most hydrogenated vegetable margarines contain high levels of steroids.
  2. B) most hydrogenated vegetable margarines are hydrogenated oils and most animal products contain high levels of phospholipids.
  3. C) most animal fats are used for energy storage and most hydrogenated vegetable margarines contain high levels of unsaturated fats.
  4. D) most animal fats are saturated and many hydrogenated vegetable margarines contain high levels of trans fats.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  2, 5

31) What feature of fats makes them hydrophobic?
  1. A) Fats have carboxyl groups.
  2. B) Fats include one glycerol molecule.
  3. C) Fats have polar fatty acids.
  4. D) Fats have nonpolar hydrocarbon chains.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4

32) Fatty acids are
  1. A) composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.
  2. B) composed of carbon, hydrogen, glycerol, and a phosphate group.
  3. C) hydrophobic.
  4. D) composed of four linked rings.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4


33) Which of the following statements regarding triglyceride molecules is false?
  1. A) Triglycerides consist of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule.
  2. B) Triglycerides play a role in energy storage.
  3. C) Triglycerides are a type of fat.
  4. D) Triglycerides are hydrophilic.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4
34) Fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be
  1. A) unsaturated.
  2. B) saturated.
  3. C) completely hydrogenated.
  4. D) monoglycerides.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4

35) The development of atherosclerotic disease can result from a diet high in
  1. A) fiber.
  2. B) protein.
  3. C) saturated fats.
  4. D) sugars.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  5

36) If you were to add olive oil to your food as part of a diet to lower your risk of atherosclerotic disease, you would use olive oil that
  1. A) is liquid at room temperature.
  2. B) is hydrogenated.
  3. C) is modified to be solid at room temperature.
  4. D) has lard added to it.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  2, 5


37) Which of the following statements about animal cell lipids is false?
  1. A) Fats are a form of lipid that function to store energy.
  2. B) Phospholipids are important components of cell membranes.
  3. C) Many lipids function as enzymes.
  4. D) Cholesterol is a type of lipid that is a component of cell membranes and steroid hormones.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.8, 3.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4

38) A phospholipid is composed of
  1. A) one fatty acid molecule linked to three glycerol molecules.
  2. B) one glycerol molecule linked to three phosphate groups.
  3. C) one fatty acid molecule linked to one glycerol molecule and two phosphate groups.
  4. D) one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acids.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4
39) Which of the following substances is made of lipids?
  1. A) DNA
  2. B) cellulose
  3. C) steroids
  4. D) enzymes
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4

40) A major type of lipid found in cell membranes is
  1. A) triglycerides.
  2. B) phospholipids.
  3. C) glycerol.
  4. D) waxes.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4


41) Which of the following statements about anabolic steroids is false?
  1. A) They cause a general buildup of muscle mass.
  2. B) They often cause the body to reduce its normal output of sex hormones.
  3. C) They promote bone growth.
  4. D) They can stimulate mood swings and violent behavior.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.11
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  5, 6

42) Amino acids can be distinguished from one another by
  1. A) the number of R groups found on the amino acid molecules.
  2. B) the chemical properties of their R groups.
  3. C) the type of bond between the R group and the rest of the amino acid molecule.
  4. D) the chemical properties of their amino and carboxyl groups.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.13
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.5

43) Proteins differ from one another because
  1. A) the peptide bonds linking amino acids differ from protein to protein.
  2. B) the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein.
  3. C) each protein contains its own unique sequence of sugar molecules.
  4. D) the number of nucleotides found in each protein varies from molecule to molecule.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.13
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.5
44) Glucose molecules are to starch as ________ are to proteins.
  1. A) oils
  2. B) amino acids
  3. C) fatty acids
  4. D) monosaccharides
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.13
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.5
Global LO:  2


45) Peptide bonds
  1. A) are used to form amino acids.
  2. B) form between fatty acids.
  3. C) are formed by a hydrolysis reaction.
  4. D) link amino acids.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.13
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.5

46) Which of the following statements about enzymes is false?
  1. A) They increase the rate of chemical reactions.
  2. B) They function as chemical catalysts.
  3. C) They regulate virtually all chemical reactions in a cell.
  4. D) They are monomers used to build proteins.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.5

47) Which of the following would be correctly classified as a protein?
  1. A) cholesterol
  2. B) starch
  3. C) an enzyme
  4. D) cellulose
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.5
Global LO:  2

48) Structural proteins
  1. A) include receptor molecules.
  2. B) include hemoglobin.
  3. C) are found in hair and tendons.
  4. D) include ovalbumin, a protein found in egg white.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.5
Global LO:  2

49) A scientist suspects that the food in an ecosystem may have been contaminated with radioactive nitrogen over a period of months. Which of the following substances could be examined for radioactivity to test the hypothesis?
  1. A) the cell walls of plants growing in the ecosystem
  2. B) the hair produced by humans living in the ecosystem
  3. C) the sugars produced during photosynthesis by plants growing in the ecosystem
  4. D) the cholesterol in the cell membranes of organisms living in the ecosystem
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.12, 3.13
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5
Global LO:  2

50) Which of the following characteristics of protein will remain intact if the protein is denatured?
  1. A) the shape of the protein
  2. B) the function of the protein
  3. C) the number of amino acids in the protein
  4. D) the binding properties of the protein
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.7

51) Proteins cannot be denatured by
  1. A) heat.
  2. B) changes in pH.
  3. C) changes in salt concentration.
  4. D) freezing.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.7

52) The primary structure of a protein is
  1. A) an alpha helix or a pleated sheet.
  2. B) the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain.
  3. C) composed of two or more polypeptide chains.
  4. D) maintained by hydrogen bonds.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.6


53) Which of the following is an example of secondary structure in a protein?
  1. A) a particular amino acid sequence
  2. B) an alpha helix
  3. C) a globular shape
  4. D) the joining of two polypeptide chains
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.6
54) The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to
  1. A) its size.
  2. B) the presence of pleated sheets.
  3. C) the amino acids of which it is made.
  4. D) the overall three-dimensional structure.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.6

55) A protein containing more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the ________ level of protein structure.
  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) quaternary
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.6

56) Mad cow disease serves as an example of how interdependent ________ and ________ are to protein.
  1. A) solubility; texture
  2. B) form; construction
  3. C) structure; function
  4. D) adaptability; development
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.6


