Monday, 15 May 2017

Chamberlain NR 451 All Discussions Questions – Latest 2017

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Chamberlain NR 451 All Discussions Questions – Latest
NR 451 Week 1 Discussion Latest 2017
Types of Nursing Models and Frameworks of EBP (graded)
What are some of the models and frameworks of EBP currently in use? How does the strength of the evidence determine translation into practice? Why is it important to integrate both evidence-based practice and patient and family preferences? What is the nurse’s responsibility when EBP and patient and family practice do not match?
NR 451 Week 2 Discussion Latest 2017
The Clinical Question (graded)
Your capstone change project begins this week when you identify a problem that you judge needs to experience a change in order to produce better patient outcomes.
  • Formulate a significant clinical question that will be the basis for your capstone change project.
  • Relate how you developed the question.
  • Describe the importance of this question to your clinical practice.
  • Define meta-analysis,and explain how this relates to evidence -based practice (EBP).
  • Describe what a research-practice gap is.
NR 451 Week 3 Discussion Latest 2017
Feasibility of Your Design Proposal and Importance of Communication (graded)
Now that you have identified your capstone change project, it is time to look its feasibility.
  • What tangible and intangible resources will be needed to implement your project?
  • What improved outcomes do you anticipate will occur that could indicate the project produced a successful return on investment (ROI) of these resources?
  • How will you communicate your plan for change with key decision makers so that they will support the allocation of the resources you are seeking?
NR 451 Week 4 Discussion Latest 2017
Evaluating Quality Patient Outcomes (graded)
How can data provide information to evaluate quality patient outcomes? Give an example of data that can reflect poor quality in care. How can quality improvement be a daily task in patient care? Why does continuous quality improvement need to be associated with change?
NR 451 Week 5 Discussion Latest 2017
Core Competencies for Nurses (graded)
Explore the website for the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) initiative at http://www.qsen.org. How can the QSEN competencies for nurses be implemented into your workplace or professional nursing setting? If you are not currently employed as a nurse, consider a previous work setting that would have benefited from implementation of the QSEN competencies.
NR 451 Week 6 Discussion Latest 2017
Implementing Change Despite Resistance (graded)
Change can be difficult to implement. Now that you are almost finished with your change project, if you were to implement your project in your clinical practice, what type of resistance do you expect from staff? List at least three ways that you can lessen the resistance you may encounter to help ensure the success of your project.
NR 451 Week 7 Discussion Latest 2017
Please go to www.whitehouse.gov/blog/2016/03/23/look-six-years-affordable-care-act to read the latest about the Affordable Care Act from the White House.
Respond to the questions below.
  • What are some benefits of the healthcare reform that has been prompted by the Affordable Care Act (ACA)?
  • Why is it important to be aware of changes in healthcare policy?
  • Why do you believe we spend more on healthcare than any other country but have the worst outcomes?
NR 451 Week 8 Discussion Latest 2017
The Future of Affordable, Safe, and Quality Healthcare (graded)
What does the following statement mean to you?
In order to meet the challenges of taking care of older and sicker patients, incorporate patient safety and quality of care into practice, and understand economics and its effect on the workforce, nurses must take a leading role in the future of healthcare and remain current in their profession by means of engagement in lifelong learning.

Sunday, 7 May 2017

DeVry ETHC 445 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017

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Question 1. Question : Ethics of the deontological school would drive the commanding officer (CO) to make what decision? To seek the best welfare for his sailor To take risks of courage To calculate the best possible outcome To ask what virtues he seeks to honor To do his duty under rules and procedures

Question 2. Question : Which of the three primary schools of ethics is operating when the commanding officer (CO) decides for medical evacuation of the injured sailor in order to aid the most possible? Care based Ends based Virtue based Self-interest Conscience driven

Question 3. Question : If the CO’s conscience was bothering him while making a decision, reading up on what ethicist would have made him aware of his thinking and deciding? Ayn Rand St. Anselm St. Thomas Aquinas John Locke John Stuart Mill

Question 4. Question : What virtue is not shown if the CO shows unwillingness to contact the carrier air group commander about the welfare of his sailor because of fear? Procrastination Selfishness The virtue of courage Wisdom Moderation

Question 5. Question : The maxim “I uphold only the ethical view that all rational beings ought uphold” follows _____. Utilitarian ethics An Aristotelian moderation of virtue A strong application of care-based ethics Kant’s categorical imperative in the first formulation Care-based ethics

