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Chapter 1: Thinking Like
an Astronomer
Learning Objectives
1.1 Earth Occupies a Small Place in the Universe
Define the bold-faced vocabulary terms within the chapter.
Multiple Choice: 1, 9, 14, 21, 29, 31, 36, 37, 40, 42, 43, 44
Short Answer:
List our cosmic address.
Multiple Choice: 22
Short Answer:
Differentiate the various components of our cosmic address.
Multiple Choice: 2, 6, 23
Short Answer:
Relate the different sizes of, or the different distances
between, the components of our cosmic address.
Multiple Choice: 10, 11, 15, 24, 25
Short Answer:
Relate astronomical distances with light-travel time.
Multiple Choice: 4, 7, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 26, 27, 28
Short Answer: Illustrate the size or history of the universe
with scaled models.
Multiple Choice: 3, 5, 8, 12, 13
Short Answer: 1.2 Science Is a Way of
Viewing the Universe
Compare the everyday and scientific meanings of theory.
Multiple Choice: 33, 35, 39
Short Answer: Compare an idea with
a hypothesis.
Multiple Choice: 32, 34
Short Answer: Describe the steps of the scientific method.
Multiple Choice: 38, 41
Short Answer: Assess whether a given idea or explanation is
scientific.
Multiple Choice: 45, 46
Short Answer: Establish why all scientific knowledge is
provisional.
Multiple Choice: 30
Short Answer: 1.3 Astronomers Use
Mathematics to Find Patterns
Identify patterns in nature.
Multiple Choice: 47, 48, 51
Short Answer: Summarize the evidence for the statement “We
are actually made of recycled stardust.”
Multiple Choice: 50, 52, 54
Short Answer: Identify fields of science that relate to the
study of origins.
Multiple Choice: 53
Short Answer: Working It Out 1.1
Write numbers in both scientific and standard notation.
Multiple Choice: 49, 55, 57, 58, 68
Describe characteristics of real-world objects in terms of
ratios.
Multiple Choice: 56, 59, 60
Determine the mathematical behavior of proportional systems.
Multiple Choice: 61, 62, 63, 64
Working It Out 1.2
Identify the x and y axes on a graph.
Define slope on a graph.
Read data from linear and logarithmic graphs.
Multiple Choice: 65, 66, 69, 70
Distinguish between linear and exponential curves on a graph.
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1.
The word astronomy means
a.
“patterns among the stars.”
b.
“to study the stars.”
c.
“discovering the universe.”
d.
“the movement of the stars.”
e.
“personality traits set by the stars.”
2.
The number of planets in our Solar System is
a.
six.
b.
eight.
c.
nine.
d.
twelve.
3.
According to the figure below, Earth is located approximately
a.
at the center of the Milky Way.
b.
near the center of the Milky Way.
c.
about halfway out from the center of the Milky Way.
d.
at the farthest outskirts of the Milky Way.
e.
outside the Milky Way, which is why we can see it as a band
across the night sky.
4.
The average distance between Earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 1011 m, and
light from the Sun takes approximately _________ to reach Earth.
a.
8 seconds
b.
8 minutes
c.
8 hours
d.
8 days
e.
8 years
5.
Our universe is approximately 13.7 _________ years old.
a.
thousand
b.
million
c.
billion
d.
trillion
6.
Milky Way is the name of
a.
our solar system.
b.
the galaxy in which we live.
c.
the local group of galaxies we are in.
d.
the supercluster of galaxies we are in.
7.
One of the nearest stars is Alpha Centauri, whose distance is
4.4 light-years. The time it takes light to travel from Alpha Centauri to us is
a.
1.25 seconds.
b.
8.3 minutes.
c.
4.4 years.
d.
600 years.
8.
The time it takes light to cross Neptune’s orbit is closest
to which of the following?
a.
a second
b.
a quick meal
c.
a night’s sleep
d.
the time between presidential elections
9.
A light-hour is a measure of
a.
time.
b.
distance.
c.
speed.
d.
acceleration.
10.
If one thinks about the distance between Earth and the Moon,
384,400 km, approximately how much of that distance would Saturn and its rings
take up?
a.
much more than this distance
b.
less than half this distance
c.
more than half this distance
d.
exactly equal to this distance
11.
The diameter of the Moon is
a.
larger than the distance across the continental United
States.
b.
roughly equal to the longest distance across Texas.
c.
more than half the distance across the continental United
States.
d.
less than half the distance across the continental United
States.
12.