57) How are genes used by cells to build proteins?
  1. A) The genes in DNA direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule, which is used to build a protein.
  2. B) The genes in RNA direct the synthesis of a DNA molecule, which is used to build a protein.
  3. C) DNA is transcribed into an amino acid sequence.
  4. D) The genes in RNA direct the synthesis of proteins directly.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.15
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.8

58) Which of the following statements regarding nucleotides is false?
  1. A) Nucleotides contain lipids.
  2. B) Nucleotides contain sugar molecules.
  3. C) Nucleotides can be linked together to form nucleic acids.
  4. D) Nucleotides contain nitrogenous bases.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.16
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.8
59) Which of the following options correctly pairs a polymer and its monomer?
  1. A) cellulose, amino acids
  2. B) DNA, nucleotides
  3. C) collagen, nucleic acids
  4. D) RNA, ribose
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.16
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.8
Global LO:  2

60) DNA differs from RNA because DNA
  1. A) contains thymine in place of uracil.
  2. B) consists of a single rather than a double polynucleotide strand.
  3. C) contains the sugar ribose rather than the sugar deoxyribose.
  4. D) contains phosphate groups not found in RNA.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.16
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.8


61) You work for a company that manufactures food products. A new "wonder food" is being distributed by a rival company. The researchers in your company determine that the "wonder food" contains only carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. At this point, your researchers can say with certainty that the food
  1. A) includes proteins.
  2. B) could only be made of triglycerides.
  3. C) could only be made of carbohydrates.
  4. D) does not include proteins or nucleic acids.
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.4, 3.8, 3.13, 3.16
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.8
Global LO:  2

62) In what part of the world did the mutation for lactose tolerance first appear?
  1. A) East Asia
  2. B) South America
  3. C) northern Europe
  4. D) North America
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.17
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3
Global LO:  5
63) Why did the lactose tolerance mutation in the East African herders spread so rapidly within the population?
  1. A) Milk provided calcium for strong bones.
  2. B) It was a selective advantage for survival during droughts and cold winters.
  3. C) Lactose was a better source of energy than glucose.
  4. D) Milk was a good source of protein during the summer harvests.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.17
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.3
Global LO:  5

64) If you ate a 100% plant-based (vegan) diet, what molecule would you never eat?
  1. A) starch
  2. B) cellulose
  3. C) cholesterol
  4. D) phospholipids
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.7, 3.10, 3.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5
Global LO:  2, 5

65) Lysozyme is an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell walls and is found in your tears, mucus, and saliva. A mutation occurs in the gene for lysozyme that results in a lysine (a positively charged amino acid) being substituted for an arginine (also a positively charged amino acid). Do you think that the mutant lysozyme will function similarly to the normal lysozyme?
  1. A) no, because all changes in protein primary sequence result in functional differences
  2. B) no, because changing lysine to arginine will cause the protein to denature
  3. C) yes, because both lysine and arginine are positively charged so the tertiary structure and therefore function should be similar
  4. D) yes, because protein function stays the same no matter what mutations occur
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.6, 3.7
Global LO:  2

66) Which meal is high in fiber, low in saturated fats, and high in unsaturated fats?
  1. A) a rib eye steak, mashed potatoes, and side salad with ranch dressing
  2. B) a plate of scrambled eggs with a side of cottage cheese
  3. C) a black bean, cheese, lettuce, and sour cream burrito in a flour tortilla
  4. D) a bowl of spaghetti tossed with olive oil, artichokes, and broccoli
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.7, 3.8
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5
Global LO:  2, 5
67) You identify a molecule in a pizza that is a polymer; has oxygen, hydrogen, and sulfur atoms; and is hydrophilic. What kind of molecule is it?
  1. A) protein
  2. B) carbohydrate
  3. C) nucleic acid
  4. D) lipid
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.7, 3.10, 3.13, 3.16
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.8
Global LO:  2


68) Suppose that an adult black bear adds 50 pounds of fat in order to survive while hibernating through the winter. How much glycogen would a bear have to add to achieve a similar feat?
  1. A) 25 pounds
  2. B) 50 pounds
  3. C) 75 pounds
  4. D) 100 pounds
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  2

69) Which type of fat was found to contribute the most relative risk of developing heart disease?
  1. A) saturated fat
  2. B) monounsaturated fat
  3. C) polyunsaturated fat
  4. D) trans fat
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.9
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  5

70) Which of the following foods would be least likely to contribute to the development of coronary heart disease?
  1. A) margarine
  2. B) butter
  3. C) bacon
  4. D) fish oil
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.9
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  2, 5
71) You have a cup of vegetable oil and a vial full of normal phospholipids. What would you predict would happen if you dropped the phospholipids into the cup of vegetable oil?
  1. A) The phospholipids would form a sphere with the heads on the inside.
  2. B) The phospholipids would form a sphere with the tails on the inside.
  3. C) The phospholipids would float on the surface of the oil with the tails in the air.
  4. D) The phospholipids would float on the surface of the oil with the heads in the air.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.10
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  2

72) What is the complementary sequence to the DNA strand TCGATGG?
  1. A) TCGATGG
  2. B) GGTAGCT
  3. C) AGCUACC
  4. D) AGCTACC
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.16
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.8
Global LO:  2

73) Myosin is a contractile protein found in muscles that is composed of three pairs of subunits, two heavy chains, and two pairs of two different types of light chains, for a total of six subunits. Myosin contains what level(s) of protein structure?
  1. A) primary
  2. B) primary and secondary
  3. C) primary, secondary, and tertiary
  4. D) primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary
Answer:  D
Topic:  3.14
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.6
Global LO:  2

3.2   Art Questions

1) These two molecules are structural isomers. What is the difference between them?


  1. A) the number of carbon atoms
  2. B) the number of hydrogen atoms
  3. C) the location of a double-bonded oxygen atom
  4. D) Only one of them has a double bond between carbon atoms.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.1
Global LO:  2, 3

2) How are these two amino acids attached together?


  1. A) amino group to amino group
  2. B) amino group to carboxylic acid group
  3. C) carboxylic acid group to carboxylic acid group
  4. D) through a hydrolysis reaction
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.11
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.5
Global LO:  2, 3

3) Below are the structures of three fatty acids, palmitic acid, stearic acid, and oleic acid. What combination of these fatty acids could you use to make a fat that is liquid at room temperature?


  1. A) one palmitic acid, one stearic acid, and one oleic acid
  2. B) three palmitic acids
  3. C) two palmitic acids and one stearic acid
  4. D) one stearic acid, one oleic acid, and one phosphate group
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.8
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.4
Global LO:  2


4) Below is a molecule of caffeine. Which of the following features are not present in a molecule of caffeine?