Question 6. Question : The CO’s practice of moderation in not taking excessive risks connects him with what concept of ethics? Aquinas’ concept of conscience James’ pragmatism Aquinas’ concept of natural ethics Mill’s utilitarianism Aristotle’s doctrine of the mean

Question 7. Question : To ask, “What is the best possible outcome for my whole ship” is to apply what kind of ethics? Social contract Utilitarianism Deontological ethics Being caught in a dilemma Ethics of the mean

Question 8. Question : To think, “What can this do for my reputation when I come up for selection as admiral,” is an example of what kind of ethics? Immanuel Kant’s categorical imperative. John Locke’s social contract. Ayn Rand’s objectivism. Augustine’s doctrine of sin. A social contract with the crew.

Question 9. Question : For the CO to consider what the crew as a whole would want for handling the situation involves what kind of ethics? Sphere of influence Utilitarian ethics Majority thinking The principle of equity Care-based ethics

Question 10. Question : A decision to ask the injured seaman what he wants to happen is what kind of ethics? Care-based ethics The prudent mariner approach Utilitarian ethics The ethics of self-interest The CO’s duty

DeVry ETHC 445 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2017

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1. Question

: Inductive reasoning falls into fallacy when which of the following happens? Hasty generalizations are made One tries to deduce a conclusion from false premises One has a large enough sample set of data on which to base inductions Data cannot support the claims made for the logical reasoning One tries to work out syllogisms

Question 2.

Question : A car salesman says this, in order to get you to buy a new car from him: “Buddy! You gotta buy this car. You’ve seen how you either need to drive one of these or take the bus!” This type of faulty logic is an example of _____. circumlocution the ad hominem argument hasty generalization fallacy the straw man fallacy appeal to emotions

Question 3

. Question : Do you have only a few select friends or a large circle of friends? What fallacy is operating here? Straw man Appeal to fear Ad hominem False dilemma Questionable statistics

Question 4.

Question : All those old people are cheap. They never give me a fair tip when I park their cars in the valet parking lot. What kind of fallacy is operating here? Straw man Appeal to fear Hasty generalization Questionable statistics Slippery slope

Question 5.

Question : Measuring our country’s health by measuring the consumption of petroleum is like measuring a person’s health my how much medical care he or she buys. What kind of fallacy is operating here? Hasty generalization Questionable statistics False analogy Invalid in form Confusing assumptions with facts

DeVry ETHC 445 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2017

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Question 1.

Question : Which of the below behaviors are inappropriate in a course? Posting a racist comment in the threads TYPING IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS IN THE THREADS Typing posts that contain poor grammar, spelling, and no punctuation, requiring others to guess at the meaning Postings such as this: “Can you use spell-check or proofread, or are you just too stupid?” All of the above

Question 2.

Question : Ethics involves issues of right and wrong, and emotionally charged issues and ideas; thus, the best way to ensure that my comments are taken in the way I mean them is to _____. generalize ideas about the racial or ethnic groups which display them consider the impact they may have on those who are different than me sit quietly in the corner of the discussions and hope that others will not ask for my input assume that other students will value what I value assume that the instructor will value everything I say or imply

Question 3.

Question : Posting in the course’s threaded discussions is an essential element in our online, asynchronous classroom. Which of the following is not an example of value-adding posting? Bringing an item that has been researched on the Internet with a quote and website link Simply bringing an opinion statement to the discussion with a phrase like, “Well, I think . . .” (Unsupported opinion) Adding wisdom to a discussion from your personal background or expertise Asking for clarification of the meaning of another student’s post Writing a response to another student’s post by name

Question 4.
Question : Which of the following is the most appropriate response for a student to post to another student who has posted this: WHAT IS WRONG WITH ALL OF YOU? YOU ARE AS STUPID AS A BOX OF ROCKS! Answer the post very directly and with capital letters for effect. Send an e-mail to that student to correct him or her. Post an equally strong rebuttal. Complain offline to your Student Advisor. Ignore this and allow your instructor to handle it – either directly with the offender or through Student Services.

Question 5.