The early universe was composed mainly of which two elements?
a.
hydrogen and helium
b.
carbon and oxygen
c.
hydrogen and oxygen
d.
carbon and iron
e.
nitrogen and oxygen
13.
What is the approximate number of stars in the Milky Way?
a.
10 million
b.
300 million
c.
10 billion
d.
300 billion
e.
1 trillion
14.
The Local Group is the environment around
a.
the Earth-Moon system.
b.
the Sun that contains about a dozen stars.
c.
the Sun that contains over a million stars.
d.
the Milky Way that contains a few dozen galaxies.
e.
the Milky Way that contains a few thousand galaxies.
15.
The majority of the mass in our universe is made up of
a.
planets.
b.
stars.
c.
galaxies.
d.
dust.
e.
dark matter.
16.
The speed of light is approximately
a.
3,000 km/s.
b.
30,000 km/s.
c.
300,000 km/s.
d.
3 million km/s.
e.
3 billion km/s.
17.
If an event were to take place on the Sun, how long would it
take for the light it generates to reach us?
a.
8 minutes
b.
11 hours
c.
1 second
d.
1 day
e.
It would reach us instantaneously.
18.
One of the nearest stars is Alpha Centauri, whose distance is
4.2 × 1016 m. How
long does it take light to travel from Alpha Centauri to us?
a.
1.25 seconds
b.
8.3 minutes
c.
4.4 years
d.
560 years
e.
6,200 years
19.
The distance to the nearest large spiral galaxy, the
Andromeda Galaxy, is 2.4 ×
1022 m. How long does it take light to travel from
Andromeda to us?
a.
4.4 years
b.
360 years
c.
1.2 thousand years
d.
2.5 million years
e.
4.5 billion years
20.
The distance to the center of the Laniakea cluster of
galaxies is 5 ×
1023 m. How long does it take light to travel from these
galaxies to us?
a.
7,000 years
b.
54,000 years
c.
120,000 years
d.
12 million years
e.
54 million years
21.
A light-year is a unit commonly used in astronomy as a
measure of
a.
time.
b.
speed.
c.
mass.
d.
distance.
e.
acceleration.
22.
According to the figure below, if you were to specify your
address in the universe, listing your membership from the smallest to largest
physical structures, it would be
a.
Earth, Local Group, Solar System, Andromeda, the universe.
b.
Earth, Solar System, Local Group, Milky Way, the universe.
c.
Earth, Solar System, Milky Way, Local Group, Laniakea
Supercluster, the universe.
d.
Earth, Solar System, Milky Way, Laniakea Supercluster, the
universe.
e.
Earth, Laniakea Supercluster, Milky Way, Solar System, the
universe.
23.
Which of the following is false?
a.
The Local Group is a member of the Laniakea Supercluster,
which contains thousands of galaxies.
b.
The Local Group contains two large spiral galaxies and a few
dozen dwarf galaxies.
c.
Our Solar System has eight classical planets.
d.
The Milky Way Galaxy contains approximately 100 million
stars.
e.
The Laniakea Supercluster is one of many superclusters in the
universe.
24.
If the diameter of the Milky Way is approximately 100,000
light-years, then our galaxy is _________ times larger than our Solar System.
For reference, Pluto’s orbit has an approximate diameter of 80 astronomical
units (AU).
a.
100
b.
1,000
c.
10,000
d.
106
e.
108
25.
The majority of the energy in our universe is
a.
radiated by stars from the nuclear fusion going on in their
cores.
b.
the kinetic energy found in the collisions of galaxies.
c.
the gravitational potential energy of superclusters.
d.
emitted in radioactive decays of unstable elements.
e.
made up of dark energy that permeates space.
26.
After the Sun, the next nearest star to us is approximately
_________ away.
a.
8 light-seconds
b.
80 light-minutes
c.
40 light-hours
d.
4 light-years
e.
200 light-years
27.
The figure below measures distances in the amount of time it
takes light to travel. If the circumference of Earth is a snap of your fingers
(1/7 second), the diameter of the Solar System is approximately equal to
a.
the length of a quick lunch.
b.
the time to turn a page in a book.
c.
the length of the work day.
d.
the time you spent in high school.
e.
a human lifetime.
28.
If you compared the diameter of Earth, which is 13,000 km, to
1 second, then what unit of time would be equivalent to the size of the Milky
Way, whose diameter is 1021 m, and what significant
milestone would this time correspond to in our evolution?
a.
2 million years, the length of time humans have existed on
Earth
b.
30,000 years, the length of time humans have lived in North
America
c.
400 years, the length of time humans have been exploring the
skies with telescopes
d.