  1. A) a carbonyl group
  2. B) a carboxyl group
  3. C) a methyl group
  4. D) one or more double bonds
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.1
Global LO:  2

5) Below is a nutrition facts label for one cup of whole cow's milk. Which of the following is most abundant by weight in one cup of whole milk? (1000 mg = 1 g)


  1. A) the total amount of lipids
  2. B) polysaccharides
  3. C) monosaccharides
  4. D) protein
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.2
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5
Global LO:  2, 4, 5

3.3   Scenario Questions

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

You're the manager of a factory that produces enzyme-washed blue jeans (the enzymes lighten the color of the denim, giving a "faded" appearance). When the most recent batch of fabric came out of the enzyme wash, however, the color wasn't light enough to meet your standards. Your quality control laboratory wants to do some tests to determine why the wash enzymes didn't perform as expected.

1) Which hypothesis is most likely to be productive for their initial investigation?
  1. A) The nucleotide chain of the enzymes may be incorrectly formed.
  2. B) The dye in the fabric may have hydrolyzed the fatty acids in the enzymes.
  3. C) The three-dimensional structure of the proteins may have been altered.
  4. D) There may not have been enough phospholipids for the volume of fabric.
Answer:  C
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.5, 3.6, 3.7
Global LO:  2

2) Based on your understanding of enzyme structure, which of the following would you recommend that they also investigate?
  1. A) the temperature of the liquid in the washing vat
  2. B) the manufacturer of the fabric
  3. C) how long the fabric has been in storage
  4. D) the primary structure of the enzyme
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.5, 3.6, 3.7
Global LO:  2


3) Which of the following experiments would be best for testing the hypothesis that the enzymes did not perform as expected because the temperature was too high?
  1. A) Produce one batch of blue jeans with twice as much enzyme as another batch of blue jeans while keeping the temperature the same, then compare how the lightness of the blue jeans varies between batches.
  2. B) Produce multiple batches of blue jeans at several different temperatures but with the same enzyme concentration and then compare how the lightness of the blue jeans varies between batches.
  3. C) Produce multiple batches of blue jeans at several different temperatures and with different enzyme concentrations and then compare how the lightness of the blue jeans varies between batches.
  4. D) Produce one batch of blue jeans at a high temperature without the enzyme and another batch of blue jeans at a low temperature with the enzyme and then compare how the lightness of the blue jeans varies between batches.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.5, 3.6, 3.7
Global LO:  1, 2
4) If you could design a modified version of the enzyme to ensure that it would function optimally in the harsh conditions of the washing vat (such as high temperature or high pH), which of the following could you do to achieve this goal?
  1. A) Add more amino acids to the end of the protein to make it more hydrophobic.
  2. B) Change the amino acid sequence slightly to ensure a more stable tertiary structure.
  3. C) Remove some amino acids from the start of the protein to strengthen its secondary structure.
  4. D) Change the amino acid sequence drastically to give the enzyme quaternary structure.
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.12
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.5, 3.6, 3.7
Global LO:  2



After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

Your first big biology exam is coming up in a few days, and in order to prepare for late-night study sessions, you buy a box of Yummies, a delicious type of snack cake. After checking out the nutrition facts label on the side of the box, you discover that a single Yummie cake contains 4.5 grams of total fat, 27 grams of carbohydrate, 0 grams of fiber, and 1 gram of protein.

5) After eating a Yummie cake, what molecule do you expect to be most abundant in your digestive system?
  1. A) amino acids
  2. B) monosaccharides
  3. C) cellulose
  4. D) triglycerides
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.4, 3.7, 3.8, 3.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.3, 3.4, 3.5
Global LO:  2, 4

6) After eating a Yummie cake, which of the following metabolic processes is likely occurring at the fastest rate?
  1. A) hydrolysis of glycogen
  2. B) dehydration reactions involving glucose
  3. C) dehydration reactions involving fatty acids
  4. D) hydrolysis of cellulose
Answer:  B
Topic:  3.3, 3.4, 3.7, 3.8, 3.12
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5
Global LO:  2
7) The pH of the stomach is extremely acidic (~ pH 2). If you ate a Yummie cake, what do you think would happen to the protein that you ingested as it passes through the stomach?
  1. A) The protein would become denatured due to the acidic environment.
  2. B) The protein would form longer proteins via dehydration reactions.
  3. C) The protein would speed up digestion because it is an enzyme.
  4. D) The protein would get broken down via dehydration reactions.
Answer:  A
Topic:  3.12, 3.13, 3.14
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  3.2, 3.5, 3.7
Global LO:  2

Campbell Biology: Concepts and Connections, 8e (Reece et al.)
Chapter 11   How Genes Are Controlled

11.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

1) The term "gene expression" refers to the
  1. A) fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes.
  2. B) fact that individuals of the same species have different phenotypes.
  3. C) process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins.
  4. D) flow of information from parent to offspring.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1

2) A gene operon consists of
  1. A) a transcribed gene only.
  2. B) a promoter only.
  3. C) a regulatory gene only.
  4. D) transcribed genes, an operator, and a promoter.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1

3) In a prokaryote, a group of genes with related functions, along with their associated control sequences, defines
  1. A) an allele.
  2. B) an operon.
  3. C) a locus.
  4. D) a transposon.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1


4) The lac operon in Escherichia coli
  1. A) prevents lactose-utilizing enzymes from being expressed when lactose is absent from the environment.
  2. B) prevents lactose intolerance.
  3. C) prevents lactose-utilizing enzymes from being expressed when lactose is present in the environment.
  4. D) promotes the expression of lactose-utilizing enzymes when lactose is absent from the environment.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1
5) Proteins that bind to DNA and turn on operons by making it easier for RNA polymerase to bind to a promoter are called
  1. A) regulators.
  2. B) operators.
  3. C) activators.
  4. D) repressors.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1

6) The lac operon of E. coli is ________ when the repressor is bound to lactose.
  1. A) active
  2. B) inactive
  3. C) cloned
  4. D) unregulated
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1

7) The expression of the tryptophan operon is controlled by
  1. A) a repressor that is active when it is alone.
  2. B) a repressor that is inactive when it binds to lactose.
  3. C) a repressor that is active when it binds to tryptophan.
  4. D) an activator that turns the operon on by binding to DNA.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.1