Question : Choose from the following choices the way in which collegiality is expressed in our course. A certain tolerance for anger and expressions of it in posts Ignoring the good wisdom that students with particular knowledge bring to the discussions Behaving carefully so as to not cause offense to other students or quickly take offense at others Accusing other students of their biases and preconceptions Stating strong opinions and expecting others to follow suit

Monday, 24 April 2017

Test Bank Of Biochemistry 8th Edition by Berg

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Chapter 1   Biochemistry: An Evolving Science

Multiple-Choice Questions
1)         DNA is made from the building blocks adenine, guanine, cytosine and _____.

  1. A) uridine
  2. B) thymine
  3. C) inosine
  4. D) ribose
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: B
Section:  1.2


2)         The DNA backbone is made from repeating _____.

  1. A) monosaccharide units
  2. B) amino acid units
  3. C) sugar-phosphate units
  4. D) fatty acid
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: C
Section:  1.2


3)         The number of hydrogen bonds formed between A and T is _____.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 2 if in DNA, 3 if in RNA

Answer: B
Section:  1.2


4)         The number of hydrogen bonds formed between G and C is _____.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 2 if in RNA, 3 if in DNA

Answer: C
Section:  1.2


5)         The fundamental groups of organisms include Eukarya, Bacteria, and _____.

  1. A) Plantae
  2. B) Animalia
  3. C) Protista
  4. D) Archaea
  5. E) Fungi

Answer: D
Section:  1.1


6)         Which of the following are the strongest bonds in molecules?

  1. A) covalent bonds
  2. B) ionic bonds
  3. C) hydrogen bonds
  4. D) metallic bonds
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: A
Section:  1.1


7)         Which of the following describes the relationship between the strengths of hydrogen and covalent bonds?

  1. A) Hydrogen bonds are always stronger than covalent bonds.
  2. B) Hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds have equivalent strength.
  3. C) Hydrogen bonds are always weaker than covalent bonds.
  4. D) With a few exceptions, most hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds.
  5. E) With a few exceptions, most covalent bonds are stronger than hydrogen bonds.

Answer: C
Section:  1.3


8)         The matter within a defined region of space is referred to as the _____.

  1. A) universe
  2. B) system
  3. C) outer space
  4. D) wormhole
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: B
Section:  1.3


9)         For a spontaneous reaction, the DG must be _____.

  1. A) positive
  2. B) negative
  3. C) greater than 1
  4. D) between 1 and 0
  5. E) 0

Answer: B
Section:  1.3


10)       The term _____ is used to indicate Gibbs free energy.

  1. A) DH
  2. B) DE
  3. C) DS
  4. D) DG
  5. E) DT

Answer: D
Section:  1.3



11)       Which of the following is considered a metabolite, a substance that is chemically transformed in a biochemical process?

  1. A) deoxyribonucleic acid
  2. B) glycerol
  3. C) protein
  4. D) ribonucleic acid
  5. E) polysaccharide

Ans:   B
Section: 1.1


12)       The structure of DNA described by Watson and Crick included

  1. A) a double helix.
  2. B) the sugar phosphate backbone aligned in the center of the helix.
  3. C) the base pairs that are stacked on the inside of the double helix.
  4. D) both a double helix and the sugar phosphate backbone aligned in the center of the helix
  5. E) a double helix and the base pairs that are stacked on the inside of the double helix

Ans:  E
Section:  1.2

13)       What did Watson and Crick suggest to be significant about the base pairing found in the helix?

  1. A) It allowed the DNA to twist in a helix.
  2. B) The DNA could be circular.
  3. C) It was a mechanism for copying.
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  C
Section:  1.3

14)       Approximately what percentage of the human genome encodes proteins?

  1. A) 50%
  2. B) 90%
  3. C) 20%
  4. D) 3%
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  D
Section: 1.4

15)       What gives proteins such a dominant role in biochemistry?

  1. A) the rigidity of the peptide backbone
  2. B) the ability to act as a blueprint
  3. C) the ability to self-replicate
  4. D) the ability to spontaneously fold into complex three-dimensional structures
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Ans:  D
Section:  1.4

16)       If the whole chain is used in a nonoverlapping frame, how many amino acids are defined by this DNA sequence: ATGTTTGGACTA?
  1. A) two B) three  C) four  D) six     E) twelve
Ans:  C     Section:  1.4

17)       What is the [H+] concentration in a urine sample that has a pH of 6?

