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Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 1   The Database Environment and Development Process

1) One application of data warehouses is:

1. A) shipping of information.
2. B) order processing.
3. C) decision support.
4. D) file updating.

2) Older systems that often contain data of poor quality are called ________ systems.

1. A) controlled
2. B) legacy
3. C) database
4. D) mainframe

3) A database is an organized collection of ________ related data.

1. A) logically
2. B) physically
3. C) loosely
4. D) badly

4) Which of the following types of data can be stored in a database?

1. A) Voice
2. B) Letters
3. C) Numbers
4. D) All of the above

5) Data processed in a way that increases a user's knowledge is:

1. A) text.
2. B) graphics
3. C) information.
4. D) hyperlink.

6) Data that describe the properties of other data are:

1. A) relationships.
2. B) logical.
3. C) physical.
4. D) none of the above.

7) All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT:

1. A) data definitions.
2. B) processing logic.
3. C) rules or constraints.
4. D) data structures.

8) One disadvantage of file processing systems is:

1. A) reduced data duplication.
2. B) program-data independence.
3. C) limited data sharing.
4. D) enforcement of integrity constraints.

9) Program-data dependence is caused by:

1. A) file descriptors being stored in each application.
2. B) data descriptions being stored on a server.
3. C) data descriptions being written into programming code.
4. D) data cohabiting with programs.

10) Because applications are often developed independently in file processing systems:

1. A) the data is always non-redundant.
2. B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception.
3. C) data can always be shared with others.
4. D) there is a large volume of file I/O.

11) Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend as much as ________ of their IS development budget on maintenance.

1. A) 40 percent
2. B) 25 percent
3. C) 60 percent
4. D) 80 percent

12) A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data is called a(n):

1. A) logical data model.
2. B) hypertext graphic.
3. C) ERD.
4. D) data model.

13) A person, place, an object , an event or concept about which the organization wishes to maintain data is called a(n):

1. A) relationship.
2. B) object.
3. C) attribute.
4. D) entity.

14) ________ are established between entities in a well-structured database so that the desired information can be retrieved.

1. A) Entities
2. B) Relationships
3. C) Lines
4. D) Ties

15) Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by means of common fields included in a file called a(n):

1. A) entity.
2. B) relationship.
3. C) relation.
4. D) association.

16) All of the following are primary purposes of a database management system (DBMS) EXCEPT:

1. A) creating data.
2. B) updating data.
3. C) storing data.
4. D) providing an integrated development environment.

17) A(n) ________ is often developed by identifying a form or report that a user needs on a regular basis.

1. A) enterprise view
2. B) reporting document
3. C) user view
4. D) user snapshot

18) With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a central location known as a(n):

1. A) server.
2. B) mainframe.
3. C) PC.
4. D) repository.

19) A user view is:

1. A) what a user sees when he or she looks out the window.
2. B) a table or set of tables.
3. C) a logical description of some portion of the database.
4. D) a procedure stored on the server.

20) Which organizational function should set database standards?

1. A) Management
2. B) Application development
3. C) Technical services
4. D) None of the above

21) ________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access information from a database.

1. A) ODBC
2. B) Structured query language
3. C) ASP
4. D) Data manipulation query language

22) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database systems?

1. A) Redundant data
2. B) Program-data independence
3. C) Better data quality
4. D) Reduced program maintenance

23) The most common source of database failures in organizations is:

1. A) lack of planning.
2. B) inadequate budget.
3. C) inadequate hardware.
4. D) failure to implement a strong database administration function.

24) A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a:

1. A) password.
2. B) constraint.
3. C) program.
4. D) view.

25) In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the logic for accessing the data are built into:

1. A) application programs.
2. B) database descriptors.
3. C) fields.
4. D) records.

26) Databases may be more expensive to maintain than files because of:

1. A) the need for specialized personnel.
2. B) the complexity of the database environment.
3. C) backup and recovery needs.
4. D) all of the above.

27) Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database approach?

1. A) Specialized personnel
2. B) Cost of conversion
3. C) Improved responsiveness
4. D) Organizational conflict

28) The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of which type of risk in the database environment?

1. A) Specialized personnel needs
2. B) Organizational conflict
3. C) Conversion costs
4. D) Legacy systems

29) A knowledge base of information on facts about an enterprise is called a(n):

1. A) enterprise information system.
2. B) repository.
3. C) systems information unit.
4. D) database process.

30) Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to databases?

1. A) Network operating system
2. B) User view
3. C) Database management system (DBMS)
4. D) Attribute

31) A centralized knowledge base of all data definitions, data relationships, screen and report formats, and other system components is called a(n):

1. A) index.
2. B) data warehouse.
3. C) repository.
4. D) database management system.

32) CASE is a class of tools that:

1. A) assists the database administrator in maintaining a database.
2. B) provides guidelines for the physical design of a database.
3. C) provides management reporting tools.
4. D) automates the design of databases and application programs.

33) Languages, menus, and other facilities by which users interact with the database are collectively called a(n):

1. A) client.
2. B) user interface.
3. C) icon.
4. D) development environment.

34) Database development begins with ________, which establishes the range and general contents of organizational databases.

1. A) database design
2. B) cross-functional analysis
3. C) departmental data modeling
4. D) enterprise data modeling

35) The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain and replace information systems is called the:

1. A) Enterprise Resource Model.
2. B) Systems Development Life Cycle.
3. C) Unified Model.
4. D) Systems Deployment Life Cycle.

36) The SDLC phase in which every data attribute is defined, every category of data is listed and every business relationship between data entities is defined is called the ________ phase.

1. A) planning
2. B) design
3. C) analysis
4. D) implementation

37) The SDLC phase in which database processing programs are created is the ________ phase.

1. A) planning
2. B) design
3. C) analysis
4. D) implementation

38) The SDLC phase in which the detailed conceptual data model is created is the ________ phase.

1. A) planning
2. B) design
3. C) analysis
4. D) implementation

39) Organizing the database in computer disk storage is done in the ________ phase.

1. A) design
2. B) maintenance
3. C) analysis
4. D) implementation

40) An iterative methodology that rapidly repeats the analysis, design, and implementation phases of the SDLC is called:

1. A) CASE.
2. B) CAD.
3. C) RAD.
4. D) MST.

41) One of the most popular RAD methods is:

1. A) automated design.
2. B) structured walkthrough.
3. C) prototyping.
4. D) crafting.

42) The three-schema approach includes which of the following schemas?

1. A) Internal
2. B) Logical
3. C) Cross-functional
4. D) Dissecting

43) ________ analyze the business situation and identify the need for information and information services to meet the problems or opportunities of the business.

1. A) Programmers
2. B) Users
3. C) Systems analysts
4. D) Database analysts

44) ________ concentrate on determining the requirements for the database component of an information system.

1. A) Database analysts
2. B) Systems analysts
3. C) Programmers
4. D) All of the above

45) E. F. Codd developed the relational model in the:

1. A) 1960s.
2. B) 1970s.
3. C) 1980s.
4. D) 1990s.

46) Which of the following is NOT an objective that drove the development and evolution of database technology?

1. A) The need to provide greater independence between programs and data
2. B) The desire to manage increasing complex data types and structures
3. C) The desire to require programmers to write all file handling functionality
4. D) The need to provide ever more powerful platforms for decision support applications

47) The period that can be considered a "proof of concept" time was the:

1. A) 1950s.
2. B) 1960s.
3. C) 1970s.
4. D) 1990s.

48) A relatively small team of people who collaborate on the same project is called a(n):

1. A) server group.
2. B) workgroup.
3. C) data collaborative.
4. D) typical arrangement.

49) A workgroup database is stored on a central device called a(n):

1. A) client.
2. B) server.
3. C) remote PC.
4. D) network.

50) Which of the following is an integrated decision support database with content derived from various operational databases?

1. A) Corporate data structure
2. B) Relational DBMS
3. C) Data warehouse
4. D) Client-server system

51) A data warehouse derives its data from:

1. A) on-line transactions.
2. B) various operational data sources.
3. C) reports.
4. D) a datamart.

52) Which of the following will interfere with access to operational databases?

1. A) Unstructured and unpredictable use of data
2. B) Predictable use of data
3. C) Efficient transaction processing systems
4. D) All of the above

53) Information is processed data.

54) In practice, databases today may contain either data or information.

55) Metadata are data that describe the properties of other data.

56) Databases were developed as the first application of computers to data processing.

57) File processing systems have been replaced by database systems in most critical business applications today.

58) Unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception in file processing systems.

59) With the traditional file processing approach, each application shares data files, thus enabling much data sharing.

60) Development starts from scratch with the traditional file processing approach because new file formats, descriptions, and file access logic must be designed for each new program.

61) Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend only 20 percent of development time on maintenance.

62) Many of the disadvantages of file processing systems can also be limitations of databases.

63) A data model is a graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data.

64) A well-structured database establishes the entities between relationships in order to derive the desired information.

65) A person is an example of an entity.

66) The data that you are interested in capturing about an entity is called an instance.

67) A relational database establishes the relationships between entities by means of a common field.

68) Separation of metadata from application programs that use the data is called data independence.

69) Data redundancy is used to establish relationships between data but is never used to improve database performance.

70) Redundancy increases the risk of inconsistent data.

71) A user view is how the user sees the data when it is produced.

72) One reason for improved application development productivity with the database approach is that file design and low-level implementation details do not need to be handled by the application programmer.

73) The data repository assists database administrators in enforcing standards.

74) The failure to implement a strong database administrative function is the most common source of database failures in organizations.

75) A constraint is a rule in a database system that can be violated by users.

76) End users can often retrieve and display data easily with a relational database.

77) Reduced program maintenance is an advantage of file processing systems.

78) Cost and complexity are just two of the disadvantages of database processing.

79) The term legacy system refers to a newly installed database management system.

80) A modern database management system automates more of the backup and recovery tasks than a file system.

81) Organizational commitment to a database project is not necessary for its success.

82) Repositories are always used in file processing systems.

83) The user interface includes languages, menus, and other facilities by which users interact with various system components.

84) Personal databases are designed to support a small group of individuals working together on a project.

85) Database development begins with the design of the database.

86) An enterprise data model describes the scope of data for only one information system.

87) Database development projects are never done in a bottom-up fashion.

88) The systems development life cycle is the traditional methodology used to develop, maintain, and replace information systems.

89) The steps of the systems development life cycle can only be viewed as a linear process.

90) Enterprise modeling sets the range and general contents of organizational databases.

91) All projects move from the planning-enterprise modeling step to the planning-conceptual data modeling step of the systems development life cycle.

92) The repository is populated during the analysis phase of the systems development life cycle.

93) The physical structure and storage organization of the database is decided upon during the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle.

94) Database processing programs are coded and tested during the design stage of the systems development life cycle.

95) Data from prior systems is converted to the new system during the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle.

96) Database maintenance is typically the longest step of the database development process.

97) Characteristics of the structure of the database are generally changed during the implementation phase of the database development process.

98) Prototyping is a type of rapid application development.

99) In prototyping, implementation and maintenance activities are repeated as necessary until the product is correct.

100) Visual programming tools such as Visual Basic have made prototyping more difficult.

101) In 1998, ANSI/SPARC published an import document describing the three-schema architecture.

102) The conceptual schema is always technology specific.

103) The external schema contains a subset of the conceptual schema relevant to a particular group of users.

104) A physical schema contains the specifications for how data from a conceptual schema are stored in a computer's secondary memory.

105) The internal schema consists of the physical schema and the enterprise data model.

106) Systems analysts work directly with both management and users to analyze the business situation and develop detailed project specifications.

107) Database architects establish standards for data in business units.

108) E. F. Codd developed the relational data model during the 1970s.

109) The relational data model is no longer popular in the 21st century.

110) Although personal databases improve productivity, one risk is that data cannot be shared with other users.

111) The most common way to support a group of individuals who work together on a project or group of similar projects is with a two-tier client/server database.

112) Each member of a workgroup accesses data located on a database server.

113) In two-tier database architectures, little functionality needs to be programmed into the client application.

114) Applications built with a multitier architecture are meant to support departments.

115) Multitier client/server database applications contain a business logic layer.

116) The scope of an enterprise application is one workgroup or department.

117) An enterprise resource planning system integrates all functions of the enterprise.

118) A data warehouse contains summarized and historical information.

119) An intranet utilizes Web-based technology to improve communication with parties outside of the organization.

120) An extranet uses Internet protocols to establish limited access to company data by the company's customers and suppliers.

121) Discuss the differences between data and information.

122) Discuss some of the disadvantages of file processing systems.

123) Discuss some of the advantages to the database approach.

124) Discuss some of the costs associated with the database approach.

125) Provide a brief overview of the various components of the database environment.

126) Discuss why alternative IS development approaches have evolved, and provide an overview of a couple of these methodologies.

127) Discuss who is involved in the database development process.

CHAPTER 2   MODELING DATA IN THE ORGANIZATION

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 2   Modeling Data in the Organization

1) Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems development process because:

1. A) data characteristics are important in the design of programs and other systems components.
2. B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and play a central role in development.
3. C) data are less stable than processes.
4. D) it is the easiest.

2) The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n):

1. A) database model.
2. B) entity-relationship model.
3. C) relationship systems design.
4. D) database entity diagram.

3) The common types of entities are:

1. A) strong entities.
2. B) weak entities.
3. C) associative entities.
4. D) all of the above.

4) In an E-R diagram, there are ________ business rule(s) for every relationship.

1. A) two
2. B) three
3. C) one
4. D) none

5) Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT:

1. A) managing employees.
2. B) creating data.
3. C) updating data.
4. D) removing data.

6) A business rule:

1. A) defines or constrains some aspect of the business.
2. B) asserts business structure.
3. C) controls or influences the behavior of the business.
4. D) all of the above.

7) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business rule?

1. A) Declarative
2. B) Atomic
3. C) Inconsistent
4. D) Expressible

8) Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data name?

1. A) Relates to business characteristics
2. B) Readable
3. C) Repeatable
4. D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system

9) A fact is an association between two or more:

1. A) words.
2. B) terms.
3. C) facts.
4. D) nuggets.

10) A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a data object EXCEPT:

1. A) subtleties.
2. B) examples.
3. C) who determines the value of the data.
4. D) who can delete the data.

11) Customers, cars, and parts are examples of:

1. A) entities.
2. B) attributes.
3. C) cardinals.
4. D) relationships.

12) Which of the following is an entity type on which a strong entity depends?

1. A) Owner
2. B) Member
3. C) Attribute
4. D) None of the above

13) An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a ________ entity.

1. A) strong
2. B) weak
3. C) codependent
4. D) variant

14) The following figure shows an example of:

1. A) a one-to-many relationship.
2. B) a strong entity and its associated weak entity.
3. C) a co-dependent relationship.
4. D) a double-walled relationship.

15) A(n) ________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and its owner.

1. A) member chain
2. B) identifying relationship
3. C) jump path
4. D) chain link

16) An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT:

1. A) concise.
2. B) specific to the organization.
3. C) as short as possible.
4. D) a singular noun.

17) A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to the organization is called a(n):

1. A) attribute.
2. B) coexisting entity.
3. C) relationship.
4. D) cross-function.

18) An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or relationship) instance is a(n):

1. A) composite attribute.
2. B) required attribute.
3. C) optional attribute.
4. D) multivalued attribute.

19) A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all examples of:

1. A) attributes.
2. B) entities.
3. C) relationships.
4. D) descriptors.

20) An attribute of an entity that must have a value for each entity instance is a(n):

1. A) optional attribute.
2. B) composite attribute.
3. C) required attribute.
4. D) fuzzy attribute.

21) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called a(n) ________ attribute.

1. A) associative
2. B) simple
3. C) composite
4. D) complex

22) The following figure shows an example of:

1. A) a composite attribute.
2. B) a relational attribute.
3. C) a derived attribute.
4. D) a multivalued attribute.

23) In the figure below, which attribute is multivalued?

1. A) Years_Employed
2. B) Employee_ID
3. C) Skill
4. D) Address

24) In the figure below, which attribute is derived?

1. A) Years_Employed
2. B) Employee_ID
3. C) Skill
4. D) Address

25) An attribute that can be calculated from related attribute values is called a(n) ________ attribute.

1. A) simple
2. B) composite
3. C) multivalued
4. D) derived

26) The total quiz points for a student for an entire semester is a(n) ________ attribute.

1. A) derived
2. B) mixed
3. C) stored
4. D) addressed

27) Which of the following criteria should be considered when selecting an identifier?

1. A) Choose an identifier that is stable.
2. B) Choose an identifier that will not be null.
3. C) Choose an identifier that doesn't have large composite attributes.
4. D) All of the above.

28) An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity and consists of a composite attribute is called a(n):

1. A) composite attribute.
2. B) composite identifier.
3. C) identifying attribute.
4. D) relationship identifier.

29) An entity that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes specific to the relationships is called a(n):

1. A) associative entity.
2. B) connecting entity.
3. C) intersectional entity.
4. D) all of the above.

30) Which of the following conditions should exist if an associative entity is to be created?

1. A) All the relationships for the participating entities are many-to-many.
2. B) The new associative entity has independent meaning.
3. C) The new associative entity participates in independent relationships.
4. D) All of the above.

31) The number of entity types that participate in a relationship is called the:

1. A) number.
2. B) identifying characteristic.
3. C) degree.
4. D) counter.

32) A relationship between the instances of a single entity type is called a(n) ________ relationship.

1. A) ternary
2. B) primary
3. C) binary
4. D) unary

33) A student can attend five classes, each with a different professor. Each professor has 30 students. The relationship of students to professors is a ________ relationship.

1. A) one-to-one
2. B) many-to-many
3. C) one-to-many
4. D) strong

34) In the following diagram, what type of relationship is depicted?

1. A) Unary
2. B) Binary
3. C) Ternary
4. D) Quad

35) In the following diagram, which is true?

1. A) It depicts a unary relationship.
2. B) It depicts a many-to-many relationship.
3. C) There is an associative entity.
4. D) All of the above.

36) A ________ specifies the number of instances of one entity that can be associated with each instance of another entity.

1. A) degree
2. B) cardinality constraint
3. C) counter constraint
4. D) limit

37) A simultaneous relationship among the instances of three entity types is called a(n) ________ relationship.

1. A) ternary
2. B) tertiary
3. C) primary
4. D) binary

38) In the figure shown below, which of the following is true?

1. A) A person can marry at most one person.
2. B) A person has to be married.
3. C) A person can marry more than one person, but that person can only be married to one person.
4. D) A person can marry more than one person.

39) A relationship where the minimum and maximum cardinality are both one is a(n) ________ relationship.

1. A) optional
2. B) unidirectional
3. C) mandatory link
4. D) mandatory one

40) For the relationship represented in the figure below, which of the following is true?

1. A) An employee can work in more than one department but does not have to work for any department.
2. B) A department must have at least one employee.
3. C) A department can have more than one employee.
4. D) An employee has to work for more than one department.

41) In the following diagram, which of the answers below is true?

1. A) Each patient has one or more patient histories.
2. B) Each patient has one and only one visit.
3. C) Each patient history belongs to one and only one patient.
4. D) Both A and C

42) In the figure shown below, which of the following business rules would apply?

1. A) Each vendor can supply many parts to any number of warehouses, but need not supply any parts.
2. B) Each part must be supplied by exactly one vendor to any number of warehouses.
3. C) Each warehouse can be supplied with any number of parts from more than one vendor, and each warehouse could be supplied with no parts.
4. D) None of the above.

43) A value that indicates the date or time of a data value is called a(n):

1. A) value stamp.
2. B) time stamp.
3. C) checkpoint.
4. D) check counter.

44) In the following diagram, which answer is true?

1. A) Each employee can supervise one to many employees.
2. B) Each employee can manage many departments.
3. C) Each employee works in more than one department.
4. D) All of the above.

45) A mutually exclusive relationship is one in which:

1. A) an entity instance can participate in many different relationships.
2. B) an entity instance can participate in only one of several alternative relationships.
3. C) an entity instance can not participate in a relationship with another entity instance.
4. D) none of the above.

46) Most systems developers believe that data modeling is the least important part of the systems development process.

47) Data, rather than processes, are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems.

48) The E-R model is used to construct a conceptual model.