8) Which of the following is likely to occur in E. coli cells that are grown in skim milk?
  1. A) The lac operon is shut off, and the cells will not produce lactose-utilizing enzymes.
  2. B) The trp repressor is activated, and the cells will produce lactose-utilizing enzymes.
  3. C) The trp operon is turned on, but the bacteria will not produce lactose-utilizing enzymes.
  4. D) The trp operon and the lac operon are both switched off.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1
Global LO:  2
9) A single cell, the zygote, can develop into an entirely new organism with many different specialized cells. Which of the following statements about this process is false?
  1. A) Additional genetic information for the formation of specialized cells is passed on to the developing embryo via the mother.
  2. B) The descendant cells specialize by a process known as differentiation.
  3. C) The zygote contains all of the genetic information required for the development of many different cell types.
  4. D) Differentiation of the zygote into a multicellular organism results from selective gene expression.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.2

10) The basis of cellular differentiation is
  1. A) the operon.
  2. B) selective gene expression.
  3. C) cloning.
  4. D) mutation.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.2

11) The genes for the enzymes of glycolysis
  1. A) are active in all metabolizing cells, but the genes for specialized proteins are expressed only in particular cell types.
  2. B) are inactive in all metabolizing cells, but the genes for specialized proteins are expressed in all cell types.
  3. C) and the genes for all specialized proteins are expressed in all metabolizing cells.
  4. D) and the genes for all specialized proteins are expressed in all embryonic cells.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.2
Global LO:  2, 6

12) Which of the following statements regarding DNA packing is false?
  1. A) A nucleosome consists of DNA wound around a protein core of eight histone molecules.
  2. B) DNA packing tends to promote gene expression.
  3. C) Highly compacted chromatin is generally not expressed at all.
  4. D) Prokaryotes have proteins analogous to histones.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.2
13) The relationship between DNA and chromosomes is most like
  1. A) an egg yolk inside of an egg.
  2. B) a spoon cradling some peas.
  3. C) thread wrapped around a spool.
  4. D) the candy shell surrounding the chocolate in a piece of M&M candy.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.2
Global LO:  2

14) In female mammals, the inactive X chromosome in each cell
  1. A) can be activated if mutations occur in the active X chromosome.
  2. B) is broken down, and its nucleotides are degraded and reused.
  3. C) is absorbed and used in energy production.
  4. D) becomes a Barr body.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.2

15) The tortoiseshell pattern on a cat
  1. A) usually occurs in males.
  2. B) is the result of a homozygous recessive condition.
  3. C) results from X chromosome inactivation.
  4. D) is a result of alleles on the Y chromosome.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.2


16) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells use ________ to turn certain genes on or off.
  1. A) RNA transcriptase
  2. B) intron segments
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) nucleosome packing
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3

17) Enhancers are
  1. A) adjacent to the gene that they regulate.
  2. B) required to turn on gene expression when transcription factors are in short supply.
  3. C) DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind.
  4. D) required to facilitate the binding of DNA polymerases.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3
18) There is a mutation in the operator of the trp operon in a cell such that the trp repressor is unable to bind to the operator. If tryptophan is added to the cell, what will happen?
  1. A) Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.
  2. B) Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will not be produced.
  3. C) Tryptophan will not bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.
  4. D) Tryptophan will bind to the operator, and trp enzymes will be produced.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1
Global LO:  2

19) RNA splicing involves the
  1. A) addition of a nucleotide "cap" to the molecule.
  2. B) addition of a nucleotide "tail" to the molecule.
  3. C) removal of introns from the molecule.
  4. D) removal of exons from the molecule.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.4
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3


20) The coding regions of a gene are called
  1. A) introns.
  2. B) exons.
  3. C) promoters.
  4. D) enhancers.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.4
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3

21) Which of the following permits a single gene to code for more than one polypeptide?
  1. A) retention of different introns in the final version of the different mRNA strands
  2. B) alternative RNA splicing
  3. C) genetic differentiation
  4. D) addition of different types of caps and tails to the final version of the mRNA strands
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.4
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3

22) Small pieces of RNA that can regulate translation of mRNA are called
  1. A) microRNA.
  2. B) interfering RNA.
  3. C) transfer RNA.
  4. D) messenger RNA.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.5
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3
23) RNA interference (RNAi) can be used by
  1. A) researchers to induce the production of more mRNA.
  2. B) researchers to artificially turn on gene expression.
  3. C) viruses to stop the production of new proteins.
  4. D) cells to prevent infections from double-stranded RNA viruses.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.5
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3


24) All of the following mechanisms are used to regulate protein production except
  1. A) protein activation.
  2. B) protein breakdown.
  3. C) DNA replication.
  4. D) the breakdown of mRNA.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.6
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3

25) Which of the following mechanisms of controlling gene expression occurs outside of the nucleus?
  1. A) adding a cap and tail to RNA
  2. B) DNA packing/unpacking
  3. C) RNA splicing
  4. D) translation
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.7
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3

26) Which of the following statements about fruit fly development is false?
  1. A) One of the earliest development events is the determination of the head and tail ends of the egg.
  2. B) The location of the head and tail ends of the egg is primarily determined by the location of sperm entry during fertilization.
  3. C) Homeotic genes regulate batteries of other genes that direct the anatomical identity of body parts.
  4. D) Cascades of gene expression routinely direct fruit fly development.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4
27) A homeotic gene
  1. A) determines which end of the egg will become the head and which end will become the tail.
  2. B) serves as a master control gene that functions during embryonic development by controlling the developmental fate of groups of cells.
  3. C) represses gene transcription and promotes mRNA translation.
  4. D) is found only in adult somatic cells.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.8
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4


28) Which of the following statements about microarrays is false?
  1. A) Microarrays enable scientists to determine the activity of thousands of genes at once.
  2. B) Microarrays use tiny portions of double-stranded RNA fragments from a large number of genes.
  3. C) Microarrays are used to determine which genes are active in different tissues or in tissues of different states of health.
  4. D) Microarrays use fluorescently labeled cDNA molecules to identify particular genes expressed at a particular time.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.9
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.3

29) In multicellular organisms, the coordination of cellular activities relies on
  1. A) cell receptors that detect transcription factors.
  2. B) the availability of certain "key" nutrients as cells divide.
  3. C) operons.
  4. D) cell-to-cell signaling and signal transduction pathways.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4

30) To initiate a signal transduction pathway, a signal binds to a receptor protein usually located in the
  1. A) nucleus.
  2. B) plasma membrane.
  3. C) ER.
  4. D) cytoplasm.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4
31) Transcription factors attach to
  1. A) DNA.
  2. B) signal molecules.
  3. C) plasma membrane receptors.
  4. D) mRNA.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4