4 billion years, the age of the Solar System
e.
14 billion years, the age of the universe
29.
_________ is the idea that the simplest explanation for a
phenomenon is usually the correct one.
a.
Newton’s hypothesis
b.
Occam’s razor
c.
Aristotle’s test
d.
Einstein’s excuse
e.
The Copernican principle
30.
A scientific theory can be shown to be wrong if
a.
cultural beliefs evolve to contradict it.
b.
scientists gather new data that contradict its predictions.
c.
it cannot explain all phenomena.
d.
it was first proposed as a conjecture.
e.
a majority of people do not accept it.
31.
Albert Einstein is best known for his revolutionary theory of
a.
relativity.
b.
quantum mechanics.
c.
astronomy.
d.
electricity.
e.
mathematics.
32.
In science an idea that cannot be tested is
a.
a hypothesis.
b.
not a scientific idea.
c.
a theory.
d.
a principle.
33.
A theory is
a.
tied to known physical laws.
b.
able to make testable predictions.
c.
a hypothesis that has withstood many attempts to falsify it.
d.
all of the above
34.
A hypothesis is an idea that is
a.
falsifiable with current technology only.
b.
potentially falsifiable with future technology.
c.
not falsifiable.
d.
both a and b
35.
A hypothesis may become a theory
a.
after many repeated attempts to falsify it fail.
b.
if a majority of scientists agree on its propositions.
c.
after it has been logically proved.
d.
if it makes at least one verifiable prediction.
36.
A theoretical model is
a.
a made-up explanation.
b.
a detailed description in terms of known physical laws or
theories.
c.
a testable assumption.
d.
a scientific law.
37.
A scientific principle is
a.
a scientific law.
b.
a detailed description in terms of known physical laws or
theories.
c.
a general idea or sense about the universe.
d.
a testable statement.
38.
In the scientific method, if an observation does not support
the hypothesis, what possible actions should happen next?
a.
Make additional predictions.
b.
Make more observations.
c.
Choose a new hypothesis or revise the current one.
d.
Both b and c
39.
Which of the following is false?
a.
A scientific theory is an undisputed fact.
b.
If continual testing of a hypothesis shows it to be valid, it
may become an accepted theory.
c.
A hypothesis must always have one or more testable
predictions.
d.
A scientific theory may eventually be proven wrong when
scientists acquire new data.
e.
Scientific observations are used to test a hypothesis.
40.
The scientific method is a process by which scientists
a.
prove theories to be known facts.
b.
gain confidence in theories by failing to prove them wrong.
c.
show all theories to be wrong.
d.
test the ideas of Aristotle.
e.
survey what the majority of people think about a theory.
41.
A _________ becomes a _________ when repeated testing of its
predictions does not disprove it.
a.
hypothesis; scientific method
b.
theory; scientific revolution
c.
phenomenon; theory
d.
hypothesis; theory
e.
law; theory
42.
The cosmological principle states that
a.
the universe is expanding in all directions at the same rate.
b.
a unique center of the universe exists.
c.
the universe looks the same everywhere and in all directions
as long as you look on large enough spatial scales.
d.
physical laws change from place to place in the universe.
e.
the universe is in a “steady state.”
43.
Because of _____________, we can conclude that gravity works
the same way on Earth as it does on Mars.
a.
Newton’s theory of relativity
b.
Einstein’s special theory of relativity
c.
Sagan’s planetary principle
d.
the cosmological principle
e.
the hypothetical statute
44.
If you have a stuffy nose, a fever, chills, and body aches
and a doctor treats you for the flu rather than four separate diseases that
account for each of your symptoms, this is an application of
a.
Newton’s hypothesis
b.
Occam’s razor
c.
Aristotle’s test
d.
Einstein’s relativity
e.
Copernican principle
45.
One of the central assumptions in astronomy is that the
physical laws of nature
a.
change when objects move at high speed.
b.
change throughout the age of the universe.
c.
depend on the mass of the objects involved.
d.
are the same everywhere in the universe.
46.
The statement “our universe is but one of a multitude of
isolated universes” is best characterized as a
a.
speculative but unscientific idea because it is not testable
and therefore not falsifiable.
b.
scientific fact.
c.
physical law.
d.
hypothesis that is currently being tested.
47.
The language of science is
a.
Greek
b.
mathematics
c.
calculus
d.
Java
e.
Latin
48.
When you see a pattern in nature, it is usually evidence of
a.
a theory being displayed.
b.
quantum mechanics in action.
c.
a breakdown of random clustering.
d.
an underlying physical law.
e.