49) In an E-R diagram, strong entities are represented by double-walled rectangles.

50) In an E-R diagram, an associative entity is represented by a rounded rectangle.

51) Data modeling is about documenting rules and policies of an organization that govern data.

52) One of the roles of a database analyst is to identify and understand rules that govern data.

53) The purpose of data modeling is to document business rules about processes.

54) A business rule is a statement that defines or constrains some aspect of the business.

55) The intent of a business rule is to break down business structure.

56) Enforcement of business rules can be automated through the use of software tools that can interpret the rules and enforce them.

57) When systems are automatically generated and maintained, quality is diminished.

58) A business rule is a statement of how a policy is enforced or conducted.

59) While business rules are not redundant, a business rule can refer to another business rule.

60) A business rule should be internally consistent.

61) Business rules are formulated from a collection of business ramblings.

62) Data names should always relate to business characteristics.

63) Data names do not have to be unique.

64) An example of a term would be the following sentence: "A student registers for a course."

65) A fact is an association between two or more terms.

66) A good data definition is always accompanied by diagrams, such as the entity-relationship diagram.

67) An entity is a person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data.

68) A single occurrence of an entity is called an entity instance.

69) The relationship between a weak entity type and its owner is an identifying relationship.

70) An entity type on which a strong entity is dependent is called a covariant entity.

71) An entity type name should always be a singular noun.

72) The name used for an entity type should never be the same in other E-R diagrams on which the entity appears.

73) Some examples of attributes are: eye_color, weight, student_id, student.

74) A simple attribute can be broken down into smaller pieces.

75) An attribute whose values can be calculated from related attribute values is called a derived attribute.

76) A multivalued attribute may take on more than one value for a particular entity instance.

77) In the figure below, one might want to create a single-attribute surrogate identifier to substitute for the composite identifier.

78) When choosing an identifier, choose one that will not change its value often.

79) It is desirable that no two attributes across all entity types have the same name.

80) It is not permissible to associate attributes with relationships.

81) A relationship instance is an association between entity instances where each relationship instance includes exactly one entity from each participating entity type.

82) One reason to use an associative entity is if the associative entity has one or more attributes in addition to the identifier.

83) The degree of a relationship is the number of attributes that are associated with it.

84) The relationship between the instances of two entity types is called a binary relationship.

85) The relationship among the instances of three entity types is called a unary relationship.

86) A cardinality constraint tells what kinds of properties are associated with an entity.

87) The maximum criminality of a relationship is the maximum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A.

88) Participation in a relationship may be optional or mandatory.

89) A ternary relationship is equivalent to three binary relationships.

90) A time stamp is a time value that is associated with a data value.

91) Relationships represent action being taken using a verb phrase.

92) In the figure below, the name of the relationship follows the guidelines for naming a relationship.

93) On what premises are business rules based?

94) What are some of the guidelines for good data names of objects in general?

95) What is the difference between an entity type and an entity instance?

96) How is a strong entity different from a weak entity?

97) What is the difference between a simple attribute and a composite attribute?

98) What is a derived attribute, and how is it different from a stored attribute?

99) What is an associative entity? What four conditions should exist in order to convert a relationship to an associative entity?

100) What are the three different degrees of relationship?

CHAPTER 3   THE ENHANCED E-R MODEL AND BUSINESS RULES

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 3   The Enhanced E-R Model and Business Rules

1) Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a relationship with one or more subtypes?

1. A) Megatype
2. B) Supertype
3. C) Subgroup
4. D) Class

2) Given the following entities, which of the choices below would be the most complicated?

Automobile: VIN, EngineSize,NumberOfDoors, NumberOfPassengers,, FuelType, Transmission

SUV: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfPassengers, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission

Truck: VIN, EngineSize, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission, Payload

1. A) Define one vehicle entity type to hold all entities.
2. B) Define a separate entity type for each entity.
3. C) Define a supertype called vehicle and make each of the entities subtypes.
4. D) Keep only the Truck entity type.

3) The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all attributes of a supertype is called:

1. A) hierarchy reception.
2. B) class management.
3. C) attribute inheritance.
4. D) generalization.

4) Subtypes should be used when:

1. A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type.
2. B) supertypes relate to objects outside the business.
3. C) the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that is unique to that subtype.
4. D) none of the above.

5) In the figure below, which of the following are subtypes of patient?

1. A) Outpatient
2. B) Physician
3. C) Bed
4. D) All of the above

6) The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and forming relationships is called:

1. A) specialization.
2. B) generalization.
3. C) creating discord.
4. D) selecting classes.

7) In the figure below, to which of the following entities are the entities "CAR" and "TRUCK" generalized?

1. A) Make
2. B) Vehicle
3. C) Model
4. D) Price

8) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types is called:

1. A) generalization.
2. B) specialization.
3. C) normalization.
4. D) none of the above.

9) Which of the following is a completeness constraint?

1. A) Total specialization
2. B) Partial generalization
3. C) Total recall
4. D) Partial hybridization

10) The following figure is an example of:

1. A) partial specialization.
2. B) completeness.
3. C) total specialization.
4. D) disjointness.

11) The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype.

1. A) semi-specialization
2. B) total specialization
3. C) partial specialization
4. D) disjointedness

12) The following figure is an example of:

1. A) partial specialization.
2. B) disjoint completeness.
3. C) total specialization.
4. D) transunion constraint.

13) The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship.

1. A) semi-specialization
2. B) total specialization
3. C) partial specialization
4. D) total convergence

14) A ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses whether an instance of a supertype must also be an instance of at least one subtype.

1. A) disjoint
2. B) overlap
3. C) completeness
4. D) weak

15) In the figure below, a student:

1. A) must be a graduate student, an undergraduate, a special student or some other type of student.
2. B) must be a graduate student or an undergraduate student.
3. C) must be at least a special student.
4. D) none of the above.

16) The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of only one subtype at a time.

1. A) exclusion
2. B) disjoint
3. C) removal
4. D) inclusion

17) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member of two or more subtypes.

1. A) disjointedness constraint
2. B) disjoint rule
3. C) partial specialization
4. D) total specialization

18) In the figure below, the patient must be either an outpatient or a resident patient. This is an example of the ________ rule.

1. A) disjoint
2. B) specialization
3. C) generalization
4. D) overlap

19) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

1. A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and cannot be both at the same time.
2. B) A rental unit can be either an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.
3. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and could be both.
4. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

20) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

1. A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and cannot be both at the same time.
2. B) A rental unit can be either an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.
3. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and could be both.
4. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

21) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

1. A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and cannot be both at the same time.
2. B) A rental unit can be either an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.
3. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and could be both.
4. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

22) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

1. A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and cannot be both at the same time.
2. B) A rental unit can be either an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.
3. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house and could be both.
4. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

23) An attribute of the supertype that determines the target subtype(s) is called the:

1. A) determinant.
2. B) subtype decision.
3. C) disjoint indicator.
4. D) none of the above.

24) The ________ rule states that an entity instance can simultaneously be a member of two (or more) subtypes.

1. A) disjoint
2. B) overlap
3. C) partial specialization
4. D) total specialization

25) The following diagram shows:

1. A) total specialization.
2. B) partial specialization.
3. C) the overlap rule.
4. D) none of the above.

26) The subtype discriminator in the figure below is:

1. A) Part_Type.
2. B) Part_No.
3. C) Manufactured Part.
4. D) Location.

27) The subtype discriminator is a composite attribute when there is a(n):

1. A) overlap rule.
2. B) disjoint rule.
3. C) partial specialization.
4. D) full specialization.

28) The following figure shows an example of:

1. A) the disjoint rule.
2. B) the completeness rule.
3. C) the underdog rule.
4. D) the overlap rule.

29) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, each subtype has:

1. A) only one supertype.
2. B) many supertypes.
3. C) at most two supertypes.
4. D) at least one subtype.

30) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, subtypes that are lower in the hierarchy inherit attributes from not only their immediate supertype but from all ________ in the hierarchy.

1. A) subtypes
2. B) supertypes
3. C) constraints
4. D) dimensions

31)  The following figure shows a(n):

1. A) disjoint constraint.
2. B) completeness constraint.
3. C) supertype/subtype hierarchy.
4. D) spindle constraint.

32) Which statement is true about the following diagram?

1. A) A person can only be a faculty, student or staff.
2. B) A student can be both an undergraduate and a graduate student at the same time.
3. C) All attributes of person and student are inherited by undergraduate.
4. D) All attributes of graduate are inherited by person.

33) An entity cluster is:

1. A) a formal method for specifying attributes of related entities.
2. B) a set of one or more entity types and associated relationships grouped into a single abstract entity type.
3. C) a useful way to present data for a small and fairly simple organization.
4. D) a way of developing more granular views of the data model.

34) The figure below is an example of a(n):

1. A) supertype/subtype hierarchy.
2. B) hierarchical data model.
3. C) entity cluster.
4. D) none of the above.

35) An entity cluster can be formed by:

1. A) abstracting a supertype and its subtype.
2. B) combining directly related entity types and their relationships.
3. C) combining a strong entity and its weak entities.
4. D) all of the above.

36) Packaged data models:

1. A) are ready to use right out of the box.
2. B) require customization.
3. C) allow partial specialization.
4. D) cannot be used for most applications.

37) Which of the following is NOT true of packaged data models?

1. A) Relationships are connected to the highest-level entity type in an order that makes sense.
2. B) All subtype/supertype relationships follow the total specialization and disjoint rules.
3. C) No entities on the many side of a relationship can be weak.
4. D) Both B and C.

38) A generic or template data model that can be reused as a starting point for a data modeling project is called a(n):

1. A) packaged data model.
2. B) universal data model.
3. C) enterprise data model.
4. D) none of the above.

39) Using a packaged data model, projects take less time and cost because:

1. A) less personnel are required.
2. B) essential components and structures are already defined.
3. C) there is more time taken to model the enterprise.
4. D) none of the above.

40) All of the following are advantages of packaged data models EXCEPT:

1. A) packaged data models can be built using proven components evolved from cumulative experiences.
2. B) projects take less time and cost less.
3. C) the data model is easier to evolve.
4. D) more one-to-one relationships give the data model more flexibility.

41) All of the following are steps to using a packaged data model EXCEPT:

1. A) identify the parts of the data model that apply to your data modeling situation.
2. B) utilize all business rules that come with the packaged data model.
3. C) rename the identified data elements.
4. D) map data to be used in packages with existing data in the current databases.

42) When identifying with the parts of the packaged data model that apply to your organization, you should first start with:

1. A) entities.
2. B) attributes.
3. C) primary keys.
4. D) relationships.

43) The third step in the data modeling process with a packaged data model is:

1. A) rename identified data elements.
2. B) rename relationships.
3. C) map data to be used from package to data in current databases.
4. D) interview users.

44) A good method for identifying inconsistencies and finding hidden meaning in the customized purchased data model is:

1. A) data analysis.
2. B) data volume usage analysis.
3. C) user interviews.
4. D) data profiling.

45) The most important challenge of customizing a purchased data model is:

1. A) getting user buy-in.
2. B) determining the business rules that will be established through the data model.
3. C) implementation.
4. D) user training.

46) In packaged data models, strong entities always have ________ between them.

1. A) weak entities
2. B) 1:1 relationships
3. C) 1:M relationships
4. D) M:N relationships

47) In packaged data models, all subtype/supertype relationships follow the ________ and ________ rules.

1. A) partial specialization and disjoint
2. B) total specialization and disjoint
3. C) total specialization and overlap
4. D) partial specialization and overlap

48) A subtype is a generic entity that has a relationship with one or more entities at a lower level.

49) One of the major challenges in data modeling is to recognize and clearly represent entities that are almost the same.

50) An entity instance of a subtype represents the same entity instance of the supertype.

51) A member of a subtype does NOT necessarily have to be a member of the supertype.

52) Supertype/subtype relationships should be used when the instances of a subtype participate in no relationships which are unique to that subtype.

53) Specialization is the reverse of generalization.

54) Generalization is a top-down process.

55) A completeness constraint may specify that each entity of the supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship.

56) The total specialization rule states that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype.

57) The following figure is an example of total specialization.

58) When the total specialization rule is set for a supertype/subtype relationship, one could roughly compare the supertype to an abstract class in object-oriented programming.

59) The disjoint rule specifies that if an entity instance of the supertype is a member of one subtype, it MUST simultaneously be a member of another subtype.

60) The overlap rule specifies that if an entity instance of the supertype is a member of one subtype, it can simultaneously be a member of two (or more) subtypes.

61) The following figure is an example of the overlap rule.

62) In the figure shown below, a rental unit can be both a house and an apartment.

63) In the figure shown below, a rental unit has to be either a house or an apartment.

64) In the figure shown below, there could be an instance of a rental unit that is neither an apartment nor a house.

65) In the figure shown below,a rental unit can be both an apartment and a house but must be at least one.

66) When subtypes are overlapping, an additional field must be added to the supertype to act as a discriminator.

67) There are three separate discriminators in the following diagram because of the overlap rule.

68) A subtype can become a supertype if the subtype has other subtypes beneath it.

69) The following diagram is an example of a supertype/subtype hierarchy.

70) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, attributes are assigned at the highest logical level that is possible in the hierarchy.

71) Subtypes at the lowest level of a hierarchy do not inherit attributes from their ancestors.

72) Entity clustering is a methodology for grouping one or more entity types and associated relationships into a single abstract entity type.

73) An entity cluster should focus on some area of interest to some community of users, developers or managers.

74) An entity cluster can have a relationship with another entity cluster much the same way that an entity can have a relationship with another entity.

75) Packaged data models are meant to be customized.

76) Packaged data models use an entity type to store union data.

77) A universal data model is a generic or template data model that can be reused as a starting point for a data modeling project.

78) Packaged data models cause projects to take more time to build.

79) Packaged data models can be developed using proven components.

80) Data models of an existing database are harder for data modelers to read.

81) Packaged data models are as flexible as possible because all supertype/subtype relationships allow the total specialization and overlap rules.

82) Creating a data model from a packaged data model requires much more skill than creating one from scratch.

83) It is easier t o share information across organizations if companies in the same industry use the same universal data model as the basis for their organizational databases.

84) Adapting a packaged data model from your DBMS vendor makes it difficult for the application to work with other applications from the same vendor.

85) Because a purchased data model is extensive, you begin by identifying the parts of the data model that apply to your data modeling situation.

86) You will never need to map data in current databases to data in a packaged data model.

87) Mapping existing data to new data in a packaged data model is useful for developing migration plans.

88) It is easy to miss the opportunity to visualize future requirements shown in the full data model when using a packaged data model.

89) Explain why the E-R model needed to be expanded into the enhanced E-R model.

90) Explain the terms subtype and supertype. Discuss the differences between them.

91) Compare and contrast generalization and specialization.

92) Discuss the reasoning behind using supertype/subtype relationships.

93) Discuss when you would use total specialization and when you would use partial specialization.

94) Contrast the overlap rule to the disjoint rule.

95) Describe how subtype discriminators are used when we have overlapping subtypes.

96) Discuss how attributes are assigned in a supertype/subtype hierarchy.

97) Discuss how attribute inheritance works in a supertype/subtype hierarchy.

98) Explain what entity clustering is.

99) Why are packaged data models gaining popularity?

100) How is the data modeling process different when starting with a purchased solution?

CHAPTER 4   LOGICAL DATABASE DESIGN AND THE RELATIONAL MODEL

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 4   Logical Database Design and the Relational Model

1) A form of database specification that indicates all the parameters for data storage that are then input to database implementation is:

1. A) logical.
2. B) physical.
3. C) schematic.
4. D) conceptual.

2) Physical database design decisions must be made carefully because of impacts on:

1. A) data accessibility.
2. B) response times.
3. C) security.
4. D) all of the above.

3) The relational data model consists of which components?

1. A) Data structure
2. B) Data manipulation
3. C) Data integrity
4. D) All of the above

4) A two-dimensional table of data is called a:

1. A) group.
2. B) set.
3. C) declaration.
4. D) relation.

5) ________ is a component of the relational data model included to specify business rules to maintain the integrity of data when they are manipulated.

1. A) Business rule constraint
2. B) Data integrity
3. C) Business integrity
4. D) Data structure

6) An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a relation is called a:

1. A) column.
2. B) foreign field.
3. C) primary key.
4. D) duplicate key.

7) An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary key of another relation in the same database is called a:

1. A) link attribute.
2. B) link key.
3. C) foreign key.
4. D) foreign attribute.

8) A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a:

1. A) foreign key.
2. B) composite key.
3. C) multivalued key.
4. D) cardinal key.

9) Which of the following are properties of relations?

1. A) Each attribute has a unique name.
2. B) No two rows in a relation are identical.
3. C) There are no multivalued attributes in a relation.
4. D) All of the above.

10) In the figure below, the primary key for "Order Line" is which type of key?

1. A) Composite
2. B) Foreign
3. C) Standard
4. D) Grouped

11) Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a relational schema with sample data?

1. A) Sample data can be used to improve user communications.
2. B) Sample data can be used for prototype generation.
3. C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.
4. D) Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of your design.

12) The entity integrity rule states that:

1. A) no primary key attribute can be null.
2. B) referential integrity must be maintained across all entities.
3. C) each entity must have a primary key.
4. D) a primary key must have only one attribute.

13) A domain definition consists of the following components EXCEPT:

1. A) domain name.
2. B) data type.
3. C) integrity constraints.
4. D) size.

14) The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null.

1. A) referential integrity constraint
2. B) entity integrity rule
3. C) partial specialization rule
4. D) range domain rule

15) A rule that states that each foreign key value must match a primary key value in the other relation is called the:

1. A) referential integrity constraint.
2. B) key match rule.
3. C) entity key group rule.
4. D) foreign/primary match rule.

16) In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make table definitions.

1. A) create session
2. B) create table
3. C) create index
4. D) select

17) Which of the following are anomalies that can be caused by redundancies in tables?

1. A) Insertion
2. B) Deletion
3. C) Modification
4. D) All of the above

18) A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use is considered to be:

1. A) clean.
2. B) simple.
3. C) complex.
4. D) well-structured.

19) Understanding the steps involved in transforming EER diagrams into relations is important because:

1. A) you must be able to check the output of a CASE tool.
2. B) there are rarely legitimate alternatives from which to choose.
3. C) CASE tools can model any situation.
4. D) none of the above.

20) A nonkey attribute is also called a(n):

1. A) column.
2. B) unimportant datum.
3. C) descriptor.
4. D) address.

21) When a regular entity type contains a multivalued attribute, one must:

1. A) create a single relation with multiple lines for each instance of the multivalued attribute.
2. B) create two new relations, one containing the multivalued attribute.
3. C) create two new relations, both containing the multivalued attribute.
4. D) none of the above.

22) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations depict?

1. A) Strong entity/weak entity
2. B) Multivalued
3. C) Composite foreign key
4. D) One-to-many

23) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations depict?

1. A) Strong entity/weak entity
2. B) One-to-many
3. C) Ternary
4. D) Many-to-many

24) In the figure below, what type of relationship is depicted?

1. A) One-to-one
2. B) Unary
3. C) One-to-many
4. D) Many-to-many

25) In the figure below, what type of key is depicted?

1. A) Primary
2. B) Recursive primary
3. C) Composite
4. D) Recursive foreign

26) Referring to the figure below, which of the following is NOT true?

1. A) A component is part of an item.
2. B) A component is always used in only one item.
3. C) A component can be part of an item.
4. D) A component may be used in many items.

27) The figure below is an example of mapping which type of relationship?

1. A) First
2. B) Second
3. C) Unary
4. D) Ternary

28) All of the following are the main goals of normalization EXCEPT:

1. A) minimize data redundancy.
2. B) simplify the enforcement of referential integrity.
3. C) maximize storage space.
4. D) make it easier to maintain data.

29) When all multivalued attributes have been removed from a relation, it is said to be in:

1. A) first normal form.
2. B) second normal form.
3. C) Boyce-Codd normal form.
4. D) third normal form.

30) The normal form which removes any remaining functional dependencies because there was more than one primary key for the same nonkeys is called:

1. A) fifth normal form.
2. B) fourth normal form.
3. C) Boyce-Codd normal form.
4. D) sixth normal form.

Answer:  C

31) The normal form which deals with multivalued dependencies is called:

1. A) fifth normal form.
2. B) fourth normal form.
3. C) Boyce-Codd normal form.
4. D) sixth normal form.

32) A relation that contains no multivalued attributes and has nonkey attributes solely dependent on the primary key but contains transitive dependencies is in which normal form?