32) A signal outside a cell triggers changes in the transcription and translation inside the cell through
  1. A) post-translational editing.
  2. B) signal transduction pathways.
  3. C) protein activation.
  4. D) protein breakdown.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.10
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4

33) Yeast are able to communicate with each other
  1. A) by close cell-to-cell contact.
  2. B) through chemical signaling.
  3. C) only if they can touch each other and have merged cell walls.
  4. D) with pseudopodia.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.11
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4

34) Signal transduction pathways
  1. A) are found strictly in multicellular organisms which require cell-to-cell communication.
  2. B) are limited for use in sexual identification.
  3. C) originally evolved in vertebrates.
  4. D) are mechanisms of communication that probably evolved in ancient prokaryotes.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.11
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.4

35) In plants, most differentiated cells retain
  1. A) only a tiny fraction of their original set of genes.
  2. B) a complete set of their genes but lose the ability to express most of those genes.
  3. C) a complete set of their genes and retain the ability to express those genes under certain circumstances.
  4. D) the ability to dedifferentiate but then cannot return to their original differentiated state.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.12
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5

36) Why can some plants be cloned from a single cell?
  1. A) Plant cells do not differentiate even when mature, so any cell can grow into an entire plant.
  2. B) Plant cells can dedifferentiate and give rise to all of the specialized cells required to produce an entire plant.
  3. C) Plant cells can produce genes to replace those lost during development.
  4. D) Plant cells are capable of self-renewal by utilizing cellular components from adjacent cells.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.12
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5

37) Which of the following processes occurs when a salamander regenerates a lost limb?
  1. A) The homeotic genes of the regenerating limb are expressed.
  2. B) Certain cells in the limb dedifferentiate, divide, and then redifferentiate to form a new limb.
  3. C) A new salamander develops from the lost limb.
  4. D) The homeotic genes of the regenerating cells turn off.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.12
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5

38) The cloning of Dolly the sheep
  1. A) demonstrated that the nuclei from differentiated mammalian cells can retain their full genetic potential.
  2. B) demonstrated that differentiated cells contain only a fraction of their full genetic potential.
  3. C) demonstrated, for the first time, that eggs are haploid and body cells are diploid.
  4. D) revealed that cloned mammals most resemble the egg donor.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.13
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  5

39) The use of cloning to produce special embryonic stem cells is called
  1. A) regenerative cloning.
  2. B) transplantational cloning.
  3. C) reproductive cloning.
  4. D) therapeutic cloning.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  5

40) Which of the following mammals has not yet been cloned and brought through the complete gestation cycle?
  1. A) cow
  2. B) human
  3. C) pig
  4. D) cat
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.13
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  5

41) Which of the following possible uses of reproductive cloning is still considered by most to be an unresolved ethical issue?
  1. A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation
  2. B) cloning mammals for the production of potentially valuable drugs
  3. C) the production of organs in cloned pigs for transplant into humans
  4. D) the reproductive cloning of humans
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.13
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  5

42) Which of the following statements regarding stem cells is false?
  1. A) Embryonic stem cells can give rise to all the different specialized cells in the body.
  2. B) Adult, but not embryonic, stem cells can be grown in laboratory culture.
  3. C) Adult stem cells are present in adult tissues.
  4. D) Adult stem cells are partway along the road to differentiation.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  5

43) Adult stem cells have limited therapeutic potential
  1. A) because they are fully differentiated.
  2. B) because they lack a complete set of genes.
  3. C) due to their excessive numbers in tissues.
  4. D) because their developmental potential is limited to certain tissues.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.14
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  5

44) A gene that can cause cancer when present in a single copy in a cell is called a(n)
  1. A) oncogene.
  2. B) enhancer gene.
  3. C) carcinogen.
  4. D) proto-oncogene.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.15
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

45) Which of the following statements about proto-oncogenes is false?
  1. A) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes with the potential to become oncogenes.
  2. B) Many proto-oncogenes code for growth factors.
  3. C) A mutation must occur in a cell's DNA for a proto-oncogene to become an oncogene.
  4. D) If a proto-oncogene's gene product is produced in smaller quantities, a cell may become cancerous.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.15
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

46) Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to normal cells becoming cancerous?
  1. A) the conversion of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene
  2. B) damage to a tumor-suppressor gene
  3. C) the production of more effective tumor-suppressor gene products
  4. D) excessive replication of proto-oncogenes
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.15
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

47) Cancer of the colon is caused by
  1. A) a single somatic cell gene mutation.
  2. B) several somatic cell gene mutations.
  3. C) a physical rupture of the colon.
  4. D) a diet high in fiber and low in fat.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.16
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

48) The development of colon cancer occurs slowly, and colon cancer is more frequently seen in the elderly than the young. This is most likely because
  1. A) cancer cells don't have mitochondria, so they grow slowly.
  2. B) usually six or more somatic mutations must occur to give rise to the cancer, which takes time.
  3. C) cancer cells have to wait until new blood vessels grow into the area, which takes much time.
  4. D) most cancer mutations interfere with mitosis, so cell division occurs more slowly.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.16
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

49) Mutations in the proto-oncogene ras and the tumor suppressor gene p53
  1. A) increase protein synthesis by the cell.
  2. B) can improve the chance of avoiding cancer as one ages.
  3. C) can enhance further mutations, which can develop into cancer.
  4. D) disrupt normal regulation of the cell cycle.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.17
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

50) Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to cancer by
  1. A) causing the production of excessive amounts of relay proteins.
  2. B) causing the production of a faulty protein that is no longer able to inhibit cell division.
  3. C) promoting the expression of mRNA that can interact with DNA, resulting in new mutations.
  4. D) increasing the production of growth hormones, which trigger faster cell cycles.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.17
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  5

51) The carcinogen known to cause the most cases and types of cancer is
  1. A) X-rays.
  2. B) ultraviolet light.
  3. C) alcohol.
  4. D) tobacco.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.18
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.7
Global LO:  5

52) Which of the following statements regarding cancer risk factors is false?
  1. A) Factors that alter DNA and make cells cancerous are called carcinogens.
  2. B) Mutagens are usually not carcinogens.
  3. C) X-rays and ultraviolet radiation are two of the most potent carcinogens.
  4. D) Eating 20-30 grams of plant fiber daily and reducing the intake of animal fat can reduce your risk of developing colon cancer.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.18
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.7
Global LO:  5