  1. A) 10–6 M
  2. B) 10–8 M
  3. C) 106 M
  4. D) 10–14 M
  5. E) 6 M

Ans:  A
Section 1.3

18)       Which is the correct order of decreasing bond strengths?

  1. A) hydrogen bonds, covalent bonds, van der Waals interactions
  2. B) hydrogen bonds, electrostatic interactions, covalent bonds
  3. C) van der Waals interactions, covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds
  4. D) covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds, van der Waals interactions
  5. E) hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic interactions

Ans:  D
Section:  1.3

19)       The energies for hydrogen bonds are approximately

  1. A) 400 kJ mol–1.
  2. B) 100–240 kJ mol–1.
  3. C) 4–20 kJ mol–1.
  4. D) 200 kJ mol–1.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  C
Section:  1.3

20)       Which of the following is a hydrogen bond donor?

  1. A) the N in N—H D
  2. B) the H in S—H
  3. C) the O in P—O
  4. D) the H in O—H
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  D
Section:  1.3

21)       Typical van der Waals energies are about

  1. A) 4–20 kJ mol–1.
  2. B) 2–4 kJ mol–1.
  3. C) 200 kJ mol–1.
  4. D) 500–1000 kJ mol–1.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  B
Section:  1.3

22)       What two properties of water are important for biological interactions?

  1. A) the polarity of water
  2. B) the density of water
  3. C) the cohesive properties of water
  4. D) the polarity of water and the cohesive properties of water
  5. E) the density of water and the cohesive properties of water

Ans:  D
Section:  1.3

23)       The First Law of Thermodynamics states

  1. A) diversity is the result of gradual evolution.
  2. B) the total entropy of a system and its surroundings always increases for a spontaneous
process.
  1. C) the total energy of a system and its surroundings is constant.
  2. D) light is both particle and wave.
  3. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  C
Section:  1.3

24)       The Second Law of Thermodynamics states

  1. A) the total entropy of a system and its surroundings always increases for a spontaneous
process.
  1. B) temperatures will always decrease in a spontaneous process.
  2. C) the total energy of a system and its surroundings is constant.
  3. D) diversity is the result of gradual evolution.
  4. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  A
Section:  1.3

25)       Which of the following atoms commonly found in biological molecules are often hydrogen-bond acceptors?

  1. A) carbon
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.
  5. E) oxygen and nitrogen

Ans:  E
Section:  1.3

26)       Entropy is defined as

  1. A) a spontaneous reaction.
  2. B) the enthalpy of the system.
  3. C) the measure of randomness of a system.
  4. D) the amount of heat exchanged.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  C
Section:  1.3

27) If a particular reaction has a negative DG, is it likely to occur?

  1. A) Not unless energy is added to the system
  2. B) Yes, if it is coupled to another reaction
  3. C) Yes, it is spontaneous.
  4. D) No, it is not spontaneous.
  5. E) Yes, as long as the temperature increases

Ans:  C
Section:  1.3

28)       What happens to nonpolar molecules in water?

  1. A) They dissolve independently.
  2. B) They aggregate together.
  3. C) They precipitate.
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  B
Section:  1.3

29)       What is the [A]/[HA] ratio when a weak acid is in a solution one pH unit below its pKa?

  1. A) 1:1
  2. B) 1:10
  3. C) 10:1
  4. D) 2:1
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  B
Section 1.3

30)       Why does DNA denature when the pH is raised above 9?

  1. A) Protons dissociate from guanine bases disrupting the hydrogen bonding to the other strand.
  2. B) Protons bind to guanine residues giving them additional positive charges which disrupt the hydrogen bonding to the other strand.
  3. C) Protons bind to functional groups that serve as hydrogen-bond acceptors, thus disrupting the hydrogen bonding to the other strand.
  4. D) Protons dissociate from the phosphate groups in the backbone, which disrupts the hydrogen-bonding pattern between strands.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  A
Section 1.3

31)       The simplest way to depict stereochemistry is to use

  1. A) ball-and-stick models.
  2. B) ribbon diagrams.
  3. C) space-filling models.
  4. D) Fisher projections.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  D
Section:  Appendix

32)       Using the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation, calculate the pH of a buffer solution made from 0.20 M CH3COOH and 0.050 M CH3COO that has pKa= 4.7.