1. A) First
2. B) Second
3. C) Third
4. D) Fourth

33) A constraint between two attributes is called a(n):

1. A) functional relation.
2. B) attribute dependency.
3. C) functional dependency.
4. D) functional relation constraint.

34) A candidate key must satisfy all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

1. A) the key must uniquely identify the row.
2. B) the key must indicate the row's position in the table.
3. C) the key must be nonredundant.
4. D) each nonkey attribute is functionally dependent upon it.

35) The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional dependency is the:

1. A) candidate key.
2. B) determinant.
3. C) foreign key.
4. D) primary key.

36) A functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally dependent on part, but not all, of the primary key is called a ________ dependency.

1. A) partial key-based
2. B) partial functional
3. C) cross key
4. D) merged relation

37) A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes is called a:

1. A) partial functional dependency.
2. B) partial nonkey dependency.
3. C) transitive dependency.
4. D) partial transitive dependency.

38) Which of the following anomalies result from a transitive dependency?

1. A) Insertion
2. B) Modification
3. C) Deletion
4. D) All of the above

39) An understanding of how to merge relations is important because:

1. A) there may be a need to merge relations on projects with subteams.
2. B) different views may need to be integrated.
3. C) new data requirements may produce new relations to be merged.
4. D) all of the above.

40) Two or more attributes having different names but the same meaning are called:

1. A) homonyms.
2. B) aliases.
3. C) synonyms.
4. D) alternate attributes.

41) An attribute that may have more than one meaning is called a(n):

1. A) homonym.
2. B) alias.
3. C) double defined attribute.
4. D) synonym.

42) An alternative name for an attribute is called a(n):

1. A) synonym.
2. B) alias.
3. C) alternate attribute.
4. D) related characteristic.

43) A primary key whose value is unique across all relations is called a(n):

1. A) global primary key.
2. B) inter-table primary key.
3. C) enterprise key.
4. D) foreign global key.

44) Data structures include data organized in the form of tables with rows and columns.

45) Data integrity consists of powerful operations to manipulate data stored in relations.

46) A composite key consists of only one attribute.

47) A primary key is an attribute that uniquely identifies each row in a relation.

48) A foreign key is a primary key of a relation that also is a primary key in another relation.

49) One property of a relation is that each attribute within a relation has a unique name.

ns

50) There can be multivalued attributes in a relation.

51) The columns of a relation can be interchanged without changing the meaning or use of the relation.

52) Unlike columns, the rows of a relation may not be interchanged and must be stored in one sequence.

53) Sample data are useful for developing prototype applications and for testing queries.

54) The allowable range of values for a given attribute is part of the domain constraint.

55) All values that appear in a column of a relation must be taken from the same domain.

56) The entity integrity rule states that a primary key attribute can be null.

57) In the relational data model, associations between tables are defined through the use of primary keys.

58) A referential integrity constraint is a rule that maintains consistency among the rows of two relations.

59) A cascading delete removes all records in other tables associated with the record to be deleted.

60) The truncate table statement in SQL creates a new table.

61) A well-structured relation contains minimal redundancy and allows users to manipulate the relation without errors or inconsistencies.

62) An anomaly is a type of flaw in the database server.

63) CASE tools can model more complex data relationships, such as ternary relationships.

64) When a regular entity type contains a multivalued attribute, two relations are created.

65) When transforming a weak entity, one should create one relation with both the attributes of the strong entity and the attributes of the weak entity.

66) The primary key of the many side migrates to the one side when transforming a one-to-many relationship.

67) When transforming a one-to-one relationship, a new relation is always created.

68) If an identifier is not assigned, the default primary key for an associative relation consists of the two primary key attributes from the other two relations.

69) An identifier assigned to an associative entity is also called a cross-relation key.

70) In the figure below, each employee has exactly one manager.

71) When transforming a unary many-to-many relationship to relations, a recursive foreign key is used.

72) The relational data model does, at this time, directly support subtype/supertype relationships.

73) When normalizing, the goal is to decompose relations with anomalies to produce smaller, well-structured relations.

74) A relation in fifth normal form may not contain any anomalies.

75) A co-dependency is a constraint between two attributes or two sets of attributes.

76) A candidate key is an attribute, or combination of attributes, that uniquely identifies a row in a relation.

77) A relation is in first normal form if it has no more than one multivalued attribute.

78) A partial functional dependency is a functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally dependent on part (but not all) of the primary key.

79) A transversal dependency is a functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes.

80) Anomalies do not generally arise out of transitive dependencies.

81) View integration is the process of merging relations together.

82) A synonym is an attribute that may have more than one meaning.

83) When two or more attributes describe the same characteristic of an entity, they are synonyms.

84) An enterprise key is a foreign key whose value is unique across all relations.

85) Discuss the various relational keys.

86) Discuss the properties of relations.

87) Discuss why it is important to remove multivalued attributes from a relation.

88) Discuss why it is a good idea to create an instance of your relational schema with sample data.

89) Discuss the types of integrity constraints.

90) What is an anomaly, and what are the three types of anomalies?

91) Discuss how you would map a regular entity to a relation.

92) How do you convert weak entities to relations?

93) Discuss when it is best to create a surrogate key for an associative entity.

94) Discuss the two possible scenarios when mapping an associative entity.

95) Discuss how to map a unary one-to-many relationship.

96) Discuss how to map a unary many-to-many relationship.

97) Discuss the two major occasions when you benefit from using normalization.

98) List and explain all of the normal forms.

99) Explain what a candidate key is and how it might be used.

100) Explain how subtype/supertype relationships are converted to relations.

CHAPTER 5   PHYSICAL DATABASE DESIGN AND PERFORMANCE

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 5   Physical Database Design and Performance

1) A requirement to begin designing physical files and databases is:

1. A) normalized relations.
2. B) definitions of each attribute.
3. C) technology descriptions.
4. D) all of the above.

2) A key decision in the physical design process is:

1. A) knowing the user base.
2. B) selecting structures.
3. C) deciding on the monitor.
4. D) all of the above.

3) Designing physical files requires ________ of where and when data are used in various ways.

1. A) maps
2. B) descriptions
3. C) keys
4. D) hints

4) The storage format for each attribute from the logical data model is chosen to maximize ________ and minimize storage space.

1. A) query design
2. B) programmer productivity
3. C) data integrity
4. D) data integration

5) Database access frequencies are estimated from:

1. A) transaction volumes.
2. B) user logins.
3. C) security violations.
4. D) none of the above.

6) A detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data is called a(n):

1. A) DBMS code.
2. B) data type.
3. C) SQL.
4. D) DB layout.

7) All of the following are objectives when selecting a data type EXCEPT:

1. A) represent all possible values.
2. B) improve data integrity.
3. C) support all data manipulations.
4. D) use a lot of storage space.

8) All of the following are valid datatypes in Oracle 11g EXCEPT:

2. A) varchar2.
3. B) boolean.
4. C) blob.
5. D) number.

9) The smallest unit of application data recognized by system software is a:

1. A) field.
2. B) row.
3. C) data type.
4. D) column.

10) Which of the following is an objective of selecting a data type?

1. A) Represent a small number of possible values
2. B) Maximize storage space
3. C) Limit security
4. D) Improve data integrity

11) In which data model would a code table appear?

1. A) Conceptual
2. B) Logical
3. C) Physical
4. D) Data layout

12) An integrity control supported by a DBMS is:

1. A) substitute estimates.
2. B) security.
3. C) range control.
4. D) GUI guards.

13) The value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit value for an instance of that field is called a(n):

1. A) default value.
2. B) null value.
3. C) range control.
4. D) gurand.

14) A method for handling missing data is to:

1. A) substitute and estimate for the missing data.
2. B) track missing data with special reports.
3. C) perform sensitivity testing.
4. D) all of the above.

15) Sensitivity testing involves:

1. A) checking to see if your teeth hurt when you brush.
2. B) seeing how accurate data are.
3. C) checking to see if missing data will greatly impact results.
4. D) none of the above.

16) All of the following are common denormalization opportunities EXCEPT:

1. A) two entities with a one-to-one relationship.
2. B) a one-to-many relationship.
3. C) a many-to-many relationship with nonkey attributes.
4. D) reference data.

17) In most cases the goal of ________ dominates the design process.

1. A) efficient data processing
2. B) security
3. C) quick pointer updates
4. D) shorter design times

18) Distributing the rows of data into separate files is called:

1. A) normalization.
2. B) horizontal partitioning.
3. C) vertical partitioning.
4. D) file allocation.

19) Horizontal partitioning makes sense:

1. A) when different categories of a table's rows are processed separately.
2. B) when less security is needed.
3. C) when partitions must be organized the same.
4. D) when all of the above are true.

20) An advantage of partitioning is:

1. A) efficiency.
2. B) remote optimization.
3. C) extra space and update time.
4. D) both A and B.

21) A disadvantage of partitioning is:

1. A) simplicity.
2. B) remote optimization.
3. C) extra space and update time.
4. D) shorter technology spans.

22) All of the following are horizontal partitioning methods in Oracle EXCEPT:

1. A) key range partitioning.
2. B) hash partitioning.
3. C) multivalued partitioning.
4. D) composite partitioning.

23) ________ partitioning distributes the columns of a table into several separate physical records.

1. A) Horizontal
2. B) Crossways
3. C) Vertical
4. D) Final

24) Another form of denormalization where the same data are stored in multiple places in the database is called:

1. A) data duplication.
2. B) data replication.
3. C) advanced placement.
4. D) horizontal partitioning.

25) Within Oracle, the named set of storage elements in which physical files for database tables may be stored is called a(n):

1. A) extent.
2. B) table.
3. C) tablespace.
4. D) partition.

26) While Oracle has responsibility for managing data inside a tablespace, the tablespace as a whole is managed by the:

1. A) user.
2. B) database administrator.
3. C) application developer.
4. D) operating system.

27) A contiguous section of disk storage space is called a(n):

1. A) track.
2. B) sector.
3. C) extent.
4. D) tablespace.

28) A(n) ________ is a field of data used to locate a related field or record.

1. A) key
2. B) index
3. C) lock
4. D) pointer

29) A(n) ________ is a technique for physically arranging the records of a file on secondary storage devices.

1. A) physical pointer
2. B) retrieval program
3. C) file organization
4. D) update program

30) A factor to consider when choosing a file organization is:

1. A) fast data retrieval.
2. B) security.
3. C) efficient storage.
4. D) all of the above.

31) One field or combination of fields for which more than one record may have the same combination of values is called a(n):

1. A) secondary key.
2. B) index.
3. C) composite key.
4. D) linked key.

32) An index on columns from two or more tables that come from the same domain of values is called a:

1. A) bitmap index.
2. B) multivalued index.
3. C) join index.
4. D) transaction index.

33) A(n) ________ is a routine that converts a primary key value into a relative record number.

1. A) record index calculator
2. B) index pointer program
3. C) hashing algorithm
4. D) pointing algorithm

34) In which type of file is multiple key retrieval not possible?

1. A) Sequential
2. B) Hashed
3. C) Indexed
4. D) Clustered

35) A file organization that uses hashing to map a key into a location in an index where there is a pointer to the actual data record matching the hash key is called a:

1. A) hashed file organization.
2. B) hash key.
3. C) multi-indexed file organization.
4. D) hash index table.

36) Which type of file is most efficient with storage space?

1. A) Sequential
2. B) Hashed
3. C) Indexed
4. D) Clustered

37) Which type of file is easiest to update?

1. A) Sequential
2. B) Hashed
3. C) Indexed
4. D) Clustered

38) A method to allow adjacent secondary memory space to contain rows from several tables is called:

1. A) cluttering.
2. B) clustering.
3. C) concatenating.
4. D) compiling.

39) A rule of thumb for choosing indexes is to:

1. A) be careful indexing attributes that may be null.
2. B) index each primary key of each table.
3. C) use an index when there is variety in attribute values.
4. D) all of the above.

40) A method that speeds query processing by running a query at the same time against several partitions of a table using multiprocessors is called:

1. A) multiple partition queries.
2. B) perpendicular query processing.
3. C) parallel query processing.
4. D) query optimization.

41) A command used in Oracle to display how the query optimizer intends to access indexes, use parallel servers and join tables to prepare query results is the:

1. A) explain plan.
2. B) show optimization.
3. C) explain query.
4. D) analyze query.

42) Requirements for response time, data security, backup and recovery are all requirements for physical design.

43) One decision in the physical design process is selecting structures.

44) The logical database design always forms the best foundation for grouping attributes in the physical design.

45) Efficient database structures will be beneficial only if queries and the underlying database management system are tuned to properly use the structures.

46) SOX stands for the Sorbet-Oxford Act.

47) Adding notations to the EER diagram regarding data volumes and usage is of no value to the physical design process.

48) The smallest unit of named application data is a record.

49) One objective of selecting a data type is to minimize storage space.

50) A default value is the value that a field will always assume, regardless of what the user enters for an instance of that field.

51) A range control limits the set of permissible values that a field may assume.

52) One method to handle missing values is to substitute an exact value.

53) Sensitivity testing involves ignoring missing data unless knowing a value might significantly change results.

54) Denormalization is the process of transforming relations with variable-length fields into those with fixed-length fields.

55) Keeping the zip code with the city and state in a table is a typical form of denormalization.

56) Denormalization almost always leads to more storage space for raw data.

57) Horizontal partitioning refers to the process of combining several smaller relations into a larger table.

58) Horizontal partitioning is very different from creating a supertype/subtype relationship.

59) Security is one advantage of partitioning.

60) Reduced uptime is a disadvantage of partitioning.

61) Hash partitioning spreads data evenly across partitions independent of any partition key value.

62) Free range partitioning is a type of horizontal partitioning in which each partition is defined by a range of values for one or more columns in the normalized table.

63) Vertical partitioning means distributing the columns of a table into several separate physical records.

64) An extent is a named portion of secondary memory allocated for the purpose of storing physical records.

65) A tablespace is a named set of disk storage elements in which physical files for the database tables may be stored.

66) A pointer is a field of data that can be used to locate a related field or record of data.

67) A file organization is a named portion of primary memory.

68) Fast data retrieval is one factor to consider when choosing a file organization for a particular database file.

69) In a sequential file, the records are stored in sequence according to primary key.

70) A key is a data structure used to determine the location of rows in a file that satisfy some condition.

71) A join index is a combination of two or more indexes.

72) A hashing algorithm is a routine that converts a primary key value into a relative record number.

73) Clustering allows for adjacent secondary memory locations to contain rows from several tables.

74) Indexes are most useful on small, clustered files.

75) Indexes are most useful for columns that frequently appear in WHERE clauses of SQL commands, either to qualify the rows to select or for linking.

76) Using an index for attributes referenced in ORDER BY and GROUP BY clauses has no significant impact upon database performance.

77) Parallel query processing speed is not significantly different from running queries in a non-parallel mode.

78) Along with table scans, other elements of a query can be processed in parallel.

79) The query processor always knows the best way to process a query.

80) Discuss the critical decisions that must be made during physical database design.

81) Discuss why physical database design is a foundation for compliance with regulations on financial reporting.

82) Discuss the rationale behind data volume and usage analysis.

83) Explain how one goes about choosing data types.

84) Discuss coding techniques and how they could be used.

85) Discuss how data integrity can be controlled.

86) How are missing values generally handled in database management systems?

87) Discuss three possible opportunities for denormalization.

88) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of partitioning.

89) When would you use horizontal partitioning, and when would you use vertical partitioning?

90) List the seven factors to consider when choosing a file organization for a particular file in a database.

91) Explain what a tablespace is and how it is used.

92) Explain the differences between sequential and indexed file organizations.

93) What is a hashing algorithm and how is it used in hashed file organizations?

94) What is clustering?

95) Explain what primary, secondary and unique key indexes are.

96) Discuss when it is best to use indexes.

97) What is parallel query processing and how is it useful?

98) Why would you want to override automatic query optimization?

CHAPTER 6   INTRODUCTION TO SQL

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 6   Introduction to SQL

1) Which of the following is a purpose of the SQL standard?

1. A) To specify syntax and semantics of SQL data definition and manipulation
2. B) To specify minimal and complete standards, which permit different degrees of adoption in products
3. C) To define the data structures and basic operations for SQL databases
4. D) All of the above

2) The benefits of a standardized relational language include:

1. A) application longevity.
2. B) reduced training costs.
3. C) cross-system communication.
4. D) all of the above.

3) The ________ is the structure that contains descriptions of objects such as tables and views created by users.

1. A) SQL
2. B) schema
3. C) catalog
4. D) master view

4) ________ is a set of commands used to control a database, which includes security.

1. A) DML
2. B) DDL
3. C) DCL
4. D) DPL

5) ________ is a set of commands used to update and query a database.

1. A) DML
2. B) DDL
3. C) DCL
4. D) DPL

6) DDL is typically used during which phases of the development process?

1. A) Implementation
2. B) Physical design
3. C) Analysis
4. D) All of the above

7) The command for creating a database is:

1. A) create table.
2. B) create view.
3. C) create schema.
4. D) create authorization.

8) The SQL command ________ defines a logical table from one or more tables or views.

1. A) create table
2. B) alter table
3. C) create view
4. D) create relationship

9) Any create command may be reversed by using a ________ command.

1. A) truncate
2. B) drop
3. C) delete
4. D) unpack

10) The first in a series of steps to follow when creating a table is to:

1. A) identify columns that must be unique.
2. B) identify each attribute and its characteristics.
3. C) create an index.
4. D) identify columns that must be null.

11) The SQL command ________ adds one or more new columns to a table.

1. A) create table
2. B) alter table
3. C) create view
4. D) create relationship

12) What does the following SQL statement do?

Alter Table Customer_T

Add (Type Varchar (2));

1. A) Alters the Customer_T table to accept Type 2 Varchars
2. B) Alters the Customer_T table to be a Type 2 Varchar
3. C) Alters the Customer_T table, and adds a field called "Type"
4. D) Alters the Customer_T table by adding a 2-byte field called "Varchar"

13) What does the following SQL command do?

insert into Customer_T values (001,'John Smith','231 West St','Boston','MA','02115');

1. A) Adds a new record to the Customer_T
2. B) Creates the Customer_T table
3. C) Deletes the Customer_T table
4. D) Updates the Customer_T table

14) Given a table named store with 5 fields: store_id, address, city, state, zipcode, why would the following insert command not work?

insert into store values ('234 Park Street')

1. A) It would work just fine.
2. B) You must specify the fields to insert if you are only inserting some of the fields.
3. C) There is no table keyword.
4. D) None of the above.

15) What does the following SQL statement do?

Delete from Customer_T

where state = 'HI';

1. A) Deletes all records from customer_t where the state is equal to HI
2. B) Removes the Customer_T table from the database
3. C) Deletes all records from the Customer_T table
4. D) None of the above

16) What does the following SQL statement do?

Update Product_T

Set Unit_Price = 775

Where Product_ID = 7

1. A) Changes the price of a unit called Product_T to 7
2. B) Changes the unit price of Product 7 to 775
3. C) Changes the length of the Unit_Price field to 775
4. D) Updates the Product_T table to have a unit price of 775

17) Which of the following is a technique for optimizing the internal performance of the relational data model?

1. A) Avoiding indexes on secondary keys
2. B) Clustering data
3. C) Not reporting statistics to save machine resources
4. D) Using random index organizations

18) Indexes are created in most RDBMSs to:

1. A) provide a quicker way to store data.
2. B) decrease the amount of disk space utilized.
3. C) provide rapid random and sequential access to base-table data.
4. D) increase the cost of implementation.

19) In an SQL statement, which of the following parts states the conditions for row selection?

1. A) Select
2. B) From
3. C) Where
4. D) Group By

20) What does the following SQL statement do?