53) E. coli can synthesize the amino acid threonine or absorb it from the environment. In the thr operon, the repressor is active when it is bound to threonine. If an E. coli bacterium is in an environment where threonine is absent, will transcription of threonine synthesis genes take place? Why or why not?
  1. A) Yes, because threonine will not be bound to the repressor, so the repressor will be inactive.
  2. B) No, because threonine will not be bound to the repressor, so the repressor will be inactive.
  3. C) Yes, because threonine will not be bound to the repressor, so the repressor will be active.
  4. D) No, because threonine will not be bound to the repressor, so the repressor will be active.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1
Global LO:  2

54) There is a mutation in a promoter next to a gene such that RNA polymerase can never bind. What steps must occur for the gene to be transcribed?
  1. A) An activator protein must bind an enhancer.
  2. B) The DNA must physically bend so that the activator is close to the promoter.
  3. C) Transcription factors must bind to the activator and promoter.
  4. D) Transcription will never take place in this specific example.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.3
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2


55) A normal muscle cell produces the myosin protein, which allows muscles to contract. You discover a single muscle cell that has tRNAs that do not bind to amino acids. Will the myosin gene be expressed in this muscle cell? Why or why not?
  1. A) Yes, because all cells in the body express the myosin gene all of the time.
  2. B) No, because if the tRNAs do not bind amino acids, then translation cannot occur.
  3. C) Yes, because the myosin gene will be transcribed in the muscle cell nucleus.
  4. D) No, because the myosin mRNA will likely get broken down in the cytoplasm.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.7
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2
56) Scientists are attempting to make a chicken look like a dinosaur ("dino-chicken") by using drugs or proteins to turn on certain homeotic genes during the development of a chicken embryo. If the scientists are successful in creating both male and female "dino-chickens," and then the "dino-chickens" mate together, what type of offspring would the two "dino-chickens" have?
  1. A) a male or female "dino-chicken"
  2. B) a male or female normal chicken
  3. C) You can't know for sure because of random fertilization.
  4. D) You can't know for sure because it depends on whether the modified homeotic genes are dominant or recessive.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.8
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  11.4
Global LO:  2, 5, 6

57) A stomach cell is producing pepsin, an enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins. Which of the following events suggests that gene expression of pepsin has been turned off in the cell?
  1. A) The pepsin protein is folded properly in the cytoplasm.
  2. B) The chromosome with the pepsin gene is tightly coiled.
  3. C) The pepsin mRNA leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.
  4. D) Activators and RNA polymerases are abundant in the nucleus.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.7
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2


58) In terms of gene regulation, what do eukaryotes and prokaryotes have in common?
  1. A) operons such as the lac operon and the trp operon
  2. B) elaborate packing of DNA into chromosomes
  3. C) activator proteins that bind to DNA
  4. D) promoters that bind RNA polymerases
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.1, 11.7
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1, 11.3
Global LO:  2

59) A cell has a mutation in both alleles of its p53 gene that causes the p53 protein to be three times as effective as normal. What do you predict would happen to this cell?
  1. A) The cell would divide three times as fast and would lead to cancer.
  2. B) The cell would divide into six daughter cells instead of two and would lead to cancer.
  3. C) The cell would divide with mutated DNA and would lead to cancer.
  4. D) The cell would divide normally or possibly not at all.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.17
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  11.6
Global LO:  2
60) Which of the following molecules are not required to express a gene in eukaryotic cells?
  1. A) RNA polymerase
  2. B) DNA-bending protein
  3. C) activator protein
  4. D) repressor protein
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.3
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2

61) There is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, what will happen?
  1. A) Lactose will bind to the repressor, and lac enzymes will be produced.
  2. B) Lactose will bind to the repressor, and lac enzymes will not be produced.
  3. C) Lactose will not bind to the repressor, and lac enzymes will be produced.
  4. D) Lactose will bind to the operator, and lac enzymes will be produced.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1
Global LO:  2


62) Two yeast cells, one of type a and the other type α, are in proximity to each other. The a yeast cell has a mutation in the gene for the α factor receptor protein such that the receptor does not translocate to the surface of the a cell. If both cells secrete their respective a and α factors, which of the following outcomes is most likely to occur?
  1. A) The a and α cells will grow toward each other.
  2. B) The a cell will grow towards the α
  3. C) The α cell will grow toward the a
  4. D) The a and α cells will not grow toward each other at all.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.11
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.4
Global LO:  2

63) Which of the following statements regarding skin cells and muscle cells in your body is true?
  1. A) Muscle cells contain information about muscle proteins but not about skin color.
  2. B) Skin cells contain information skin color but not about muscle proteins.
  3. C) Muscle cells contain information about skin color but not about muscle proteins.
  4. D) Skin cells and muscle cells each contain information about both muscle proteins and skin color.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.2, 11.3
Global LO:  2
64) What is the proper order of events in the expression of a eukaryotic protein?
  1. A) DNA unpacking, mRNA transport through nucleus, mRNA splicing, protein modification
  2. B) DNA unpacking, mRNA splicing, translation, protein folding
  3. C) transcription, translation, addition of cap and tail to mRNA, DNA unpacking
  4. D) transcription, mRNA splicing, protein modification, translation
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.7
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2


65) During an experiment assessing the development of a fly embryo, a scientist artificially turns on a homeotic gene that controls eye development in somatic cells that develop into the wings. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of this experiment?
  1. A) A normal adult fly will develop.
  2. B) A mutant adult fly will develop that has eyes on its wings.
  3. C) A mutant adult fly will develop that has legs on its head.
  4. D) A mutant adult fly will develop that has no eyes on its head but has eyes on its wings.
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.8
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  11.4
Global LO:  2

66) In thinking about their role in cell division, oncogenes are like the ________ of a car, while tumor suppressor genes are like the ________ of a car.
  1. A) gas pedal; brakes
  2. B) steering wheel; brakes
  3. C) gas pedal; headlights
  4. D) brakes; gas pedal
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.15
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  2

67) Melanoma (skin cancer) can develop after several mutations occur in skin cells. If a woman is diagnosed with melanoma and becomes pregnant, what are the chances that her offspring will inherit melanoma?
  1. A) The offspring will certainly be born with melanoma.
  2. B) There is a chance, but it depends on how serious the mother's melanoma is.
  3. C) There is a chance, but it depends on whether or not the father has melanoma.
  4. D) It is unlikely that the offspring will be born with melanoma.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.16
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  2