A decrease in entropy.
49.
Scientific notation is used in astronomy primarily because it
allows us to
a.
write very large and very small numbers in a convenient way.
b.
talk about science in an easy way.
c.
change easy calculations into hard calculations.
d.
change hard calculations into easy calculations.
e.
explain science to engineers.
50.
Which is an important element in the composition of your body
that was produced by nuclear fusion inside a star or an explosion of a star?
a.
iron
b.
calcium
c.
oxygen
d.
carbon
e.
all of the above
51.
The figure below shows the night sky as it appears for an
observer in the United States at the same time of the night but at four
different seasons of the year. Which conclusion below is not
reasonable based on these observations?
a.
Constellations do not change their location relative to one
another, but which constellations appear in the night sky does change from
season to season.
b.
There are some constellations such as Ursa Minor, Ursa Major,
Cassiopeia, and Cephus that are always seen in the night sky.
c.
Some constellations such as Capricornus and Sagittarius are
only visible during summer and fall.
d.
A good time to harvest crops would be when the constellation
Pegasus is directly overhead.
e.
A good time to plant crops would be when the constellation
Sagittarius is directly overhead.
52.
Which presently observed element or isotope was not produced in appreciable amounts in the very early
universe shortly after the Big Bang?
a.
hydrogen
b.
helium-4
c.
deuterium
d.
carbon
e.
helium-3
53.
The study of whether or not life exists elsewhere in the
Solar System and beyond is called
a.
origins.
b.
biochemistry.
c.
cosmology.
d.
astrobiology.
e.
exoplanetology.
54.
The most massive elements such as those that make up
terrestrial planets like Earth were formed
a.
in the early universe.
b.
inside stars and supernovae.
c.
through meteor collisions.
d.
in the core of Earth.
e.
during the formation of the Solar System.
55.
The number 123,000 written in scientific notation is
a.
1.23 ×
106
b.
1.23 ×
105
c.
1.23 ×
103
d.
1.23 ×
10–6
e.
1.23 ×
103
56.
If the radius of circle B is twice
the radius of circle A, and the area of a circle is
proportional to the radius squared (A ∝
r2), then the ratio of the
area of circle B to that of circle A is
a.
4.
b.
0.5.
c.
0.25.
d.
2.
e.
1.414.
57.
(6 ×
105) ×
(3 × 10–2) =
a.
1.8 ×
103
b.
1.8 ×
104
c.
1.8 ×
106
d.
1.8 ×
108
e.
1.8 ×
10-3
58.
(1.2 ×
109 ) ÷
(4 × 10–3) =
a.
3 ×
106
b.
3 ×
105
c.
3 ×
1010
d.
3 ×
1011
e.
3 ×
1012
59.
If the radius of circle B is 5
times the radius of circle A, then the ratio of the
area of circle B to that of circle A is
a.
25.
b.
5.
c.
0.2.
d.
0.04.
e.
0.025.
60.
If the radius of sphere B is 5
times the radius of sphere A, then the ratio of the
volume of sphere B to the volume of sphere A is
a.
0.008.
b.
0.2.
c.
5.
d.
25.
e.
125.
61.
The area of a circle is related to its diameter by the
formula 
. Using algebra to solve for D, we find that
. Using algebra to solve for D, we find that
a.
.
.
b.
.
.
c.
.
.
d.
.
.
e.
.
.
62.
The volume of a sphere is related to its radius by the
formula 
. Using algebra to solve for R, we get
. Using algebra to solve for R, we get
a.
.
.
b.
.
.
c.
.
.
d.
.
.
e.
.
.
63.
If the speed of light is 3 ×
105 km/s and 1 km =
0.62 mile, what is the speed of light in miles per hour (mph)?
a.
670 million mph
b.
670 thousand mph
c.
186 mph
d.
186 thousand mph
e.
3.2 billion mph
64.
The orbital period of Mercury is 88 days. What is its orbital
period in units of seconds?
a.
76000 seconds
b.
7.6 million seconds
c.
7.6 billion seconds
d.
760 billion seconds
e.
76 million seconds
65.
At a time step of 10 shown in the figure below, how many
viruses are there?
a.
500
b.
1000
c.
1500
d.
2000
66.
Approximately how many viruses are at time step 5 in the
figure below?
a.
10
b.
30
c.
50
d.
90
e.
100
67.
Which graph (a), (b), or (c) in the figures below is a plot
of an exponential behavior?
a.
figure (a)
b.
figure (b)
c.
figure (c)
d.
both a and c
e.
both b and c
68.
The number 1.5 x 104 is:
a.