Select * From Customer Where Cust_Type = "Best"

1. A) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best"
2. B) Selects the "*" field from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best"
3. C) Selects fields with a "*" in them from the Customer table
4. D) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "*"

21) What result will the following SQL statement produce?

Select Avg(standard_price) as average from Product_V;

1. A) The average of all products in Product_V
2. B) The average Standard_Price of all products in Product_V
3. C) The average price of all products
4. D) None of the above

22) Which of the following questions is answered by the SQL statement?

Select Count (Product_Description) from Product_T;

1. A) How many products are in the table Product_T?
2. B) How many products have product descriptions in the Product Table?
3. C) How many characters are in the field name "Product_Description"?
4. D) How many different columns named "Product_Description" are there in table Product_T?

23) What results will be produced by the following SQL query?

Select sum(standard_price) as Total_Price

from Product_V

where Product_Type = 'WOOD';

1. A) The total price of all products that are of type wood
2. B) The total price of all products
3. C) The Standard_Price of the first wood product in the table
4. D) The Standard_Price of any wood product in the table

24) Which of the following counts ONLY rows that contain a value?

1. A) Count
2. B) Count(*)
3. C) Tally(*)
4. D) Checknum

25) Which of the following will produce the minimum of all standard prices?

1. A) Select standard_price from Product_V where Standard_Price = min;
2. B) Select min(standard_price) from Product_V;
3. C) Select Standard_Price from min(Product_V);
4. D) Select min(Standard_Price) from Product_V where Standard_Price = min(Standard_Price);

26) What will result from the following SQL Select statement?

Select min(Product_Description)

from Product_V;

1. A) The minimum value of Product_Description will be displayed.
2. B) An error message will be generated.
3. C) The first product description alphabetically in Product_V will be shown.
4. D) None of the above.

27) Which of the following is the wildcard operator in SQL statements?

1. A) < >
2. B) *
3. C) =
4. D) &

28) What result set will the following query return?

Select Item_No

from Order_V

where quantity > 10;

1. A) The Item_No of all orders that had more than 10 items
2. B) The Order_Id of all orders that had more than one item
3. C) The Order_Id of all orders that had more than 10 items
4. D) The Item_No of all orders that had 10 or more items

29) What result set will the following query return?

Select Item_No, description

from item

where weight > 100 and weight < 200;

1. A) The Item_No and description for all items weighing less than 100
2. B) The Item_No for all items weighing between 101 and 199
3. C) The Item_No and description for all items weighing between 101 and 199
4. D) The Item_No for all items weighing more than 200

30) To eliminate duplicate rows in a query, the ________ qualifier is used in the SQL Select command.

1. A) alter
2. B) distinct
3. C) check
4. D) specific

31) What result set is returned from the following query?

Select Customer_Name, telephone

from customers

where city in ('Boston','New York','Denver');

1. A) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers
2. B) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in either Boston, New York or Denver
3. C) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in Boston and New York and Denver
4. D) The Customer_Name of all customers living in Boston, New York or Denver

32) To get all the customers from Hawaii sorted together, which of the following would be used?

1. A) Order By
2. B) Group By
3. C) Having
4. D) Sort

33) A single value returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function is called a(n):

1. A) agate.
2. B) scalar aggregate.
3. C) vector aggregate.
4. D) summation.

34) Multiple values returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function are called:

1. A) vector aggregates.
2. B) scalar aggregates.
3. C) agates.
4. D) summations.

35) Which of the following can produce scalar and vector aggregates?

1. A) Order By
2. B) Group By
3. C) Having
4. D) Sort

36) What will be returned when the following SQL statement is executed?

Select driver_no,count(*) as num_deliveries

from deliveries

group by driver_no;

1. A) A listing of all drivers, sorted by driver number
2. B) A listing of each driver as well as the number of deliveries that he or she has made
3. C) A count of all of the deliveries made by all drivers
4. D) None of the above

37) What will be returned when the following SQL statement is executed?

Select driver_no, count(*) as num_deliveries

from deliveries

where state = 'MA'

group by driver_no;

1. A) A listing of all drivers who made deliveries to state = 'MA', sorted by driver number
2. B) A listing of each driver who made deliveries to state = 'MA' as well as the number of deliveries that each driver has made to that state
3. C) A count of all of the deliveries made to state = 'MA' by all drivers
4. D) None of the above

38) Which of the following finds all groups meeting stated conditions?

1. A) Select
2. B) Where
3. C) Having
4. D) Find

39) What will be returned when the following SQL query is executed?

Select driver_no, count(*) as num_deliveries

from deliveries

group by driver_no

having count(*) > 2;

1. A) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries as well as a count of the number of deliveries
2. B) A listing of all drivers
3. C) A listing of the number of deliveries greater than 2
4. D) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries

40) Which of the following is true of the order in which SQL statements are evaluated?

1. A) The SELECT clause is always processed first.
2. B) The SELECT clause is always processed last.
3. C) The SELECT clause is processed before the ORDER BY clause.
4. D) The GROUP BY clause is processed before the WHERE clause.

41) A ________ view is materialized when referenced.

1. A) virtual
2. B) dynamic
3. C) materialized
4. D) base

42) A view may not be updated directly if it contains:

1. A) the DISTINCT keyword.
2. B) derived columns and expressions in the SELECT clause.
3. C) uses the GROUP BY or HAVING clause.
4. D) all of the above.

43) SQL is both an American and international standard for database access.

44) SQL has been implemented only in the mainframe and midrange environments.

45) SQL originated from a project called System-S.

46) One of the original purposes of the SQL standard was to provide a vehicle for portability of database definition and application modules between conforming DBMSs.

47) A major benefit of SQL as a standard is reduced training costs.

48) Implementation of a standard can never stifle creativity and innovation.

49) Applications can be moved from one machine to another when each machine uses SQL.

50) A catalog is the structure that contains object descriptions created by a user.

51) Some DBMS can handle graphic data types as well as text and numbers.

52) DCL is used to update the database with new records.

53) A database table is defined using the data definition language (DDL).

54) A database is maintained and queried using the data mapping language (DML).

55) The CREATE SCHEMA DDL command is used to create a table.

56) When creating tables, it's important to decide which columns will allow null values before the table is created.

57) When creating a table, it is not important to consider foreign key—primary key mates.

58) A referential integrity constraint specifies that the existence of an attribute in one table depends upon the existence of a foreign key in the same or another table.

59) The DELETE TABLE DDL command is used to remove a table from the database.

60) The ALTER TABLE command is used to change a table definition.

61) The SQL command used to populate tables is the INSERT command.

62) An insert command does not need to have the fields listed.

63) The following command would work fine:

insert into budget values 121,222,111;

64) The DROP command deletes rows from a table individually or in groups.

65) In order to update data in SQL, one must inform the DBMS which relation, columns, and rows are involved.

66) Indexes generally slow down access speed in most RDMS.

67) The WHERE clause includes the conditions for row selection within a single table or view and the conditions between tables or views for joining.

68) Expressions are mathematical manipulations of data in a table that may be included as part of the SELECT statement.

69) Count(*) tallies only those rows that contain a value, while Count counts all rows.

70) The asterisk (*) wildcard designator can be used to select all fields from a table as well as in WHERE clauses when an exact match is not possible.

71) The comparison operators = and != are used to establish a range of values.

72) If multiple Boolean operators are used in an SQL statement, NOT is evaluated first, then

73) The following two SQL statements will produce the same results.

Select last_name, first_name

from customer

where credit_limit > 99 and credit_limit < 10001;

Select last_name, first_name

from customer

where credit_limit between 100 and 10000;

74) Adding the DISTINCT keyword to a query eliminates duplicates.

75) The following two SQL statements will produce different results.

Select last_name, first_name

from customer

where state = 'MA' or state = 'NY' or state = 'NJ' or state = 'NH' or state = 'CT';

Select last_name, first_name

from customer

where state in ('MA','NY','NJ','NH','CT');

76) The ORDER BY clause sorts the final results rows in ascending or descending order.

77) A single value returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function is called a vector aggregate.

78) When a GROUP BY clause is included in an SQL statement, only those columns with a single value for each group can be included.

79) The HAVING clause and the WHERE clause perform the same operation.

80) The following query totals sales for each salesperson.

Select salesperson_id, sum(sales)

from salesperson

group by salesperson_id;

81) The following query totals sales in state= 'MA' for each salesperson.

Select salesperson_id, sum(sales)

from salesperson

group by salesperson_id

having state = 'MA';

82) The ORDER BY clause is the first statement processed in an SQL command.

83) The WHERE clause is always processed before the GROUP BY clause when both occur in a SELECT statement.

84) The FROM clause is the first statement processed in an SQL command.

85) The content of dynamic views is generated when they are referenced.

86) Materialized views are stored on disk and are never refreshed.

87) The views are created by executing a CREATE VIEW SQL command.

88) When the SELECT clause in the create view statement contains the keyword DISTINCT, the view can be used to update data.

89) What were the original purposes of SQL, and does SQL as we know it today live up to those standards?

90) What are some of the advantages and disadvantages to an SQL standard?

91) Explain the three classes of SQL commands and when they would be used.

92) What steps should be followed when preparing to create a table?

93) What three clauses are contained in most SQL retrieval statements?

94) What are some of the standard SQL functions that can be used in the SELECT clause?

95) Discuss when to use the GROUP BY clause.

96) How is the HAVING clause different from the WHERE clause?

97) Discuss the pros and cons of using dynamic views.

98) What is a materialized view, and when would it be used?

CHAPTER 7   ADVANCED SQL

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 7   Advanced SQL

1) A join operation:

1. A) brings together data from two different fields.
2. B) causes two tables with a common domain to be combined into a single table or view.
3. C) causes two disparate tables to be combined into a single table or view.
4. D) is used to combine indexing operations.

2) A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common columns is called a(n):

1. A) equi-join.
2. B) unilateral join.
3. C) natural join.
4. D) both A and C.

3) A join that is based upon equality between values in two common columns with the same name and where one duplicate column has been removed is called a(n):

1. A) equi-join.
2. B) natural join.
3. C) multivariate join.
4. D) inner join.

4) The most commonly used form of join operation is the:

1. A) outer join.
2. B) union join.
3. C) equi-join.
4. D) natural join.

Subtopic:  Natural Join

5) A join in which rows that do not have matching values in common columns are still included in the result table is called a(n):

1. A) natural join.
2. B) equi-join.
3. C) outer join.
4. D) union join.

6) The outer join syntax does not apply easily to a join condition of more than ________ tables.

1. A) two
2. B) three
3. C) four
4. D) any number of

7) In which of the following situations would one have to use an outer join in order to obtain the desired results?

1. A) A report is desired that lists all customers who placed an order.
2. B) A report is desired that lists all customers and the total of their orders.
3. C) A report is desired that lists all customers, the total of their orders during the most recent month, and includes customers who did not place an order during the month (their total will be zero).
4. D) There is never a situation that requires only an outer join.

8) One major advantage of the outer join is that:

1. A) information is easily accessible.
2. B) information is not lost.
3. C) the query is easier to write.
4. D) all of the above.

9) An operation to join a table to itself is called a:

1. A) sufficient-join.
2. B) inner join.
3. C) outer join.
4. D) self-join.

10) A type of join where a table is joined to itself is called a(n):

1. A) unary join.
2. B) self-join.
3. C) unnatural join.
4. D) pinned join.

11) A type of query that is placed within a WHERE or HAVING clause of another query is called a:

1. A) master query.
2. B) subquery.
3. C) superquery.
4. D) multi-query.

12) SQL provides the ________ technique, which involves placing an inner query within the WHERE or HAVING clause of an outer query.

1. A) grouping
2. B) joining
3. C) subquery
4. D) union

13) ________ takes a value of true if a subquery returns an intermediate results table which contains one or more rows.

1. A) In
2. B) Having
3. C) Exists
4. D) Extents

14) EXISTS will take a value of ________ if the subquery returns an intermediate results table which contains one or more rows.

1. A) FALSE
2. B) 1
3. C) TRUE
4. D) undefined

15) In SQL, a(n) ________ subquery is a type of subquery in which processing the inner query depends on data from the outer query.

1. A) correlated
2. B) paired
3. C) natural
4. D) inner

16) ________ use the result of the outer query to determine the processing of the inner query.

1. A) Correlated subqueries
2. B) Outer subqueries
3. C) Inner subqueries
4. D) Subqueries

17) The ________ clause is used to combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table.

1. A) INTERSECT
2. B) DIVIDE
3. C) COLLATE
4. D) UNION

18) A ________ is a temporary table used in the FROM clause of an SQL query.

1. A) correlated subquery
2. B) derived table
3. C) view table
4. D) none of the above

19) In order for two queries to be UNION-compatible, they must:

1. A) both have the same number of lines in their SQL statements.
2. B) both output compatible data types for each column and return the same number of rows.
3. C) both return at least one row.
4. D) all of the above.

20) The UNION clause is used to:

1. A) combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table.
2. B) join two tables together to form one table.
3. C) find all rows that do not match in two tables.
4. D) none of the above.

21) Establishing IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing within an SQL statement can be accomplished by:

1. A) using the if-then-else construct.
2. B) using the immediate if statement.
3. C) using the CASE keyword in a statement.
4. D) using a subquery.

22) All of the following are guidelines for better query design EXCEPT:

1. A) understand how indexes are used in query processing.
2. B) use a lot of self-joins.
3. C) write simple queries.
4. D) retrieve on the data that you need.

23) Explicit commands to manage transactions are needed when:

1. A) a transaction consists of just one SQL command.
2. B) multiple SQL commands must be run as part of a transaction.
3. C) autocommit is set to off.
4. D) none of the above.

24) User-defined transactions can improve system performance because:

1. A) transactions are processed as sets, reducing system overhead.
2. B) transactions are mapped to SQL statements.
3. C) speed is improved due to query optimization.
4. D) all of the above.

25) An interactive command that can be used to dynamically control a user session for appropriate integrity measures is:

1. A) rollback.
2. B) rollforward.
3. C) set autocommit.
4. D) expunge.

26) The ________ DBA view shows information about all users of the database in Oracle.

1. A) DBA_USERS
2. B) USERS
3. C) DBA_VIEWS
4. D) DBA_INDEXES

27) If the DBA wishes to describe all tables in the database, which data dictionary view should be accessed in Oracle?

1. A) dba_tab_privs
2. B) dba_tab_comments
3. C) dba_table_label
4. D) dba_tables

28) What results would the following SQL statement produce?

select owner, table_name

from dba_tables

where table_name = 'CUSTOMER';

1. A) A listing of all customers in the customer table
2. B) A listing of the owner of the customer table
3. C) A listing of the owner of the customer table as well as customers
4. D) An error message

29) User-defined data types:

1. A) can be a subclass of a standard type.
2. B) can behave as an object.
3. C) can have defined functions and methods.
4. D) can have all of the above.

30) A new set of analytical functions added in SQL:2008 is referred to as:

1. A) OLAF functions.
2. B) MOLAP functions.
3. C) average functions.
4. D) OLAP functions.

31) RANK and DENSE-RANK are examples of:

1. A) ceilings.
2. B) door functions.
3. C) window functions.
4. D) moving functions.

32) All of the following are new data types added in SQL:200n EXCEPT:

1. A) BIGINT.
2. B) BIT.
3. C) MULTISET.
4. D) XML.

33) ________ differs from array because it can contain duplicates.

1. A) BIGINT
2. B) XML
3. C) MULTISET
4. D) TABLE

34) The MERGE command:

1. A) allows one to combine the INSERT and UPDATE operations.
2. B) allows one to combine the INSERT and DELETE operations.
3. C) joins 2 tables together.
4. D) none of the above.

35) Extensions defined in SQL-99 that include the capability to create and drop modules of code stored in the database schema across user sessions are called:

1. A) stored procedures.
2. B) Persistent Stored Modules.
3. C) flow control modules.
4. D) none of the above.

36) A named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs are called:

1. A) stored procedures.
2. B) treatments.
3. C) triggers.
4. D) trapdoors.

37) All of the following are part of the coding structure for triggers EXCEPT:

1. A) event.
2. B) condition.
3. C) selection.
4. D) action.

38) While triggers run automatically, ________ do not and have to be called.

1. A) trapdoors
2. B) routines
3. C) selects
4. D) updates

39) SQL-invoked routines can be:

1. A) procedures.
2. B) functions.
3. C) all of the above.
4. D) none of the above.

40) All of the following are advantages of SQL-invoked routines EXCEPT:

1. A) flexibility.
2. B) efficiency.
3. C) sharability.
4. D) security.

41) A procedure is:

1. A) stored within the database.
2. B) given a unique name.
3. C) called by name.
4. D) all of the above.

42) Embedded SQL consists of:

1. A) hard-coded SQL statements included in a program written in another language.
2. B) SQL encapsulated inside of other SQL statements.
3. C) SQL written into a front-end application.
4. D) SQL translated to a lower-level language.

43) In order to embed SQL inside of another language, the ________ statement must be placed before the SQL in the host language.

1. A) GET SQL
2. B) EXEC SQL
3. C) RUN SQL
4. D) SQL SQL

44) Dynamic SQL:

1. A) is used to generate appropriate SQL code on the fly as an application is processing.
2. B) is quite volatile.
3. C) is not used widely on the Internet.
4. D) creates a less flexible application.

45) An equi-join is a join in which one of the duplicate columns is eliminated in the result table.

46) A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common column is called a(n) equi-join.

47) The joining condition of an equi-join is based upon an equality.

48) A natural join is the same as an equi-join, except that it is performed over matching columns that have been defined with the same name, and one of the duplicate columns is eliminated.

49) The natural join is very rarely used.

50) An SQL query that implements an outer join will return rows that do not have matching values in common columns.

51) Using an outer join produces this information: rows that do not have matching values in common columns are not included in the result table.

52) One major disadvantage of the outer join is that information is easily lost.

53) There is a special operation in SQL to join a table to itself.

54) Joining tables or using a subquery may produce the same result.

55) The following queries produce the same results.

select customer_name, customer_city

from customer, salesman

where customer.salesman_id = salesman.salesman_id

and salesman.lname = 'SMITH';

select customer_name, customer_city

from customer

where customer.salesman_id =

(select salesman_id

from salesman

where lname = 'SMITH');

56) The following query will execute without errors.

select customer.customer_name, salesman.sales_quota

from customer

where customer.salesman_id =

(select salesman_id

where lname = 'SMITH');

57) In order to find out what customers have not placed an order for a particular item, one might use the NOT qualifier along with the IN qualifier.

58) EXISTS takes a value of false if the subquery returns an intermediate result set.

59) When EXISTS or NOT EXISTS is used in a subquery, the select list of the subquery will usually just select all columns as a placeholder because it doesn't matter which columns are returned.

60) A subquery in which processing the inner query depends on data from the outer query is called a codependent query.

61) The following SQL statement is an example of a correlated subquery.

select first_name, last_name, total_sales

from salesman s1

where total_sales > all

(select total_sales from salesman s2

where s1.salesman_id != s2.salesman_id);

62) A correlated subquery is executed once for each iteration through the outer loop.

63) Subqueries can only be used in the WHERE clause.

64) The UNION clause is used to combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table.

65) IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing cannot be accomplished within an SQL statement.

66) Figuring out what attributes you want in your query before you write the query will help with query writing.

67) It is better not to have a result set identified before writing GROUP BY and HAVING clauses for a query.

68) Specifying the attribute names in the SELECT statement will make it easier to find errors in queries and also correct for problems that may occur in the base system.

69) Correlated subqueries are less efficient than queries that do not use nesting.

70) Combining a table with itself results in a faster query.

71) A transaction is the complete set of closely related update commands that must all be done, or none of them done, for the database to remain valid.

72) Transaction integrity commands are not used to identify whole units of database changes that must be completed in full for the database to retain integrity.

73) RDBMSs store database definition information in system-created tables which can be considered a data dictionary.

74) DBA_USERS contains comments on all tables in an Oracle database.

75) SQL:2008 allows one to calculate linear regressions, moving averages and correlations without moving the data outside of the database.

76) MULTISET is similar to the table datatype.

77) Persistent Stored Modules are extensions defined in SQL:1999 that include the capability to add and drop modules of code.

78) A routine is a named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs.

79) Constraints are a special case of triggers.