68) In 2013, an estimated 160,000 people in the United States will die of lung cancer. If the cancer death rate is expected to increase by 1% per decade, approximately how many people will die of lung cancer in the United States in 2033?
  1. A) 160,000
  2. B) 163,000
  3. C) 176,000
  4. D) 194,000
Answer:  B
Topic:  11.18
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  2, 4, 5

69) What is the correct order of structures in a chromosome from smallest to largest?
  1. A) nucleotide, nucleosome, histone, supercoil, tight helical fiber, chromosome
  2. B) nucleosome, nucleotide, histone, tight helical fiber, supercoil, chromosome
  3. C) nucleotide, histone, tight helical fiber, nucleosome, chromosome, supercoil
  4. D) nucleotide, histone, nucleosome, tight helical fiber, supercoil, chromosome
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.2
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.2
Global LO:  2

70) A cell is expressing the mutant form of ras, but one of the downstream relay proteins is not present because of another mutation. How will cell division be affected in this scenario?
  1. A) Cell division will decrease because the mutant form of ras decreases cell division.
  2. B) Cell division will increase because the mutant form of ras increases cell division.
  3. C) The cell will divide normally.
  4. D) The cell will not divide at all unless other proteins that stimulate cell division are present.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.17
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.2
Global LO:  2

71) There is a mutation in the operator of the trp operon in a cell such that the trp repressor is unable to bind to the operator. If tryptophan is added to the cell, what will happen?
  1. A) Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.
  2. B) Tryptophan will bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will not be produced.
  3. C) Tryptophan will not bind to the repressor, and trp enzymes will be produced.
  4. D) Tryptophan will bind to the operator, and trp enzymes will be produced.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1
Global LO:  2
11.2   Art Questions

1) In this drawing of the lac operon, which molecule is an inactive repressor?


  1. A) molecule A
  2. B) molecule B
  3. C) molecule C
  4. D) molecule D
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.1
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.1
Global LO:  2, 3

2) Which structure in this figure shows one complete nucleosome?

  1. A) structure A
  2. B) structure B
  3. C) structure C
  4. D) structure D
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.3
Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension
Learning Outcome:  11.2
Global LO:  3

3) The figure below shows a normal cell transduction pathway. If the receptor wasn't there, which of the following is the most likely outcome?

  1. A) Cell division will occur normally.
  2. B) Cell division will not occur at all.
  3. C) Cell division will be increased.
  4. D) Cell division will be decreased.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.17
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.4
Global LO:  2, 3

11.3   Scenario Questions

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

All apples in the United States, regardless of variety or where they're purchased, are produced by cloning. For more than 2,000 years, apple growers around the world have used a type of cloning called grafting to produce larger, better-tasting apples. Why has cloning become the primary method of apple growing? Apples grown from seeds usually don't produce apples with the same taste and appearance as that of the parent tree because there's a high degree of genetic variability among the seeds. Making identical genetic copies of the preferred fruit is the only way to get reliable apple quality.

In grafting, the shoots and branches of the desired fruit, called a scion, are attached onto the trunk and root system of a previously existing tree, called the rootstock. Both components of the graft are needed because the rootstock controls gene expression in the scion, triggering production of apples that match the cloned scion.

Grafting research can be used to produce some interesting tree combinations that are beneficial for intensive agriculture. For example, if you graft the root of a small tree variety, such as the crab apple, onto the shoot from a larger apple tree, such as the Gala, you can produce Gala apples on a much smaller tree. Other scientists are trying to create disease-resistant varieties that would need fewer pesticides. This is beneficial for the environment and also lowers the price of apples in the grocery store.

1) Why don't the grafted hybrids produce apples with a blend of traits from the scion and the rootstock?
  1. A) The rootstock suppresses activation of the scion genes, which alters fruit production.
  2. B) The rootstock is unable to perform photosynthesis and so can't produce fruit.
  3. C) Transplanted nuclei from scion cells regulate gene expression in the rootstock.
  4. D) The rootstock regulates gene expression in the scion but contributes no genetic information for fruit production.
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  2, 5


2) Half the trees in an orchard were derived from rootstock "A" and half from rootstock "B," but all the trees had the same scion. If the trees grafted onto rootstock "A" were infected by a parasite that causes blossom rot, the trees grafted onto rootstock "B"
  1. A) would be less likely to become infected because they're grafted onto different rootstocks.
  2. B) would be more likely to become infected, since the pathogen would spread through the soil to the roots of other trees.
  3. C) would be very likely to become infected, because the remaining scions are genetically identical to those that are already infected.
  4. D) There's no way to determine the likelihood of infection, since genetic variability gives all the trees different characteristics.
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  2, 5
3) All of the trees in an orchard were derived from the same rootstock, but half had scion "A" grafted and the other half had a different scion, scion "B," grafted. The trees that were grafted with scion "A" developed large fruits. What characteristics do you think the fruit from the trees that were grafted with scion "B" will have and why?
  1. A) The fruits will be large because the trees share the same rootstock.
  2. B) The fruits will be large because all scions produce the same kind of fruits.
  3. C) The fruits will be small because the trees share the same rootstock.
  4. D) There is not enough information to know what the fruit will look like
Answer:  D
Topic:  11.12
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.5
Global LO:  2, 5

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

While DNA microarrays can be used to determine whether or not a gene is expressed in a cell, quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) can be used to measure the extent of gene expression in cells and tissues. To perform qPCR, mRNA is extracted from cells and reverse transcribed to complementary DNA (cDNA). Using fluorescent DNA molecules that recognize specific gene sequences and DNA polymerase, copies of the gene sequence of interest are made. After the copies are made, a fluorescent detector measures the intensity of the fluorescent signal, which is proportional to the number of mRNA transcripts in the cell and corresponds to the level of gene expression in the cell.