  1. A) 3
  2. B) 1
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 4
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Ans:  B
Section 1.3

33)       What are the primary chemical components present in a phosphate buffer at pH 7.4?

  1. A) H3PO4 and PO43–
  2. B) H2PO4 and PO43–
  3. C) HPO42– and PO43–
  4. D) H2PO4 and HPO42–
  5. E) H3PO4 and HPO42–

Ans:  D
Section 1.3


Short-Answer Questions

34)       What are some of the medical implications of the human genome project?
Ans:     The obvious use is in diagnosing disease and in developing methods to treat and cure diseases. Physicians will be able to account for individual genetic differences in determining the best medical treatment. Other answers may be correct.
Section:  Introduction

35)       What is the significance of hydrogen bonding in biochemical structures such as DNA?
Ans:     The bonds are weak enough to be easily disrupted; yet when many are present, they provide the stabilization necessary for larger structures such as DNA.
Section:  1.2

36)       Describe resonance structures.
Ans:     Resonance structures are ways of writing covalent bonds in which two or more alternate bonding patterns can be achieved. This is due to the sharing of electrons over several atoms. Common examples are found in peptide bonds, and in some of the DNA/RNA bases. Adenine is shown in the text.
Section:  1.3

37)       What is significant about the fact that metabolic processes are common to many organisms?
Ans:     These metabolic processes are extremely old, geologically, originating in a common ancestor.
Section:  1.1

38)       How is water able to be a solvent for so many biological molecules?
Ans:     Many biological molecules have polar characteristics. Water is extremely polar and is capable of competing with other polar molecules by weakening their electrostatic and hydrogen bonds. The oxygen atom can act as a hydrogen-bond acceptor, and the hydrogen can act as a donor.
Section:  1.3

39)       What is the net effect of many van der Waals interactions?
Ans:     At the interface of two large molecules, the numerous van der Waals interactions can substantially affect and stabilize the interaction.
Section:  1.3

40)       If most proteins are found surrounded by water in the cell, what type of functional groups would you expect to find on the surface of a water-soluble protein?
Ans:     Polar and charged amino-acid residues would be present on the surface of the protein.
Section:  1.3

41)       How are electrostatic forces used in protein folding?
Ans:     The attraction of two oppositely charged functional groups would be one of the forces helping to form the three-dimensional shape of the protein.
Section:  1.3

42)       If the First Law of Thermodynamics is true, how can biological processes be carried out?
Ans:     Although energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can take on different forms, such as heat or chemical energy. Thus, the energy can be stored as chemical bond energy, which can be used to do work.
Section:  1.3

43)       How can a cell exist if the Second Law of Thermodynamics is true?
Ans:     Entropy in a local area can be decreased, but only at the expense of increased entropy in the larger area, or universe.
Section:  1.3

44)       Provide a simple example of a process in which the entropy of a system changes.
Ans:     Several examples can be provided, including the random mixture of atoms when two different gases are mixed, or the creation of water molecules from energy gained following the mixture of oxygen and hydrogen under certain conditions.
Section:  1.3

45)       When solutions containing complementary single strands of DNA are mixed, a loss of entropy occurs. How is it that the Second Law of Thermodynamics is not violated?
Ans:     Heat must be released to the surroundings.
Section:  1.3

46)       What is the significance of using DG in biochemistry?
Ans:     Gibbs free energy, also called the free-energy change, is used to describe the energetics of a reaction. This symbol is used to determine if particular reactions will be spontaneous or biologically feasible.
Section:  1.3

47)       What thermodynamic and free-energy changes participate in protein folding?
Ans:     A combination of hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces affect enthalpy and the entropy associated with hydrophobic interactions.
Section:  1.3

48)       How do hydrophobic interactions aid in protein folding?
Ans:     Hydrophobic interactions cause some nonpolar amino acids to aggregate and form the interior of the protein. This results in a net release of heat and a favorable change in the system enthalpy.
Section:  1.4

49)       What are the enthalpy and entropy changes that accompany the formation of DNA double helices from complementary single strands of DNA?
Ans:     There is a loss of entropy from the system because there are fewer degrees of freedom in the double helix as compared to the single strands.  Therefore, heat must be released when the two strands combine to form the double helix so as not to violate the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
Section: 1.3

50)       Describe the shape of methane.
Ans:     Methane is tetrahedral, with bond angles of about 109°.
Section:  Appendix