80) Triggers can be used to ensure referential integrity, enforce business rules, create audit trails, replicate tables, but cannot call other triggers.

81) Triggers have three parts: the event, the condition, and the action.

82) A function has only input parameters but can return multiple values.

83) The advantages of SQL-invoked routines are flexibility, efficiency, shareability and applicability.

84) A procedure is run by calling it by its name.

85) SQL statements can be included in another language, such as C or Java.

86) When a subquery is used in the FROM clause, it is called a denied table.

87) Establishing IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing within an SQL statement can now be accomplished by using the CASE keyword in a statement.

88) User-defined functions can improve system performance because they will be processed as sets rather than individually, thus reducing system overhead.

89) Persistent Sorted Modules are extensions defined in SQL-99 that include the capability to create and drop modules of code stored in the database schema across user sessions.

90) A trigger is a named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs.

91) Discuss the differences between an equi-join, natural join and outer join.

92) What is a self-join and how is it used?

93) When is it better to use a subquery over using a join?

94) What is a derived table? When is it used? Can you describe any situations where you would have to use it over a subquery in the WHERE clause?

95) Explain how to combine queries using the UNION clause.

96) What are some tips for developing queries?

97) What strategies can be used to write queries that run more efficiently?

98) Discuss some of the SQL:2008 enhancements and extensions to SQL.

99) What can be done with Persistent Stored Modules?

100) What is the difference between a trigger and a routine?

CHAPTER 8    DATABASE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 8    Database Application Development

1) Which of the following have affected the way businesses use computing systems to meet the demand of the competitive marketplace?

1. A) GUI evolutions
2. B) Networking advances
3. C) Communication changes
4. D) All of the above

2) Which of the following is a component of processing logic?

1. A) Input
2. B) Output
3. C) Retrieval
4. D) Business rules

3) A client PC that is responsible for processing presentation logic, extensive application and business rules logic as well as many DBMS functions is called a(n):

1. A) file server.
2. B) file processor.
3. C) database server.
4. D) fat client.

4) ________ is the process of assigning pieces of application code to clients or servers.

1. A) Application partitioning
2. B) Modularizing programs
3. C) Code distribution
4. D) Program breakup

5) Which of the following is not a common distribution logic for two-tiered server environments?

1. A) Fat client
2. B) Tall client
3. C) Thin client
4. D) Distributed

6) ________ is/are any of several classes of software that allow an application to interoperate with other software without requiring the user to understand all software involved.

1. A) User interface enhancers
2. B) Middleware
3. C) Interface managers
4. D) MPP

7) A(n) ________ is a set of application routines that programs use to direct the performance of procedures by the computer's operating system.

1. A) API
2. B) MOM
3. C) RPC
4. D) LAN

8) An application programming interface that enables an application program to process RDBMS databases meets the:

1. A) object linking and embedding standard.
2. B) open database connectivity standard.
3. C) multi-platform connectivity standard.
4. D) open source standard.

9) A PC configured to handle user interface with little or no local storage is called a:

1. A) server.
2. B) fat client.
3. C) thin client.
4. D) workstation.

10) A Web server:

1. A) is used only to host Web pages.
2. B) processes client requests and returns HTML pages to the client.
3. C) always contains a database.
4. D) is considered to be part of the firewall.

11) The main difference between Java applets and Java servlets is:

1. A) applets are stored on the client but executed on the server.
2. B) servlets are stored on the server while applets are stored on the client.
3. C) both applets and servlets are executed and stored on the server.
4. D) none of the above.

12) Java servlets:

1. A) are small programs that execute from within another application rather than from the operating system.
2. B) must be executed each time a user makes a request.
3. C) are stored on the client.
4. D) are implemented as dynamic link libraries (DLLs).

13) PHP is a popular API for MySQL because of all of the following EXCEPT:

1. A) Microsoft integration.
2. B) high performance.
3. C) easy to use.
4. D) MySQL connectivity built-in.

14) A(n) ________ is a module of code written in SQL or some proprietary language to run business rules on a server.

1. A) SQL program
2. B) select module
3. C) select procedure
4. D) stored procedure

15) Which of the following is an advantage of stored procedures?

1. A) Data integrity improves when fewer applications access the procedure.
2. B) The layers get cleaner.
3. C) Stored procedures result in fatter clients.
4. D) Performance improves for compiled SQL statements.

16) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of stored procedures?

1. A) Writing stored procedures takes more time than writing an application in Visual Basic or PowerBuilder.
2. B) Decreases in network traffic are realized.
3. C) Stored procedures are proprietary and not easy to move from one RDBMS to another.
4. D) Each client must be loaded with the application to be used at that location.

17) Which of the following is true about three-tier architectures?

1. A) Less scalable than two-tier
2. B) Increased risk
3. C) More technological flexibility
4. D) All of the above

18) An emerging trend likely to have an effect on the development of three-tier applications is called:

1. A) corporate computing.
2. B) local area networks.
3. C) cloud computing.
4. D) wide-area storage.

19) All of the following are characteristics of cloud technologies EXCEPT:

1. A) unlimited bandwidth.
2. B) on-demand self-service IT capabilities.
3. C) broad network access.
4. D) rapid elasticity.

20) Extensible Markup Language (XML) is:

1. A) a scripting language that allows the creation of customized tags to enable easier sharing of data across organizations.
2. B) a database language.
3. C) a product used for database middleware.
4. D) none of the above.

21) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL) is an example of:

1. A) a 3GL language.
2. B) an XML-based vocabulary.
3. C) a legacy database application.
4. D) none of the above.

22) The XML shown in the figure below describes some data from the Pine Valley Furniture case study.

The following XPath expression returns for results:

/furniturecompany/product/[finish = "Cherry"]/standardprice

1. A) all products with a cherry finish.
2. B) a description of all products with a cherry finish.
3. C) the standard price of products with a cherry finish.
4. D) nothing.

23) ________ facilitates the ability of applications to query relational data along with associated structured data.

1. A) XPath
2. B) XQuery
3. C) XSLT
4. D) SOAP

24) All of the following are newer XML schema languages EXCEPT:

1. A) Document Type Declarations (DTDs).
2. B) XML Schema Definition (XSD).
3. C) RELAX NG.
4. D) Document Structure Description (DSD).

25) When an XML document is shredded, each element is:

1. A) thrown away.
2. B) split up.
3. C) stored in a relational table.
4. D) added to other XML documents.

26) Which of the following is NOT a method for storing XML documents?

1. A) Shredding
2. B) Use a BLOB or CLOB to store the entire XML file
3. C) Use an XML native database
4. D) Convert to text

27) FLWOR is an acronym for:

1. A) flowers.
2. B) For, LET, Where OrderBy, Return.
3. C) For, Locate, Work, Order, Results.
4. D) none of the above.

28) ________ is a language used to transform complex XML documents and also to create HTML pages from XML documents.

1. A) HTML
2. B) XSLT
3. C) SGI
4. D) WSL

29) Web services:

1. A) are a set of services available to all on the Web.
2. B) are a set of emerging standards for protocols for automatic communication between software over the Web.
3. C) are a set of standards based upon HTML.
4. D) none of the above.

30) The promise of Web services is the development of a standardized communication system using:

1. A) HTML.
2. B) XST.
3. C) XML.
4. D) XPath.

31) A technical specification for creating a distributed registry of Web services and businesses that are open to communicating through Web services is called:

1. A) HTML.
2. B) B2B.
3. C) UDDI.
4. D) XML.

32) An XML-based grammar used to describe a Web service is called:

1. A) Web Service Description Language (WSDL).
2. B) WIDL.
3. C) WISL.
4. D) Business-to-Business (B2B).

33) All of the following are concerns about developing a Web services approach EXCEPT:

1. A) transaction speed.
2. B) user acceptability.
3. C) security.
4. D) reliability.

34) SOAP stands for:

1. A) what you wash your hands with.
2. B) Simple ODBC Access Protocol.
3. C) Strategic Operational Advanced Planning.
4. D) Simple Object Access Protocol Method.

35) Service-oriented architectures (SOA) are:

1. A) a set of tiers designed to serve each other.
2. B) a collection of services that communicate with each other in some manner.
3. C) architecture designed for the military.
4. D) none of the above.

36) Client/server describes a networked computing model that distributes processes between computers that request services and computers that provide services.

37) The presentation logic component of a client/server system is responsible for formatting and presenting data on the user's screen.

38) Business rules logic includes such activities as data validation and identification of processing errors.

39) The storage component of a client/server architecture is responsible for data storage and retrieval from the physical storage devices associated with the application.

40) A fat client does most of its processing on the server.

41) Application partitioning gives developers the opportunity to write application code that can later be placed on either a client workstation or a server, depending upon which location will give the best performance.

42) When developing an application, one must decide where it will be placed when it is developed.

43) An API is a set of routines that a database server uses to access database objects.

44) ODBC is an application programming interface that provides a common language for application programs to access and process an SQL database independent of the particular RDBMS that is accessed.

45) In some three-tier architectures, most application code is stored on the application server.

46) Java servlets execute from within another program and reside on the server.

47) PHP is a platform for Web development.

48) Two-tier architectures are much more scalable than three-tier architectures.

49) Three-tier architectures generally result in higher long-term costs.

50) Cloud computing will have a limited impact on three-tier applications.

51) Software as a service (SAAS) refers to an entire application or suite of applications running on the cloud.

52) XML addresses the structuring and manipulation of information in a Web browser.

53) Extensible Markup Language (XML) is a scripting language based upon SGML that allows the creation of customized tags.

54) An XML Schema is a language used to define HTML.

55) XML uses bcode, long commands embedded in quotes, to characterize data.

56) Document Type Declarations (DTDs) are unable to specify data types.

57) XML-based vocabularies, such as XBRL, do not allow meaningful comparisons to be made of data across many organizations.

58) Storing XML data is becoming a big question as XML data becomes more prevalent.

59) Stripping an XML document means storing each element of an XML schema in a relational table and using other tables to store the elements.

60) XQuery is an HTML transformation language used to query HTML pages.

61) Even with XML, different types of devices will require a different page.

62) Web services allow for communication between programs over the Internet.

63) UDDI stands for Underwritten Data Dictionary Inquiry.

64) Web Services Description Language is an XML-based grammar.

65) SOAP is an insignificant Web standard.

66) Lack of secure standards and lack of user acceptance are the major issues that must be resolved with Web services.

67) The client/server architectures that have evolved can be distinguished by the distribution of ________ across clients and servers.

1. A) memory
2. B) files
3. C) application logic components
4. D) query logic components

68) Geolocation logic is the application logic component responsible for data storage and retrieval.

69) A client PC that is responsible for presentation logic, application logic, and many DBMS functions is called a fat client.

70) A computer that provides database storage and access in a client/server environment is called a:

1. A) database server.
2. B) file server.
3. C) cloud data store.
4. D) none of the above.

71) A module of code that may be written in a proprietary language such as Oracle's PL/SQL that implements business rules on a database server is called a:

1. A) persistent module.
2. B) function.
3. C) application component.
4. D) stored procedure.

72) A client/server configuration that has three layers (one client and two servers) has a three-tier architecture.

73) A PC configured to handle user interfaces with limited local storage is called a:

1. A) fat client.
2. B) thin client.
3. C) light client.
4. D) overweight client.

74) The process of assigning parts of an application to a client or server is called application partitioning.

75) Sets of routines that an application program uses to direct the performance of procedures by the computer's operating system is called a(n):

1. A) application program interface.
2. B) xpi.
3. C) application device interface.
4. D) CMOS.

76) Open Database Connectivity is an application programming interface that provides a common language for application programs to access and process SQL databases independent of the particular RDBMS that is accessed.

77) The ________ specification allows drivers to conform to various levels of the specification, and that affects the level of functionality of the drivers.

1. A) JDBC
2. B) ODBC
3. C) CORBA
4. D) Cobra

78) Application Programming Interfaces are more efficient than CGI scripts and are implemented as shared code or dynamic link libraries.

79) Java programs similar to applets that execute on the server are called hamlets.

80) The phrase ________ refers to a model for providing ubiquitous, convenient and on-demand network access.

1. A) software services
2. B) grid computing
3. C) network computing
4. D) cloud computing

81) Infrastructure-as-a-Service refers to the use of technologies such as servers, storage and networks from external service providers.

82) ________ is a rapidly developing scripting language that allows for the creation of customized tags that can be used across applications.

1. A) Extensible Markup Language
2. B) HTML
3. C) SGL
4. D) CGI

83) A(n) HTTP Schema Definition is a language used for defining XML databases.

84) A DTD is a language used for defining XML databases.

85) ________ is a method to store XML documents by storing each element independently in a relational table.

1. A) Writing
2. B) Sledding
3. C) Shredding
4. D) Shedding

86) XQuery is an XML transformation language for querying relational data as well as XML databases.

87) A language used to transform complex XML documents and also used to create HTML pages from XML documents is called Extensible Stylesheet Transformation.

88) Web Services are a set of emerging standards that define protocols for automatic communication between software programs over the Web.

89) WXDL is an XML-based grammar.

90) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) is an XML-Based communication protocol.

91) Customer-oriented architectures are a collection of services that communicate with each other in some manner.

92) Discuss the distribution of application logic components across clients and servers in the client/server environment.

93) Explain how middleware is used in a two-tier application.

94) Discuss the differences between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

95) What are the components of a Web application?

96) Explain what stored procedures are and how they are used.

97) Discuss some of the key benefits of three-tier applications.

98) Discuss how XML documents can be stored.

99) Explain how XML documents are retrieved.

100) What are Web services?

101) What is service-oriented architecture?

CHAPTER 9   DATA WAREHOUSING

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 9   Data Warehousing

1) The analysis of summarized data to support decision making is called:

1. A) operational processing.
2. B) informational processing.
3. C) artificial intelligence.
4. D) data scrubbing.

2) The characteristic that indicates that a data warehouse is organized around key high-level entities of the enterprise is:

1. A) subject-oriented.
2. B) integrated.
3. C) time-variant.
4. D) nonvolatile.

3) When we consider data in the data warehouse to be time-variant, we mean:

1. A) that the time of storage varies.
2. B) data in the warehouse contain a time dimension so that they may be used to study trends and changes.
3. C) that there is a time delay between when data are posted and when we report on the data.
4. D) none of the above.

4) Which of the following advances in information systems contributed to the emergence of data warehousing?

1. A) Improvements in database technology, particularly the relational data model
2. B) Advances in computer hardware, especially affordable mass storage and parallel computer architectures
3. C) Advances in middleware products that enabled enterprise database connectivity across heterogeneous platforms
4. D) All of the above

5) Which of the following factors drive the need for data warehousing?

1. A) Businesses need an integrated view of company information.
2. B) Informational data must be kept together with operational data.
3. C) Data warehouses generally have better security.
4. D) None of the above.

6) Which of the following organizational trends does not encourage the need for data warehousing?

1. A) Multiple, nonsynchronized systems
2. B) Focus on customer relationship management
3. C) Downsizing
4. D) Focus on supplier relationship management

7) Informational systems are designed for all of the following EXCEPT:

1. A) running a business in real time.
2. B) supporting decision making.
3. C) complex queries.
4. D) data mining.

8) Operational and informational systems are generally separated because of which of the following factors?

1. A) A data warehouse centralizes data that are scattered throughout disparate operational systems and makes them readily available for decision support applications.
2. B) A properly designed data warehouse adds value to data by improving their quality and consistency.
3. C) A separate data warehouse eliminates contention for resources that results when informational applications are confounded with operational processing.
4. D) All of the above.

9) A data mart is a(n):

1. A) enterprisewide data warehouse.
2. B) smaller system built upon file processing technology.
3. C) data warehouse that is limited in scope.
4. D) generic on-line shopping site.

10) One characteristic of independent data marts is complexity for end users when they need to access data in separate data marts. This complexity is caused by not only having to access data from separate databases, but also from:

1. A) the possibility of a new generation of inconsistent data systems, the data marts themselves.
2. B) lack of user training.
3. C) denormalized data.
4. D) incongruent data formats.

11) All of the following are limitations of the independent data mart EXCEPT:

1. A) separate extraction, transformation, and loading processes are developed for each data mart.
2. B) data marts may not be consistent with one another.
3. C) there is no capability to drill down into greater detail in other data marts.
4. D) it is often more expedient to build a data mart than a data warehouse.

12) A dependent data mart:

1. A) is filled with data extracted directly from the operational system.
2. B) is filled exclusively from the enterprise data warehouse with reconciled data.
3. C) is dependent upon an operational system.
4. D) participates in a relationship with an entity.

13) An operational data store (ODS) is a(n):

1. A) place to store all unreconciled data.
2. B) representation of the operational data.
3. C) integrated, subject-oriented, updateable, current-valued, detailed database designed to serve the decision support needs of operational users.
4. D) small-scale data mart.

14) A logical data mart is a(n):

1. A) data mart consisting of only logical data.
2. B) data mart created by a relational view of a slightly denormalized data warehouse.
3. C) integrated, subject-oriented, detailed database designed to serve operational users.
4. D) centralized, integrated data warehouse.

15) All of the following are unique characteristics of a logical data mart EXCEPT:

1. A) logical data marts are not physically separate databases, but rather a relational view of a data warehouse.
2. B) the data mart is always up-to-date since data in a view is created when the view is referenced.
3. C) the process of creating a logical data mart is lengthy.
4. D) data are moved into the data warehouse rather than a separate staging area.

16) The real-time data warehouse is characterized by which of the following?

1. A) It accepts near-real time feeds of transaction data.
2. B) Data are immediately transformed and loaded into the warehouse.
3. C) It provides near-real-time access for the transaction processing systems to an enterprise data warehouse.
4. D) All of the above.

17) ________ technologies are allowing more opportunities for real-time data warehouses.

1. A) Web
2. B) MOLAP
3. C) RFID
4. D) GPS

18) All of the following are some beneficial applications for real-time data warehousing EXCEPT:

1. A) just-in-time transportation.
2. B) e-commerce. For example, an abandoned shopping cart can trigger an email promotional message.
3. C) fraud detection in credit card transactions.
4. D) data entry.

19) Data that are detailed, current, and intended to be the single, authoritative source of all decision support applications are called ________ data.

1. A) reconciled
2. B) subject
3. C) derived
4. D) detailed

20) A database action that results from a transaction is called a(n):

1. A) transition.
2. B) event.
3. C) log entry.
4. D) journal happening.

21) Data that are never physically altered once they are added to the store are called ________ data.

1. A) transient
2. B) override
3. C) periodic
4. D) complete

22) Which of the following is an objective of derived data?

1. A) ease of use for decision support systems
2. B) faster response time for user queries
3. C) support data mining applications
4. D) All of the above

23) A star schema contains both fact and ________ tables.

1. A) narrative
2. B) cross functional
3. C) dimension
4. D) starter

24) Every key used to join the fact table with a dimension table should be a ________ key.

1. A) primary
2. B) surrogate
3. C) foreign
4. D) secondary

25) The level of detail in a fact table determined by the intersection of all the components of the primary key, including all foreign keys and any other primary key elements, is called the:

1. A) span.
2. B) grain.
3. C) selection.
4. D) aggregation.

26) Conformed dimensions allow users to do the following:

1. A) share nonkey dimension data.
2. B) query across fact tables with consistency.
3. C) work on facts and business subjects for which all users have the same meaning.
4. D) all of the above.

27) Factless fact tables may apply when:

1. A) we are tracking events.
2. B) we are tracking sales.
3. C) we are taking inventory of the set of possible occurrences.
4. D) both A and C.

28) An expanded version of a star schema in which all of the tables are fully normalized is called a(n):

1. A) snowflake schema.
2. B) operational schema.
3. C) DSS schema.
4. D) complete schema.

29) All of the following are ways to handle changing dimensions EXCEPT:

1. A) overwrite the current value with the new value.
2. B) for each dimension attribute that changes, create a current value field and as many old value fields as we wish.
3. C) create a new dimension table row each time the dimension object changes.
4. D) create a snowflake schema.

30) ________ is an ill-defined term applied to databases where size strains the ability of commonly used relational DBMSs to manage the data.

1. A) Mean data
2. B) Small data
3. C) Star data
4. D) Big data

31) ________ is/are a new technology which trade(s) off storage space savings for computing time.