4) A pancreatic cell normally produces low levels of the protein insulin, but after a meal it produces large levels of insulin before returning to its initial state. Which of the following figures would represent qPCR data obtained from a pancreatic cell that went through this cycle?
  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
Answer:  C
Topic:  11.9
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2, 3


5) In a muscle cell, the contractile protein myosin is present in larger quantities than the structural protein actin. Which of the following qPCR results would support this observation?
  1. A) The fluorescent signal for myosin is higher than that of actin.
  2. B) The fluorescent signal for actin is higher than that of myosin.
  3. C) The fluorescent signals for myosin and actin are equal.
  4. D) The fluorescent signal for myosin is large and is zero for actin.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.9
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2
6) A scientist hypothesizes that a new drug turns on a certain gene in a skin cell. Which of the following experiments would be the best to test her hypothesis?
  1. A) Use qPCR to measure the initial levels of gene expression in skin cells, treat skin cells with the drug and measure the levels of gene expression, and then compare the two measurements.
  2. B) Use qPCR to measure the levels of gene expression in skin cells after exposure to the drug.
  3. C) Use qPCR to measure the initial levels of gene expression in muscle cells, treat skin cells with the drug and measure the levels of gene expression, and then compare the two measurements.
  4. D) Use qPCR to measure the levels of gene expression in skin cells after exposure to the drug and then add another drug to turn off gene expression and use qPCR to measure the levels of expression.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.9
Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  1, 2

7) Which of the following statements regarding the comparison of DNA microarrays and qPCR is false?
  1. A) Both methods use fluorescent DNA molecules and cDNA.
  2. B) Both methods can determine whether a gene has been turned on or not.
  3. C) Both methods use mRNA extracted from cells.
  4. D) Both methods can quantify the levels of gene expression in cells.
Answer:  A
Topic:  11.9
Skill:  Application/Analysis
Learning Outcome:  11.3
Global LO:  2
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Horngren's Accounting Plus MyAccountingLab with Pearson eText -- Access Card Package, 12/E - Tracie L. Miller-Nobles, Brenda L. Mattison & Ella Mae Matsumura Test bank

Managerial Accounting, Third Canadian Edition Plus NEW MyAccountingLab with Pearson eText -- Access Card Package, 3/E - Karen W. Braun, Wendy M. Tietz & Louis Beaubien Test bank

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Financial Accounting, Sixth Canadian Edition Plus NEW MyAccountingLab with Pearson eText -- Access Card Package, 6/E - Walter T. Harrison, Jr., Charles T. Horngren, C. William Thomas, Greg Berberich & Catherine Seguin Test bank

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College Accounting: A Practical Approach, Thirteenth Canadian Edition Plus MyAccountingLab with Pearson eText -- Access Card Package, 13/E - Jeffrey Slater & Debra Good Test bank

Solution Manual for Miller-Nobles, Mattison & Matsumura, Horngren's Financial & Managerial Accounting, The Financial Chapters, 5th Edition

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Solution Manual for Rufus, Miller & Hahn, Forensic Accounting

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Solution Manual for Moncarz & Portocarrero, Accounting for Hospitality Industry

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Solution Manual for Gordon, Raedy & Sannella, Intermediate Accounting

Solution Manual for Datar & Rajan, Managerial Accounting: Decision Making and Motivating Performance

Solution Manual for Cote & American Hotel & Lodging Association, Hotel and Restaurant Accounting with Answer Sheet (AHLEI), 7th Edition

Solution Manual for Schmidgall & American Hotel & Lodging Association, Hospitality Industry Managerial Accounting with Answer Sheet (AHLEI), 7th Edition

Solution Manual for Miller-Nobles, Mattison & Matsumura, Horngren's Accounting, 11th Edition

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Solution Manual for Atkinson, Kaplan, Matsumura & Young, Management Accounting: Information for Decision-Making and Strategy Execution, 6th Edition

Solution Manual for Miller-Nobles, Mattison & Matsumura, Horngren's Financial & Managerial Accounting, 5th Edition

Solution Manual for Kay & Ovlia, Accounting Information Systems: The Crossroads of Accounting and IT, 2nd Edition

Solution Manual for Horngren, Datar & Rajan, Cost Accounting, 15th Edition

Solution Manual for Slater, College Accounting Chapters 1-12 with Study Guide and Working Papers, 13th Edition

Solution Manual for Slater, College Accounting: A Practical Approach, 13th Edition

Solution Manual for Harrison, Horngren, Thomas & Tietz, Financial Accounting, 11th Edition

Solution Manual for Choi & Meek, International Accounting, 7th Edition

Solution Manual for Jackson, Detecting Accounting Fraud: Analysis and Ethics

Solution Manual for Miller-Nobles, Mattison & Matsumura, Horngren's Accounting: The Managerial Chapters, 11th Edition

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Solution Manual for Miller-Nobles, Mattison & Matsumura, Horngren's Accounting, The Financial Chapters, 11th Edition

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Solution Manual for Horngren, Sundem, Elliott & Philbrick, Introduction to Financial Accounting, 11th Edition

Solution Manual for American Hotel & Lodging Association, Hotel and Restaurant Accounting Workbook (AHLEI), 7th Edition

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Solution Manual for Financial Accounting The Impact on Decision Makers, 8th Edition

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Solution Manual for Building Accounting Systems Using Access 2010, 8th Edition

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Solution Manual for College Accounting, Chapters 1-27, 22nd Edition

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Solution Manual for Financial Accounting An Introduction to Concepts, Methods and Uses, 14th Edition

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Solution Manual for Using Financial Accounting Information The Alternative to Debits and Credits, 9th Edition

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Solution Manual for Managerial Accounting An Introduction to Concepts, Methods and Uses, 11th Edition

Solution Manual for Principles of Cost Accounting, 16th Edition

Solution Manual for Financial and Managerial Accounting, 9th Edition

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Solution Manual for Financial and Managerial Accounting Using Excel for Success, 1st Edition

Solution Manual for Payroll Accounting 2014, 24th Edition

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Solution Manual for Cornerstones of Financial and Managerial Accounting, 2nd Edition

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Solution Manual for Intermediate Accounting, 19th Edition

Solution Manual for Cost Accounting Foundations and Evolutions, 9th Edition

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Solution Manual for Principles of Accounting, 12th Edition

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Solution Manual for Intermediate Accounting Reporting and Analysis, 2nd Edition

Solution Manual for Financial Reporting and Analysis Using Financial Accounting Information, 12th Edition

Solution Manual for Cornerstones of Financial Accounting, 3rd Edition

Solution Manual for College Accounting: A Career Approach, 12th Edition

Solution Manual for Intermediate Accounting (Book Only), 11th Edition

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Solution Manual for Introduction to Management Accounting Global Edition, 16/E - Charles T. Horngren, Gary L. Sundem, William O. Stratton, Dave Burgstahler & Jeff O. Schatzberg

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Solution Manual for Horngren's Accounting, Global Edition, 10/E - Tracie L. Nobles, Brenda L. Mattison & Ella Mae Matsumura

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Solution Manual for Advanced Management Accounting - Frank Selto & Tom Groot

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