1. A) Dimensional modeling
2. B) Column databases
3. C) Fact tables
4. D) Snowflake schemas

32) A class of database technology used to store textual and other unstructured data is called:

1. A) mySQL.
2. B) NoSQL.
3. C) KnowSQL.
4. D) PHP.

33) The use of a set of graphical tools that provides users with multidimensional views of their data is called:

1. A) on-line geometrical processing (OGP).
2. B) drill-down analysis.
3. C) on-line analytical processing (OLAP).
4. D) on-line datacube processing (ODP).

34) OLAP tools that use the database as a traditional relational database are called:

1. A) ROLAP tools.
2. B) MOLAP tools.
3. C) slice and dice.
4. D) none of the above.

35) Rotating the view of a multidimensional database for a particular data point is called data:

1. A) cubing.
2. B) drill-down.
3. C) dicing.
4. D) pivoting.

36) Which of the following is true of data visualization?

1. A) It is easier to observe trends and patterns in data.
2. B) Correlations and clusters in data can be easily identified.
3. C) It is often used in conjunction with data mining.
4. D) All of the above.

37) Going from a summary view to progressively lower levels of detail is called data:

1. A) cubing.
2. B) drill-down.
3. C) dicing.
4. D) pivoting.

38) Which of the following data-mining techniques identifies clusters of observations with similar characteristics?

1. A) Case reasoning
2. B) Rule discovery
3. C) Clustering and signal processing
4. D) Neural nets

39) Which of the following data-mining techniques searches for patterns and correlations in large data sets?

1. A) Case reasoning
2. B) Rule discovery
3. C) Signal processing
4. D) Neural nets

40) Which of the following data-mining applications identifies customers for promotional activity?

1. A) Population profiling
2. B) Target marketing
3. C) Usage analysis
4. D) Product affinity

41) Advances in computer hardware, particularly the emergence of affordable mass storage and parallel computer architectures, was one of the key advances that led to the emergence of data warehousing.

42) The development of the relational data model did not contribute to the emergence of data warehousing.

43) The need for data warehousing in an organization is driven by its need for an integrated view of high-quality data.

44) When multiple systems in an organization are synchronized, the need for data warehousing increases.

45) Informational systems are designed to support decision making based on historical point-in-time and prediction data.

46) A separate data warehouse causes more contention for resources in an organization.

47) An independent data mart is filled with data extracted from the operational environment without the benefit of a data warehouse.

48) A data mart is a data warehouse that contains data that can be used across the entire organization.

49) Organizations adopt data mart architectures because it is easier to have separate, small data warehouses than to get all organizational parties to agree to one view of the organization in a central data warehouse.

50) Independent data marts do not generally lead to redundant data and efforts.

51) An enterprise data warehouse is the control point and single source of all data made available to end users for decision support applications.

52) A dependent data mart is filled from the enterprise data warehouse and its reconciled data.

53) An operational data store (ODS) is not designed for use by operational users.

54) An operational data store is typically a relational database and normalized, but it is tuned for decision-making applications.

55) An operational data store typically holds a history of snapshots of the state of an organization whereas an enterprise data warehouse does not typically contain history.

56) A corporate information factory (CIF) is a comprehensive view of organizational data in support of all user data requirements.

57) Logical data marts are physically separate databases from the enterprise data warehouse.

58) Scalable technology is critical to a data mart.

59) An enterprise data warehouse that accepts near-real time feeds of transactional data and immediately transforms and loads the appropriate data is called a real-time data warehouse.

60) Reconciled data are data that have been selected, formatted, and aggregated for end-user decision support applications.

61) The enterprise data model controls the phased evolution of the data warehouse.

62) Operational metadata are derived from the enterprise data model.

63) An event is a database action that results from a transaction.

64) The status of data is the representation of the data after an event has occurred.

65) Periodic data are data that are never physically altered or deleted once they have been added to the store.

66) Transient data are never changed.

67) A fact table holds descriptive data about the business.

68) The grain of a data warehouse indicates the size and depth of the records.

69) For performance reasons, it may be necessary to define more than one fact table for a star schema.

70) There are applications for fact tables without any nonkey data, only the foreign keys for the associated dimensions.

71) A conformed dimension is one or more dimension tables associated with only one fact table.

72) When a dimension participates in a hierarchy, the database designer can normalize the dimension into a nested set of tables with 1:M relationships between them.

73) A snowflake schema is usually heavily aggregated.

74) Medical claims and pharmaceutical data would be an example of big data.

75) NoSQL is a great technology for storing well-structured data.

76) The first requirement for building a user-friendly interface is a set of metadata that describes the data in the data mart in business terms that users can easily understand.

77) Multidimensional OLAP (MOLAP) tools use variations of SQL and view the database as a relational database, in either a star schema or other normalized or denormalized set of tables.

78) Drill-down involves analyzing a given set of data at a finer level of detail.

79) Rule discovery searches for patterns and correlations in large data sets.

80) The representation of data in a graphical format is called data mining.

81) Discuss the four key terms related to data warehousing.

82) Discuss the history of data warehousing.

83) Explain the difference between operational and informational systems as well as the primary factors that contribute to the need for separation.

84) Explain the four basic steps to build an independent data mart.

85) Discuss the limitations of the independent data mart architecture.

86) Explain the dependent data mart and operational data store architecture.

87) What is a logical data mart and what makes this architecture unique?

88) What types of applications would benefit from real-time data warehousing?

89) Discuss the three-layer data architecture.

90) What is the role of metadata in the three-layer data architecture?

91) Discuss the difference between transient data and periodic data.

92) Discuss some of the characteristics of derived data.

93) Explain what the star schema is.

94) What is the surrogate key rule for the star schema, and what are the main reasons for this rule?

95) Explain a situation where multiple fact tables may be necessary.

96) When would it be appropriate to use factless fact tables?

97) What are some approaches to handling slowly changing dimensions?

98) What is OLAP and what types of OLAP tools are available?

99) What is data mining, and what are its goals?

100) Why are data mining applications growing rapidly?

CHAPTER 10   DATA QUALITY AND INTEGRATION

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 10   Data Quality and Integration

1) Data governance can be defined as:

1. A) a means to slow down the speed of data.
2. B) high-level organizational groups and processes that oversee data stewardship.
3. C) a government task force for defining data quality.
4. D) none of the above.

2) High-quality data are data that are:

1. A) accurate.
2. B) consistent.
3. C) available in a timely fashion.
4. D) all of the above.

3) Data quality ROI stands for:

1. A) return on investment.
2. B) risk of incarceration.
3. C) rough outline inclusion.
4. D) none of the above.

4) Data quality is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:   

1. A) it minimizes project delay.
2. B) it aids in making timely business decisions.
3. C) it provides a stream of profit.
4. D) it helps to expand the customer base.

5) Quality data can be defined as being:

1. A) unique.
2. B) inaccurate.
3. C) historical.
4. D) precise.

6) Conformance means that:

1. A) data have been transformed.
2. B) data are stored, exchanged or presented in a format that is specified by its metadata.
3. C) data are stored in a way to expedite retrieval.
4. D) none of the above.

7) One characteristic of quality data which pertains to the expectation for the time between when data are expected and when they are available for use is:

1. A) currency.
2. B) consistency.
3. C) referential integrity.
4. D) timeliness.

8) External data sources present problems for data quality because:

1. A) data are not always available.
2. B) there is a lack of control over data quality.
3. C) there are poor data capture controls.
4. D) data are unformatted.

9) Data quality problems can cascade when:

1. A) data are not deleted properly.
2. B) data are copied from legacy systems.
3. C) there is redundant data storage and inconsistent metadata.
4. D) there are data entry problems.

10) The best place to improve data entry across all applications is:

1. A) in the users.
2. B) in the level of organizational commitment.
3. C) in the database definitions.
4. D) in the data entry operators.

11) Which of the following are key steps in a data quality program?

1. A) Conduct a data quality audit.
2. B) Apply TQM principles and practices.
3. C) Estimate return on investment.
4. D) All of the above.

12) One simple task of a data quality audit is to:

1. A) interview all users.
2. B) statistically profile all files.
3. C) load all data into a data warehouse.
4. D) establish quality metrics.

13) One way to improve the data capture process is to:

1. A) allow all data to be entered manually.
2. B) provide little or no training to data entry operators.
3. C) check entered data immediately for quality against data in the database.
4. D) not use any automatic data entry routines.

14) TQM stands for:

1. A) Thomas Quinn Mann, a famous data quality innovator.
2. B) Total Quality Manipulation.
3. C) Transforming Quality Management.
4. D) Total Quality Management.

15) The methods to ensure the quality of data across various subject areas are called:

1. A) Variable Data Management.
2. B) Master Data Management.
3. C) Joint Data Management.
4. D) Managed Data Management.

16) All of the following are popular architectures for Master Data Management EXCEPT:

1. A) Identity Registry.
2. B) Integration Hub.
3. C) Persistent Object.
4. D) Normalization.

17) In the ________ approach, one consolidated record is maintained, and all applications draw on that one actual "golden" record.

1. A) persistent
2. B) identity registry
3. C) federated
4. D) integration hub

18) All of the following are ways to consolidate data EXCEPT:

1. A) application integration.
2. B) data rollup and integration.
3. C) business process integration.
4. D) user interaction integration.

19) Data federation is a technique which:

1. A) creates an integrated database from several separate databases.
2. B) creates a distributed database.
3. C) provides a virtual view of integrated data without actually creating one centralized database.
4. D) provides a real-time update of shared data.

20) ________ duplicates data across databases.

1. A) Data propagation
2. B) Data duplication
3. C) Redundant replication
4. D) A replication server

21) Event-drive propagation:

1. A) provides a means to duplicate data for events.
2. B) pushes data to duplicate sites as an event occurs.
3. C) pulls duplicate data from redundant sites.
4. D) none of the above.

22) The major advantage of data propagation is:

1. A) real-time cascading of data changes throughout the organization.
2. B) duplication of non-redundant data.
3. C) the ability to have trickle-feeds.
4. D) none of the above.

23) A characteristic of reconciled data that means the data reflect an enterprise-wide view is:

1. A) detailed.
2. B) historical.
3. C) normalized.
4. D) comprehensive.

24) Informational and operational data differ in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

1. A) level of detail.
2. B) normalization level.
3. C) scope of data.
4. D) data quality.

25) A method of capturing only the changes that have occurred in the source data since the last capture is called ________ extract.

1. A) static
2. B) incremental
3. C) partial
4. D) update-driven

26) A technique using artificial intelligence to upgrade the quality of raw data is called:

1. A) dumping.
2. B) data reconciliation.
3. C) completion backwards updates.
4. D) data scrubbing.

27) All of the following are tasks of data cleansing EXCEPT:

1. A) decoding data to make them understandable for data warehousing applications.
2. B) adding time stamps to distinguish values for the same attribute over time.
3. C) generating primary keys for each row of a table.
4. D) creating foreign keys.

28) An approach to filling a data warehouse that employs bulk rewriting of the target data periodically is called:

1. A) dump mode.
2. B) overwrite mode.
3. C) refresh mode.
4. D) update mode.

29) Which type of index is commonly used in data warehousing environments?

1. A) Join index
2. B) Bit-mapped index
3. C) Secondary index
4. D) Both A and B

30) Loading data into a data warehouse involves:

1. A) appending new rows to the tables in the warehouse.
2. B) updating existing rows with new data.
3. C) purging data that have become obsolete or were incorrectly loaded.
4. D) all of the above.

31) Data may be loaded from the staging area into the warehouse by following:

1. A) SQL Commands (Insert/Update).
2. B) special load utilities.
3. C) custom-written routines.
4. D) all of the above.

32) The process of combining data from various sources into a single table or view is called:

1. A) extracting.
2. B) updating.
3. C) selecting.
4. D) joining.

33) The process of transforming data from a detailed to a summary level is called:

1. A) extracting.
2. B) updating.
3. C) joining.
4. D) aggregating.

34) Which of the following is a basic method for single field transformation?

1. A) Table lookup
2. B) Cross-linking entities
3. C) Cross-linking attributes
4. D) Field-to-field communication

35) Quality data are not essential for well-run organizations.

36) ETL is short for Extract, Transform, Load.

37) There are six major steps to ETL.

38) A data steward is a person assigned the responsibility of ensuring the organizational applications properly support the organization's enterprise goals for data quality.

39) A data governance committee is always made up of high-ranking government officials.

40) Dirty data saves work for information systems projects.

41) Data quality is essential for SOX and Basel II compliance.

42) Quality data does not have to be unique.

43) Completeness means that all data that are needed are present.

44) Retention refers to the amount of data that is not purged periodically from tables.

45) Generally, records in a customer file never become obsolete.

46) Data which arrive via XML and B2B channels is always guaranteed to be accurate.

47) The uncontrolled proliferation of spreadsheets, databases and repositories leads to data quality problems.

48) A data quality audit helps an organization understand the extent and nature of data quality problems.

49) A data stewardship program does not help to involve the organization in data quality.

50) Total quality management (TQM) focuses on defect correction rather than defect prevention.

51) Master data management is the disciplines, technologies and methods to ensure the currency, meaning and quality of data within one subject area.

52) User interaction integration is achieved by creating fewer user interfaces.

53) Data federation consolidates all data into one database.

54) The major advantage of the data propagation approach to data integration is the near real-time cascading of data changes throughout the organization.

55) The data reconciliation process is responsible for transforming operational data to reconciled data.

56) After the extract, transform, and load is done on data, the data warehouse is never fully normalized.

57) Data reconciliation occurs in two stages, an initial load and subsequent updates.

58) Static extract is a method of capturing only the changes that have occurred in the source data since the last capture.

59) One of the biggest challenges of the extraction process is managing changes in the source system.

60) Data are moved to the staging area before extraction takes place.

61) Data scrubbing is a technique using pattern recognition and other artificial intelligence techniques to upgrade the quality of raw data before transforming and moving the data to the data warehouse.

62) Refresh mode is an approach to filling the data warehouse that employs bulk rewriting of the target data at periodic intervals.

63) Update mode is used to create a data warehouse.

64) Bit-mapped indexing is often used in a data warehouse environment.

65) Loading data into the warehouse typically means appending new rows to tables in the warehouse as well as updating existing rows with new data.

66) Data transformation is not an important part of the data reconciliation process.

67) Joining is often complicated by problems such as errors in source data.

68) The process of transforming data from detailed to summary levels is called normalization.

69) Dirty data can cause delays and extra work on information systems projects.

70) Completeness means that all data that must have a value does not have a value.

71) Conformance refers to whether the data is stored, exchanged or presented in a format that is as specified by its metadata.

72) A review will thoroughly review all process controls on data entry and maintenance.

73) Improving data capture process is a fundamental step in data quality improvement.

74) A data expeditor is a person assigned the responsibility of ensuring that organizational applications properly support the organization's enterprise goals of data quality.

75) In the ________ approach, one consolidated record is maintained from which all applications draw data.

1. A) persnickity
2. B) cautious
3. C) persistent
4. D) data-oriented

76) Sound data modeling is a central ingredient of a data quality program.

77) Application integration is achieved by coordinating the flow of event information between business applications.

78) User interaction integration is achieved by creating fewer ________ that feed different systems.

1. A) clients
2. B) networks
3. C) computers
4. D) user interfaces

79) Data nationalization provides a virtual view of integrated data without actually bringing the data into one physical database.

80) Data propagation duplicates data across databases, usually with some real-time delay.

81) A method of capturing data in a snapshot at a point in time is called static extract.

82) A technique using pattern recognition to upgrade the quality of raw data is called:

1. A) data scrounging.
2. B) data scrubbing.
3. C) data gouging.
4. D) data analysis.

83) An approach in which only changes in the source data are written to the data warehouse is called refresh mode.

84) Converting data from the format of its source to the format of its destination is called:

1. A) data transformation.
2. B) data loading.
3. C) data scrubbing.
4. D) data storage.

85) The process of partitioning data according to predefined criteria is called aggregation.

86) The process of transforming data from a detailed to a summary level is called selection.

87) Discuss data governance and what needs to be included in a data governance program.

88) Why is data quality important?

89) What are some of the characteristics of quality data?

90) What are some of the reasons for deteriorated data quality?

91) What are the key steps in a data quality program?

92) Discuss Master Data Management.

93) What are some of the approaches to data integration?

94) Discuss the ETL process.

95) What are the characteristics of data after ETL?

96) What is the difference between an incremental extract and a static extract?

97) What are some of the errors and inconsistencies in data that the cleansing process is looking to rectify?

98) In the load and index stage of ETL, what is the difference between refresh mode and update mode?

99) What is data transformation?

100) What are the record-level data transformation functions?

101) What is a field-level transformation, and what different types exist?

CHAPTER 11   DATA AND DATABASE ADMINISTRATION

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 11   Data and Database Administration

1) Which of the following is true of poor data and/or database administration?

1. A) Data timing problems
2. B) Multiple entity definitions
3. C) Unknown meanings of stored data
4. D) All of the above

2) ________ is a technical function responsible for database design, security, and disaster recovery.

1. A) Data administration
2. B) Database administration
3. C) Tech support
4. D) Operations

3) An information repository supplies information to:

1. A) users.
2. B) automated CASE tools.
3. C) database management systems.
4. D) all of the above.

4) Which of the following functions do cost/benefit models?

1. A) Database planning
2. B) Database analysis
3. C) Database design
4. D) Operations

5) Which of the following functions develop integrity controls?

1. A) Database planning
2. B) Database analysis
3. C) Database implementation
4. D) Database design

6) Which of the following functions model business rules?

1. A) Database planning
2. B) Database analysis
3. C) Database design
4. D) Operations

7) A data warehouse administrator has which of the following responsibilities?

1. A) Build and administer an environment supportive of decision-support applications
2. B) Build a stable architecture for the data warehouse
3. C) Develop service level agreements with suppliers and consumers of data for the data warehouse
4. D) All of the above

8) An organization should have one data warehouse administrator for every:

1. A) 100 users.
2. B) 100 gigabytes of data in the enterprise data warehouse.
3. C) department.
4. D) processor.

9) An open-source DBMS is:

1. A) a free source-code RBMS that provides the functionality of an SQL-compliant DBMS.
2. B) a beta release of a commercial RDBMS.
3. C) an object-oriented database management system.
4. D) source code for a commercial RDBMS.

10) Which of the following threats involves outside parties using information to embarrass a company?

1. A) Accidental loss
2. B) Theft and fraud
3. C) Loss of confidentiality
4. D) Loss of data integrity

11) Guidelines for server security should include all of the following EXCEPT:

1. A) securing the network between client and server.
2. B) guidelines for password lengths.
3. C) password naming conventions.
4. D) guidelines for frequency of password changes.

12) Which of the following is a type of network security?

1. A) Authentication of the client workstation
2. B) Password naming conventions
3. C) Guidelines for frequency of password changes
4. D) All of the above

13) Security measures for dynamic Web pages are different from static HTML pages because:

1. A) dynamic Web pages are built "on the fly."
2. B) static Web pages contain more sensitive data.
3. C) the connection requires full access to the database for dynamic pages.
4. D) all of the above.

14) The W3C standard for Web privacy is called:

1. A) the Web privacy act.
2. B) Platform for Privacy Preferences.
3. C) Freedom of Web Information Act.
4. D) the Magna Carta.

15) While views promote security by restricting user access to data, they are not adequate security measures because:

1. A) an unauthorized person may gain access to a view through experimentation.
2. B) all users can read any view.
3. C) a view's data does not change.
4. D) none of the above.

16) A trigger can be used as a security measure in which of the following ways?

1. A) To prohibit inappropriate actions
2. B) To cause special handling procedures to be executed
3. C) To cause a row to be written to a log file
4. D) All of the above

17) Controls designed to restrict access and activities are called:

1. A) schemas.
2. B) business rules.
3. C) encryption controls.
4. D) authorization rules.

18) Which of the following is a principal type of authorization table?

1. A) Subject
2. B) Transaction
3. C) View
4. D) Index

19) A device to measure or detect fingerprints or signatures is called a(n) ________ device.

1. A) biometric
2. B) view
3. C) ink
4. D) laser

20) A credit-card sized plastic card with an embedded microprocessor chip with the ability to store, process and output electronic data in a secure manner is called a(n):

1. A) smart chip.
2. B) smart card.
3. C) e-credit card.
4. D) secure card.

21) An audit trail of database changes is kept by a:

1. A) change control device.
2. B) subschema.
3. C) before image.
4. D) journalizing facility.

22) A DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and journals through the use of a:

1. A) checkpoint facility.
2. B) backup facility.
3. C) recovery manager.
4. D) database change log.

23) A discrete unit of work that must be processed completely or not at all within a computer system is called a:

1. A) change control device.
2. B) transaction.
3. C) before image.
4. D) journalizing facility.

24) A ________ is a DBMS module that restores the database to a correct condition when a failure occurs.

1. A) backup facility
2. B) recovery manager
3. C) restart facility
4. D) transaction logger

25) ________ is used to undo unwanted database changes.

1. A) Rollback
2. B) Rollforward
3. C) Restart
4. D) Encryption

26) Forward recovery is faster than restore/rerun because:

1. A) transactions do not have to be repeated.
2. B) security can be avoided.
3. C) images are mirrored.
4. D) systems are more complete.

27) The preferred method of fixing an aborted transaction is:

1. A) repairing the schema.
2. B) switching.
3. C) duplication of data.
4. D) backing out the transaction.

28) When incorrect data have been introduced, the database is best recovered by:

1. A) backward recovery, if the error has been discovered soon enough.
2. B) human intervention for only a few errors.
3. C) restarting from the most recent checkpoint and processing subsequent transactions.
4. D) all of the above.

29) The actions that must be taken to ensure data integrity is maintained during multiple simultaneous transactions are called ________ actions.

1. A) logging
2. B) concurrency control
3. C) transaction authorization
4. D) multiple management

30) The extent of the database resource that is included with each lock is called the level of:

1. A) impact.
2. B) management.
3. C) lock granularity.
4. D) none of the above.

31) A(n) ________ prevents another transaction from reading and therefore updating a record until it is unlocked.

1. A) record controller
2. B) exclusive lock
3. C) authorization rule
4. D) shared lock

32) A(n) ________ is a procedure for acquiring the necessary locks for a transaction where all necessary locks are acquired before any are released.

1. A) record controller
2. B) exclusive lock
3. C) authorization rule
4. D) two-phase lock

33) An optimistic approach to concurrency control is called:

1. A) versioning.
2. B) denormalization.
3. C) deadlock resolution.
4. D) none of the above.

34) A repository of information about a database that documents data elements of a database is called a:

1. A) schema.
2. B) subschema.
3. C) view.
4. D) data dictionary.

35) A(n) ________ stores metadata about an organization's data and data processing resources.

1. A) DBA
2. B) information repository
3. C) organizational system catalog
4. D) data dictionary

36) Which of the following is not a component of a repository system architecture?

1. A) An informational model
2. B) The repository engine
3. C) A data transformation process
4. D) The repository database

37) Which of the following functions are supported by a repository engine?

1. A) Object management
2. B) Relationship management
3. C) Version management
4. D) All of the above

38) Which of the following is NOT an area of concern when trying to maintain a well-tuned database?

1. A) Memory usage
2. B) CPU usage
3. C) Input/output contention
4. D) User interface design

39) A(n) ________ is submitted by a DBA to test the current performance of a database or predict the response time for queries.

1. A) elusive query
2. B) performance test
3. C) heartbeat query
4. D) none of the above

40) The data administrator takes responsibility for the overall management of data resources.

41) Databases are generally the property of a single department within an organization.

42) The role of database administration is typically a more hands-on, physical involvement with the management of databases.

43) Specifications for transactions do not need to be reviewed quickly.

44) The role of a data warehouse administrator emphasizes integration and coordination of metadata and data across many data sources.

45) Open-source software always comes with complete documentation.

46) The goal of database security is the protection of data from accidental or intentional threats to its integrity and access.

47) Loss of data integrity does not impact the quality of data in a database.

48) A view can be built to present only the data to which a user requires access.

49) A domain is a way to create a structure that acts like a table.

50) A trigger can be used for security purposes to prohibit inappropriate actions, such as changing a salary value outside of a business day.

51) Authorization rules are controls incorporated in the data management system that restrict access to data and also restrict the actions that people may take when they access the data.

52) There are two principal types of authorization tables: one for subjects and one for facts.

53) With a one-key encryption standard, both the sender and the receiver need to know the key that is used to scramble the transmitted or stored data.

54) The first line of defense for authentication is the use of passwords, which is a one-factor authentication scheme.

55) Three-factor authentication is most often implemented with a credit card.

56) A database management system needs to provide only three basic facilities for backup and recovery of a database: backup facilities, journalizing facilities, and a recovery manager.

57) A DBMS must provide journalizing facilities to provide an audit trail of transactions and database changes.

58) The transaction log contains before and after images of records that have been modified.

59) A DBMS may perform checkpoints automatically or in response to commands in user application programs.

60) In order to perform a restore/rerun, the database must be mirrored.

61) A business transaction is a sequence of steps that constitute some well-defined business activity.

62) Backward recovery starts with an earlier copy of the database.

63) A typical cause of database destruction is a disk crash.

64) Concurrent transactions need to be processed in isolation so that they do not interfere with each other.

65) The granularity of locking is not a critical decision in database design.

66) Field-level locks are used quite often.

67) A shared lock allows other transactions to read but not update records in use.

68) A deadlock results when two transactions try to read the same record.

69) Two-phase locking results in a growing phase where locks are acquired and a shrinking phase where locks are released.

70) Versioning takes the pessimistic approach to locking.

71) A repository of information about data is called a catalog.

72) The repository information model defines types, which should be easy to extend.

73) CASE tool-generated information should be fed into repositories.

74) The Information Resource Lexicon System (IRLS) is a computer software tool used to manage and control access to the information repository.

75) Correct installation of the DBMS product is essential to any environment.

76) Database applications are not very disk intensive.

77) Allocating 10 percent over suggested installation space is sufficient for a DBMS.

78) Examination and modification of the SQL code in an application may lead to performance improvements.

79) A high-level function that is responsible for the overall management of data resources in an organization is called database administration.

80) Specifying database access policies is done during the database implementation phase.

81) The role of a ________ emphasizes integration and coordination of metadata across many data sources.

1. A) data warehouse administrator
2. B) database administrator
3. C) data administrator
4. D) data architect

82) Open-source DBMS are free software that provide the core functionality of an SQL compliant DBMS.

83) Controls incorporated into a data management system that restrict access to data are called authentication rules.

84) The coding or scrambling of data so that humans cannot read them is called:

1. A) demarcation.
2. B) hiding.
3. C) encoding.
4. D) encryption.

85) An audit trail of transactions and database changes is kept by a journalizing facility.

86) The record log is a record of the essential data for each transaction that has been processed against the database.

87) A checkpoint facility is a facility by which the DBMS refuses to accept any new transactions.

88) The restoration manager allows the DBMS to restore the database to a correct condition and restart processing transactions.

89) The restore/rerun technique involves reprocessing the day's transactions against the backup copy of the database.

90) A discrete unit of work that must be processed completely or not at all in a computer system is called a(n):

1. A) truncation.
2. B) unit of work.
3. C) transaction.
4. D) gerund.

91) The logical beginning and end of a transaction is called a transaction boundary.

92) A transaction that terminates abnormally is called a(n) ________ transaction.

1. A) terminated
2. B) aborted
3. C) completed
4. D) deleted

93) The process of managing simultaneous operations against a database so that data integrity is maintained is called completeness control.

94) The ________ occurs when one user reads data that have been partially updated by another user.

1. A) inconsistent read problem
2. B) distant read problem
3. C) honest dirty data
4. D) data quality problem

95) Any data that are retrieved by a user for updating must be locked until the update is completed or aborted.

96) Exclusive locks allow other transactions to read but not update a record or other resource.

97) What new trends and technologies have driven the need for changes in the data administration and database administration roles?

98) What are some of the core roles of the traditional data administrator?

99) What are some of the core roles of a database administrator?

100) What factors should one consider when choosing an open source DBMS?

101) What threats to data security must be addressed in a comprehensive data security plan?

102) What are the most important security features for data management software?

103) What are integrity controls? Describe the different types.

104) What are the four basic facilities that a database management system should provide for backup and recovery?

105) What is a journalizing facility?

106) What is backward and forward recovery?

107) What is the difference between shared locks and exclusive locks?

CHAPTER 12   DISTRIBUTED DATABASES

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 12   Distributed Databases

1) A(n) ________ is a database stored on multiple computers in multiple locations that are NOT connected by a data communications link.

1. A) distributed database
2. B) decentralized database
3. C) unlinked database
4. D) data repository

2) Which of the following are business conditions that encourage the use of distributed databases?

1. A) Business unit autonomy
2. B) Data sharing needs
3. C) Data communication reliability
4. D) All of the above

3) Which of the following environments uses the same DBMS at each node with a central or master DBMS coordinating database access across nodes?

1. A) Centralized; maximum
2. B) Centralized; minimum
3. C) Homogeneous; nonautonomous
4. D) Federated; nonautonomous

4) Which of the following environments uses a different DBMS at each node and supports local databases for unique data requests?

1. A) Gateways; local
2. B) Centralized; minimum
3. C) Homogeneous; cross-linked
4. D) Heterogeneous; federated

5) Which of the following supports a simple path to other databases, without the benefits of one logical database?

1. A) Linked; differential
2. B) Gateways
3. C) Autonomous; cross-linked
4. D) Federated; nonautonomous

6) Which of the following characterizes homogeneous environments?

1. A) Contains simple pathways
2. B) Same DBMS used at all locations
3. C) Some users require only local access
4. D) Cross-linked systems easily communicate

7) ________ is a design goal for a distributed database, which says a user does not need to know the location of data to use the data.

1. A) Location transparency
2. B) Location autonomy
3. C) Location dependency
4. D) Distributed locatability

Off

8) Which of the following is true of distributed databases?

1. A) Less reliable
2. B) Better local control
3. C) Slower response time
4. D) None of the above

9) Which of the following is true of data replication?

1. A) Additional storage requirements
2. B) Faster response
3. C) Node decoupling
4. D) All of the above

10) All of the following are disadvantages of data replication EXCEPT:

1. A) storage requirements.
2. B) reduced network traffic at prime time.
3. C) complexity and cost of updating.
4. D) none of the above.

11) Which of the following is an advantage to data replication?

1. A) Reliability
2. B) Fast response
3. C) Node decoupling
4. D) All of the above

12) Snapshot replication is most appropriate for:

1. A) a data warehouse application.
2. B) an application where the processing of data follows a workflow across the business units.
3. C) a transaction processing system.
4. D) none of the above.

13) One way to generate store and forward messages for completed transactions to be broadcast across a network is through the use of:

1. A) stored procedures.
2. B) triggers.
3. C) functions.
4. D) SQL statements.

14) With a pull strategy of replication, the ________ node determines when a database is updated.

1. A) user
2. B) source
3. C) target
4. D) all of the above

15) Replication should be used when:

1. A) data currency and timing don't matter.
2. B) there is a highly heterogeneous network.
3. C) there are no or few triggers.
4. D) all of the above.

16) Which of the following is true about horizontal partitioning?

1. A) Data can be stored to optimize local access.
2. B) Data are less secure.
3. C) There is consistent access speed.
4. D) None of the above.

17) All of the following are advantages of vertical partitioning EXCEPT:

1. A) efficiency.
2. B) security.
3. C) ease of querying.
4. D) easier to set up than horizontal partitioning.

18) A centralized strategy has ________ expandability.

1. A) excellent
2. B) good
3. C) poor
4. D) medium

19) A synchronized replication strategy has a(n) ________ reliability.

1. A) excellent
2. B) good
3. C) fair
4. D) medium

20) An integrated partition strategy is ________ to manage.

1. A) excellent
2. B) difficult
3. C) easy
4. D) medium

21) Which of the following are factors in deciding on database distribution strategies?

1. A) Organizational forces
2. B) Frequency of data access
3. C) Reliability needs
4. D) All of the above

22) A distributed database must:

1. A) keep track of data locations.
2. B) present a single logical database that is physically distributed.
3. C) provide consistency among data copies.
4. D) all of the above.

23) In a distributed database, a transaction that requires reference to data at one or more nonlocal sites is called a ________ transaction.

1. A) link
2. B) tight
3. C) global
4. D) loose

24) With ________, users can act as if all the data were located at a single node.

1. A) location transparency
2. B) local autonomy
3. C) client-based control
4. D) all of the above

25) A design goal for distributed databases to allow programmers to treat a data item replicated at several sites as though it were at one site is called:

1. A) location transparency.
2. B) replication accessibility.
3. C) replication transparency.
4. D) data accessibility.

26) With ________, all of the actions of a transaction are either committed or not committed.

1. A) location transparency
2. B) replication transparency
3. C) failure transparency
4. D) commit transparency

27) An optimization strategy that allows sites that can update to proceed and other sites to catch up is called:

1. A) read-only commit.
2. B) lazy commit.
3. C) sequenced commit.
4. D) linear set up.

28) ________ ensures that a transaction is successfully completed or else it is aborted.

1. A) Failure protocol
2. B) TCP/IP protocol
3. C) Commit protocol
4. D) None of the above

29) A design goal for distributed databases that states that although a distributed database runs many transactions, it appears that a given transaction is the only one in the system is called:

1. A) linear run.
2. B) concurrency transparency.
3. C) transaction CPU transparency.
4. D) location transparency.

30) The step in which a distributed database decides the order in which to execute the distributed query is called:

1. A) decomposition.
2. B) localization.
3. C) step optimization.
4. D) none of the above.

31) A joining operation in which only the joining attribute from one site is transmitted to the other site is called a(n):

1. A) attribute linkup.
2. B) key data element transfer.
3. C) key data element join.
4. D) semijoin.

32) The sequence of instructions required to process a transaction is called the:

1. A) unit of work.
2. B) logical program unit.
3. C) rollback.
4. D) commit.

33) A ________ allows a single SQL statement to refer to tables in more than one remote DBMS.

1. A) distributed UOW
2. B) join SQL statement
3. C) distributed request
4. D) data transfer command

34) A distributed database is not just a collection of files.

35) Distributed databases make data sharing more difficult because of the data communication problems.

36) Distributed databases do not easily satisfy both transaction and analytical processing systems.

37) In a homogeneous environment, the same DBMS is used at each location.

38) In a heterogeneous environment, not all users use the same DBMS.

39) Users of distributed database systems always need to know the location of the data.

40) Local autonomy means that data are not accessible from remote sites.

41) With an asynchronous distributed database, all data across the network is continuously kept up to date.

42) A distributed database may require more costly and complex software than a centralized database.

43) Replicated databases usually result in tightly coupled nodes.

44) Replication is often used for noncollaborative data.

45) Replication should NOT be used if timely updates are important.

46) Applications such as decision support or data warehousing often do not require current data and are supported by periodic snapshots.

47) Shared ownership of data is most appropriate as business activities move across time zones.

48) One way to generate messages for near-real-time replication is through the use of database triggers.

49) Applications that can tolerate out-of-date data are not the best candidates for data replication.

50) Horizontal partitioning offers increased efficiency because data are close to use areas.

51) Combining data across vertical partitions is generally more difficult than combining across horizontal partitions.

52) The overriding principle in distributed database design is that data should be stored at one central site.

53) Organizational forces such as funding availability drive the choice of distributed database strategy.

54) The reliability of a decentralized distributed database system with independent partitions is poor.

55) A replicated database with snapshots is very manageable.

56) A distributed DBMS must provide consistency among copies of data across the remote sites.

57) A local transaction is one that requires reference only to data that are stored at the site where the transaction originates.

58) Location transparency is used to inform users of where data are located within the distributed database.

59) Replication transparency allows a programmer or user to treat a replicated data item as if it were a single item at a single node.

60) A transaction manager is an algorithm that coordinates updates or aborts them.

61) Failure transparency is a design goal for distributed databases that guarantees that all the actions associated with a transaction are either committed or none of them are committed.

62) Two-phase commit is an algorithm for coordinating deletions in a distributed database management system.

63) With a two-phase commit strategy for synchronizing distributed data, committing a transaction is faster than if the originating location were able to work alone.

64) Concurrency transparency allows each transaction to appear as if it were the only activity in a distributed database management system.

65) The purpose of time-stamping is to allow transactions to be processed in parallel.

66) Data localization involves transforming a query into fragments that explicitly reference data at one site.

67) In a semijoin, all of the selected attributes from every selected row are transmitted to each site.

68) A remote unit of work allows updates at the single remote computer.

69) A distributed unit of work does not support location transparency.

70) A distributed request allows a single SQL statement to refer to tables in more than one remote DBMS.

71) A distributed database is a single logical database spread physically across computers in multiple locations that are connected by a data communications link.

72) An environment in which data are distributed across all nodes, and there is a global schema, is called a(n) heterogenous environment.

73) Simple paths to other databases without the benefits of one logical database are called:

1. A) freeways.
2. B) parkways.
3. C) gateways.
4. D) highways.

74) In a homogeneous distributed database environment, all users access the database through one global schema.

75) Location efficiency enables a user to access data without knowing exactly where the data are located.

76) A form of distributed database in which all data across a network are kept continuously updated, so a user can access any data anywhere on the network and get the same answer is called a(n) ________ distributed database.

1. A) synchronous
2. B) asynchronous
3. C) private
4. D) cloud-based

Of

77) ________ is a design goal for a distributed database that says a site can independently administer and operate its database.

1. A) Remote autonomy
2. B) Local authority
3. C) Local autonomy
4. D) Location transparency

78) When separate copies of data are stored at each of two or more sites, it is called replication.

79) ________ is an application that can effectively employ snapshot replication in a distributed environment.

1. A) Data cloning
2. B) Data replication
3. C) Disributed data
4. D) Data warehousing

80) In a push replication strategy, the target, not the source, controls when a local database is updated.

81) Horizontal partitioning is implemented by placing some rows of a table at one site and other rows at another site.

82) In general, data should be located away from the applications that use those data.

83) Scalability is the ability to grow, reduce in size, and become more heterogeneous as the needs of the business change.

84) A transaction that requires only reference to data that are stored at the site is a remote transaction.

85) A transaction that requires reference to data at one or more nonlocal sites to satisfy the request is a global transaction.

86) Location translucency enables users and programmers to treat data as if it were located at one node even though it may move from node to node.

87) Replication transparency s a design goal in distributed database systems, which says that even though a data item may be replicated at several nodes throughout the network, a user may treat the data item as if it were a single data item at a single node.

88) The transaction processor at each site maintains an appropriate concurrency scheme to ensure data integrity during parallel execution of transactions at that site.

89) What business conditions encourage the use of distributed databases?

90) Describe the range of distributed database environments.

91) Explain the difference between a synchronous and asynchronous distributed database.

92) What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of a distributed database?

93) What is data replication?

94) Discuss the different types of data replication.

95) What is horizontal and vertical partitioning?

96) What are the five unique ways that a data distribution strategy can be organized?

97) What are the functions of a distributed DBMS?

98) What is the difference between a local transaction and a global transaction?

99) What are the three different kinds of transparencies used in distributed database management systems?

100) What are the three steps that a distributed DBMS uses to develop a query plan?

CHAPTER 13   OBJECT-ORIENTED DATA MODELING

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 13   Object-Oriented Data Modeling

1) Which of the following is a reason for using an object-oriented design?

1. A) The analysis model is not formal enough to be implemented in a programming language.
2. B) The actual system must be adapted to the environment in which the system will actually be implemented.
3. C) The analysis results can be validated using object-oriented design.
4. D) All of the above.

2) All of the following are benefits of object-oriented modeling EXCEPT:

1. A) the ability to tackle more challenging problem domains.
2. B) increased consistency among analysis, design, and programming activities.
3. C) decreased communication among the users, analysts, designers, and programmers.
4. D) reusability of analysis, design, and programming results.

3) The Unified Modeling Language:

1. A) is a notation useful for graphically depicting an object-oriented analysis or design model.
2. B) allows one to capture design decisions of a system.
3. C) promotes communication among key personnel involved in development.
4. D) all of the above.

4) A(n) ________ is a concept, abstraction, or thing that has a state, behavior, and identity.

1. A) relationship
2. B) attribute
3. C) key
4. D) object

5) A(n) ________ encompasses an object's properties and the values of those properties.

1. A) state
2. B) attribute
3. C) method
4. D) behavior

6) Which of the following refers to a set of objects that share common structures and behaviors?

1. A) Supertype
2. B) Object class
3. C) Model
4. D) Entity group

7) A diagram that shows the static structure of an object-oriented model is called a(n):

1. A) structure diagram.
2. B) class diagram.
3. C) entity diagram.
4. D) none of the above.

8) A graph of instances that are compatible within a class diagram is called a(n):

1. A) object group.
2. B) method chart.
3. C) object diagram.
4. D) ERD.

9) Which of the following is a function or service provided by all instances of a class?

1. A) Operation
2. B) Implementation
3. C) Class group
4. D) Query

10) ________ is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

1. A) Grouping
2. B) Encapsulation
3. C) Classification
4. D) Mining

11) Which of the following operations does NOT alter the state of an object?

1. A) Update
2. B) Query
3. C) Constructor
4. D) None of the above

12) An operation that creates a new instance of a class is called a(n):

1. A) query operation.
2. B) update operation.
3. C) scope operation.
4. D) constructor operation.

13) Which type of operation has side effects?

1. A) Update
2. B) Append
3. C) Query
4. D) Scope

14) An operation that applies to a class rather than an object instance is a(n):

1. A) constructor operation.
2. B) query operation.
3. C) class-scope operation.
4. D) update operation.

15) A(n) ________ is shown as a solid line between the participating classes.

1. A) connector
2. B) update
3. C) entity
4. D) association

16) The end of an association where it connects to a class is called a(n):

1. A) connector.
2. B) terminator.
3. C) initiator.
4. D) association role.

17) ________ indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.

1. A) Bound
2. B) Multiplicity
3. C) Role
4. D) Relationship

18) In the figure below, which of the following is true?

1. A) A faculty may advise only one student.
2. B) A faculty may advise up to a maximum of 10 students.
3. C) A course offering may be offered for multiple courses.
4. D) A student can have more than one advisor.

19) An association ________ is an association that has attributes or operations of its own.

1. A) link
2. B) group
3. C) class
4. D) body

20) In the figure below, which of the following is true?

1. A) Students use various software tools for different courses.
2. B) Students can only register for one course.
3. C) Students use only one type of software.
4. D) Each course uses specific software.

21) A class that has direct instances is called a(n) ________ class.

1. A) abstract
2. B) multiplicity
3. C) large
4. D) concrete

22) According to the UML Notation Guide, overlapping means:

1. A) a descendant may be descended from more than one of the subclasses.
2. B) a descendant may not be descended from more than one of the subclasses.
3. C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected.
4. D) the list of objects is stable, but relationships will change.

23) According to the UML Notation Guide, complete means:

1. A) a descendant may come from more than one supertype.
2. B) a descendant may be not descended from more than one of the subclasses.
3. C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected.
4. D) the list of objects is not

24) A(n) ________ is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an entire class.

1. A) completion attribute
2. B) class-scope attribute
3. C) overall descriptor
4. D) summary descriptor

25) A(n) ________ defines the form or protocol of an operation, but not its implementation.

1. A) meta-operation
2. B) inquisitor
3. C) abstract operation
4. D) operation descriptor

26) A ________ is the implementation of an operation.

1. A) meta-operation
2. B) method
3. C) query
4. D) constructor

27) ________ means that the same operation can apply to two or more classes in different ways.

1. A) Polymorphism
2. B) Inheritance
3. C) Combined operations
4. D) Checkpoint

28) The process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of the method in a subclass is called:

1. A) inheritance.
2. B) encapsulation.
3. C) polymorphism.
4. D) overriding.

29) When an object is an instance of more than one class, it is called:

1. A) multiplicity.
2. B) polymorphism.
3. C) multiple classification.
4. D) multiple associations.

30) In the figure below, what relationship is shown?

1. A) Overlaps
2. B) Disjoints
3. C) Rejoinders
4. D) Aggregation

31) A part object which belongs to only one whole object and which lives and dies with the whole object is called a(n):

1. A) dependent.
2. B) weak entity.
3. C) composition.
4. D) declarative.

32) An object encapsulates both data and behavior.

33) A state represents how an object acts.

34) An object class is a set of objects that share a common structure and behavior.

35) A class diagram shows the dynamic structure of an object-oriented model.

36) An operation is a function or service that is provided by all of the classes.

37) Encapsulation is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

38) A constructor operation does not alter an instance of a class.

39) A class-scope operation applies to a class rather than an object instance.

40) An association role is the end of an association where it connects to a class.

41) Each role has a duplicity, which indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.

42) The most common multiplicities are 0..1, *, and 1.

43) A ternary relationship can easily be replaced by three binary relationships.

44) An association class is an association that participates in no relationships.

45) An association class is similar to an associative entity in the E-R model.

46) A derived attribute, association, or role is one that can be computed or derived from other attributes, associations, or roles.

47) An instance of a subclass is not always an instance of its superclass.

48) A class that can have direct instances is called an abstract class.

49) According to the UML Notation Guide, the term disjoint means that a descendent may not be descended from more than one of the subclasses.

50) A class-scope attribute is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an instance of a class.

51) In addition to specifying the multiplicity of an association role, you can also specify other properties, for example, if the objects playing the role are ordered or not.

52) An abstract operation describes the implementation of an operation.

53) Polymorphism occurs when the same operation may apply to two or more classes in different ways.

54) Overriding is the process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of that method in a subclass.

55) If a subclass of a company inherits an operation to compute a tax but extends the inherited behavior by adding a foreign surcharge, this is an example of overriding for extension.

56) Overriding for optimization implements a new operation with improved code by exploiting the restrictions imposed by the superclass.

57) In overriding for restriction, the protocol of the new operation in the subclass is restricted.

58) An aggregation expresses a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.

59) A composition is an instance of class that is made up of more than one class.

60) In composition, a part belongs to many whole objects.

61) In aggregation, some of the operations of the whole automatically apply to its parts.

62) State encompasses an object's properties and the values of those properties.

63) An entity that has a well-defined role in the application domain and has a state, behavior, and identity is called an object.

64) A class diagram shows the static structure of an object-oriented model.

65) A UML is a graph of instances that are compatible with a given class diagram.

66) It is only through an operation that other objects can access or manipulate information stored in an object.

67) Encapsulation is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

68) A destructor operation creates a new instance of a class.

69) An update operation has side effects since it alters the state of an object.

70) A query operation does not alter the state of an object.

71) A(n) ________ is a named relationship between or among classes.

1. A) association
2. B) named relationship
3. C) assumption
4. D) attribute

72) An association role is the end of an association where it connects to a class.

ns

73) A duplicity specification in a class diagram is shown as a text string representing an interval (or intervals) of integers.

74) An association that has its own attributes or operations or that participates in relationships with other classes is called an association class.

75) A(n) deprived attribute, role or association is one that can be computed from other attributes, roles, or associations.

76) A class that has no direct instances but whose descendants may have direct instances is called an abstract class.

77) A class-scope attribute is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an entire class, rather than a specific value for an instance.

78) The implementation of a operation is called a(n):

1. A) attribute.
2. B) class.
3. C) method.
4. D) object.

79) When an operation may apply to two or more classes in different ways, this is known as polymorphism.

80) The process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of that method in a subclass is called underwriting.

81) When an object is an instance of more than one class, this is known as multiple classification.

82) Aggregation is a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.

83) A part object that belongs to only one whole object and lives and dies with the whole object is called composting.

84) When some of the operations on a whole class automatically apply to its parts, the operation is said to propagate.

85) What are several motivations and benefits of object-oriented modeling?

86) What is the difference between a class and an object?

87) What is encapsulation?

88) What is the purpose of a constructor operation?

89) What is an association and an association role?

90) What is the difference between an abstract class and a concrete class?

91) What is polymorphism?

CHAPTER 14   USING RELATIONAL DATABASES TO PROVIDE OBJECT PERSISTENCE

Modern Database Management, 11e (Hoffer et al.)

Chapter 14   Using Relational Databases to Provide Object Persistence

1) Object-oriented databases never took off because of:

1. A) lack of organizational inertia.
2. B) lack of powerful query capabilities found in relational databases.
3. C) a less sophisticated mathematical model.
4. D) all of the above.

2) Storing the state of an object between application execution sessions is called providing ________ to the object.

1. A) stateness
2. B) persistence
3. C) quality
4. D) data

3) Object-oriented languages provide a built-in mechanism for storing a persistent state of an object. This is called:

1. A) serialization.
2. B) persistence.
3. C) integrity constraints.
4. D) none of the above.

4) A technique to define structural relationships between object-oriented and relational representations of data is called:

1. A) object-oriented relational database management systems.
2. B) persistence.
3. C) object-relational mapping.
4. D) relation object mapping.

5) The conceptual gap between the object-oriented approach to application design and the relational model is often labeled as a:

1. A) mismatch.
2. B) schism.
3. C) void.
4. D) goal.

6) All of the following are elements of the object-relational impedance mismatch EXCEPT:

1. A) nature and granularity of data types.
2. B) methods of assessing non-persistent data.
3. C) architectural styles.
4. D) structural relationships.

7) The property of an object that separates it from other objects based on its existence is called:

1. A) object orientation.
2. B) object persistence.
3. C) object identity.
4. D) matrix of objects.

8) The identity of the ________ is dealt with differently in the object-oriented and relational worlds.

1. A) attributes
2. B) entities
3. C) objects
4. D) core elements

9) A(n) ________ is a method that provides other objects with access to the state of an object.

1. A) accessor method
2. B) attribute method
3. C) concrete method
4. D) abstract method

10) ________ has been an industry standard for a call-level application program interface with which Java programs can access SQL databases.

1. A) ODBC
2. B) JDBC
3. C) XML
4. D) SOAP

11) A mechanism that provides an application program with access to an external service such as a database management system is called a(n):

1. A) API.
2. B) ADO.
3. C) call-level application program interface.
4. D) WSDL.

12) Results from a call-level application program interface query are returned as:

1. A) a set of rows consisting of untyped columns.
2. B) an SQL query.
3. C) a cursor.
4. D) a record set.

13) ________ is/are a category of tools which use relational databases to provide object persistence by linking classes to parameters and results of SQL queries.

1. A) Query mapping parameters
2. B) SQL query mapping frameworks
3. C) Object-relational mapping frameworks
4. D) .Net

14) All of the following are object-relational mapping frameworks EXCEPT:

1. A) (N)Hibernate.
2. B) EclipseLink.
3. C) JPA.
4. D) Topdog.

15) A persistent solution that hides the underlying storage technology is called:

1. A) object persistence.
2. B) translucent persistence.
3. C) transparent persistence.
4. D) object permanence.

16) A structure that defines the relationships between domain classes in the object-oriented model and relations in a relational model is called:

1. A) domain mapping schema.
2. B) domain logistic class hierarchy.
3. C) relational-domain model.
4. D) declarative mapping schema.

17) Microsoft's ________ query is a tool for integrating data access directly into object-oriented environments.

1. A) Visual Basic
2. B) Visual C++
3. C) Language Integrated
4. D) Visual Studio

18) One advantage of the call-level API approach to providing persistence is:

1. A) low overhead.
2. B) ability to not write a lot of detailed code.
3. C) SQL code is generated automatically.
4. D) does provide transparent persistence.

19) All of the following are disadvantages of using the call-level API approach to providing persistence EXCEPT:

1. A) little reuse of code.
2. B) moderate to high overhead.
3. C) need to write a lot of detailed code.
4. D) proliferation of code related to database connectivity.

20) An advantage of the SQL query mapping framework is:

1. A) direct access to all DBMS capabilities provided through SQL.
2. B) SQL code generated automatically.
3. C) database access code is easier to manage than with call-level APIs.
4. D) both A and C.

21) All of the following are disadvantages of the SQL query mapping framework EXCEPT:

1. A) more overhead than with call-level APIs.
2. B) does not provide a transparent persistence.
3. C) database access code more difficult to manage than with call-level APIs.
4. D) SQL code not generated automatically.

22) All of the following are advantages of the Object-Relational Mapping Frameworks EXCEPT:

1. A) highest level of persistence transparency.
2. B) full separation of the persistence concern.
3. C) ease of use with legacy databases.
4. D) enable true object-oriented design.

23) A disadvantage of Object-Relational Mapping Frameworks is:

1. A) more overhead than with call-level APIs.
2. B) difficulty with legacy databases.
3. C) true object-oriented design.
4. D) both A and B.

24) Separation of concerns is violated by:

1. A) including non-persistent code in all classes.
2. B) providing persistence-related code in all classes.
3. C) separating code by function.
4. D) none of the above.

25) The core element of Hibernate that defines the relationship between the object-oriented classes and relational files is:

1. A) flat files.
2. B) relational mapping tables.
3. C) KML files.
4. D) XML files.

26) An entity class is:

1. A) a class that represents a real-world entity.
2. B) an instance of an entity.
3. C) a relationship between two classes.
4. D) none of the above.

27) A class specification for objects that exist for storing the value of a property of another object is called a:

1. A) value class.
2. B) sub-type.
3. C) value type.
4. D) literal type.

28) All of the following are ways to represent an inheritance structure in a database EXCEPT:

1. A) table per concrete class with implicit polymorphism.
2. B) table per concrete class with unions.
3. C) table per abstract class with joins.
4. D) table per class hierarchy.

29) A model for specifying when and how an ORM framework retrieves persistent objects to the run-time memory during a navigation process is called:

1. A) fetching strategy.
2. B) navigation strategy.
3. C) object permanence.
4. D) class navigation.

30) A performance problem caused by too many select statements generated by an ORM framework is called:

1. A) N+J selects problem.
2. B) N* selects problem.
3. C) N+1 selects problem.
4. D) selection classification problem.

31) All of the following are typical responsibilities of the ORM framework EXCEPT:

1. A) generating SQL code for database access.
2. B) query language.
3. C) distributing code related to database access.
4. D) providing a layer of abstraction.

32) In HQL, what does the following statement do?

Select s.sectionRegNbr

from section as s j

join s.course c

where c.courseNbr = 'MGMT 390' and s.semester = 'Spring 2008'

1. A) List section numbers of all sections of MGMT 390 offered in the Spring of 2008
2. B) List all students in MGMT 390
3. C) List all sections of MGMT 390 ever offered
4. D) Return no results

33) Storing the state of an object between application execution sessions is called providing obfuscation to the object.

34) Serialization is a built-in mechanism for storing a persistent state of an object in object-oriented languages.

35) Serialization is not a realistic method for storing large amounts of structured data.

36) Serialization's performance is scalable and provides sufficient response time.

37) The difference between the object-oriented world and the relational world is called integrity-object mismatch.

38) Object-relational mapping defines structural relationships between object-oriented and relational representations of data.

39) The conceptual gap between the object-oriented approach to application design and the relational model for database design and implementation is often labeled as a perfect match.

ogy

40) The identity of the core elements (objects/entity instances) is dealt with differently in the object-oriented and relational worlds.

41) In the relational world, each object has its own identity based upon its existence.

42) Object-oriented environments and relational environments have the same navigational model for accessing persistent data.

43) In the object-oriented world, a typical way to access a data item is to call the accessor method associated with a specific attribute.

44) Relational databases and the processes that are used to design them focus primarily on data (with the exceptions of stored procedures and some object-relational extensions of relational databases) whereas object-oriented environments by definition integrate data and behavior.

45) The relational database approach is based on the same architectural assumptions as the object-oriented approach.

46) Object-oriented environments typically do not have an inherent, built-in concept of boundaries between transactions.

47) JDBC is the industry standard call-level API for Java access to SQL databases.

48) Closed database connectivity is another call-level API.

49) SQL query mapping frameworks are an elegant compromise that hide some of the complexity of JDBC and ADO.Net yet give developers full access to SQL.

50) Comprehensive object-relational mapping frameworks hide the relational data access methods from the object-oriented applications and provide an entirely translucent persistence layer.

51) Transparent persistence is a solution that hides the underlying storage technology.

52) A structure that defines the relationship between domain classes in the object-oriented model and relations in the relational model is called the independent mapping schema.

53) An advantage to the call-level API approach is low overhead.

54) One of the advantages of the call-level API approach is the small amount of code needed to be written.

55) Lack of automatic SQL code generation is a disadvantage in the call-level API approach.

56) SQL query mapping frameworks make mapping to legacy database schemas more difficult.

57) SQL query mapping frameworks do not provide transparent persistence.

58) Object-relational mapping frameworks require less overhead than call-level APIs and query mapping frameworks.

59) IBATIS is an example of an SQL query mapping framework.

60) Hibernate is configured using an HTML file.

61) The process of using a limited number of database connections that are shared by multiple applications and users is called pooling of database connections.

62) In most cases, the relationship between a class in the object-oriented world and a relational table is one-to-one.

63) A single class can provide persistence for two or more tables when using a value type.

64) An inheritance structure can be represented in at least four ways in a database.

65) ORM frameworks provide a layer of abstraction that separates object-oriented applications from the specific details of a specific database application.

66) ORM frameworks do not generate SQL code.

67) ORM frameworks include tools for managing database performance in the context of object-oriented applications.

68) Pulling strategies determine when and how a framework retrieves persistent objects to the run-time memory.

69) ORM frameworks provide support for transactions and transaction integrity.

70) ORM frameworks often include a custom query language. An example of this is HQL.

71) HQL provides three different ways of expressing joins.

72) In HQL, an implicit association join allows us to use object-oriented navigation in the queries.

73) An object's capability to maintain its state between application execution sessions is called:

1. A) persistence.
2. B) abstention.
3. C) state preservation.
4. D) none of the above

74) Persistence defines an object's capability to maintain its state between application execution sessions.

75) Parallelization refers to the process of writing an object into a storage medium or communication channel as a data stream.

76) Serialization's performance is simply not scalable for purposes that require fast and constant response times.

77) Object-relational mapping (ORM) defines relationships between object-oriented and persistent data.

78) The conceptual differences between the object-oriented approach to application design and the relational model for database design is called the object-relational impedance mismatch.

79) Object identity refers to the property of a(n) object that separates it from other classes based upon its existence.

80) A typical way to access a data item in the object-oriented world is through the accessor method.

81) Object-oriented environments and relational databases have very different navigation models for accessing persistent data.

82) Relational databases and the processes that are used to design them focus primarily on data, whereas object-oriented environments by definition integrate data and classes.

83) Object-oriented environments typically do not have an inherent, built-in concept of boundaries between transactions.

84) A detail-level application program interface is a mechanism that provides an application program with access to an external service.

85) JDBC enables Java programs to access SQL databases.

86) SQL writing frameworks provide a set of tools that provide persistence by linking classes to parameters and results of SQL queries.

87) Object-relational mapping frameworks hide the relational data access methods from the object-oriented applications and provide a ________ layer.

1. A) translucent persistence
2. B) persistence
3. C) administrative
4. D) transparent persistence

88) Object-relational mapping frameworks move the management of ________ outside of the core structure of the object-oriented applications.

1. A) persistence
2. B) data
3. C) tables
4. D) programs

89) Declarative Mapping Schema is a structure that defines relationships between domain classes in the object-oriented model and relations in the relational model.

90) Many ORM frameworks also include a:

1. A) query language.
2. B) database.
3. C) toolkit.
4. D) language.

91) Little reuse of code is an advantage of the call-level API approach.

92) Easy mapping to legacy database schemas is an advantage of SQL query mapping frameworks.

93) Object-relational mapping frameworks provide the highest level of persistence transparency.

94) Call-level APIs work well when an application is small; however, they later lead to difficult and heavily layered code.

95) Call-level APIs generally violate separation of concerns.

96) SQL query mapping frameworks reduce significantly the amount of code required to manage database connectivity.

97) What is object-relational impedance mismatch?

98) What are some of the common approaches for providing persistence for objects using relational databases?

99) Within an ORM, what is a fetching strategy?

100) What are some of the typical responsibilities of an Object-Relational Mapping Framework?

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