0.00015
b.
0.0015
c.
1500
d.
15000
e.
150000
69.
What are the units of the vertical axis?
a.
km
b.
hour
c.
km/hour
d.
hour/km
70.
What is the slope of line?
a.
1 km/hour
b.
1 hour/km
c.
10 km/hour
d.
10 hour/km
SHORT ANSWER
1.
What is the only thing that makes the Sun an exceptional star?
2.
Why might the universe
be described as a sort of “time machine”?
.
3.
What is the Local
Group?
4.
Describe how talking
about time can give us a feeling for distance.
5.
Suppose you were
writing to a pen pal in another universe. What address would you put on the
envelope that included all the major structures in which we reside? (Hint: Your
cosmic address should begin with “Earth” and end with “the universe.”)
6.
What would you say to
someone who said, “It would take light-years to get to the Andromeda Galaxy”?
7.
If you compare the
diameter of Earth to 1 minute of time, then what interval of time would
represent the diameter of the Solar System? Assume the diameter of the Solar
System is approximately 80 AU.
8.
Using the method of
comparing times to get a handle on the large distances in astronomy, compare
the size of Earth to the size of the visible universe. Start by making the size
of Earth comparable to a snap of your fingers, which lasts about 1/7 second.
Show your computation.
9.
Using the method of
comparing distances to time intervals to get a handle on the large distances in
astronomy, compare the diameter of our Solar System, which is 6 × 1012, to the diameter of the galaxy, which is 1.2 × 1021, by calculating the time it would take for light to travel
these diameters. For reference, the speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s.
10.
What implication does
the finite speed of light have on what we observe in the universe?
11.
Describe the two main
aspects of the cosmological principle.
12.
What makes an idea a
hypothesis?
13.
Why is the statement
“The Big Bang was caused by a collision between other universes” not
scientific?
14.
An observation does not
support your hypothesis. What do you do next?
15.
Before 2014 the
supercluster we resided in was called the Virgo Supercluster. Based on a new
way of classifying superclusters we are now a member of the Laniakea
Supercluster. What is this change an example of?
16.
What accounts for 95
percent of the mass of the universe?
17.
What is a theoretical
model?
18.
In pre-Renaissance
times, it was believed that celestial objects were made of a different
substance than Earth and obeyed different rules. Which modern scientific
principle is a better description of the universe?
19.
Why does a theory that
continues to be supported by the results of experimental tests need further
tests?
20.
Describe the main steps
involved in the scientific method.
21.
What two
pre-Renaissance beliefs are contradicted by the cosmological principle?
.
22.
Describe two ways in
which Einstein’s new theories changed commonly accepted scientific views of his
time.
23.
How would you respond
to someone who stated that “Evolution is not proven; it is just a theory”?
24.
There are many
different areas of science, but a common factor in each is the evaluation and
analysis of patterns. What patterns does astronomy deal with? (Describe it in
general and give at least one concrete example.)
25.
An observed pattern in
nature is usually a sign of some underlying physical reason. Give an example of
this in astronomy, citing the pattern and the reason behind it.
26.
It is often said that
“mathematics is the language of science.” Explain why this is true.
27.
If the elements that
make up Earth and our bodies were not present in the early universe, where did
they come from?
28.
What is the field of
science that relates to the study of origin of life?
29.
Describe briefly why
the phrase “we are stardust” is literally true.
30.
Life as we know it
requires the heavy elements made in stars. Could life as we know it have
existed when the first stars in the universe formed?
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Chapter
2: Patterns in the Sky—Motions of Earth and the Moon
Learning Objectives
Define the bold-faced vocabulary terms within the chapter.
Multiple Choice: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 26, 44, 50, 64, 69
Short Answer: 2.1 Earth Spins on Its Axis
Identify the locations of the north celestial pole, south
celestial pole, celestial equator, zenith, meridian, and horizon on the
celestial sphere.
Multiple Choice: 2, 8, 14
Short Answer: Show the path that a star follows on the sky,
from the time it rises until it sets.
Multiple Choice: 9, 15, 16
Short Answer: Illustrate how the motion and visibility of
stars change with the one’s location on Earth.
Multiple Choice: 33, 34
Short Answer: Demonstrate how knowledge of the sky permits
one to know latitude and direction on Earth.
Multiple Choice: 7, 11, 12, 13
Short Answer:
Illustrate how one event will look in two different frames of
reference.
Short Answer:
2.2 Revolution around the Sun Leads to Changes during the
Year
Identify the path of the ecliptic, the solstices, and the
equinoxes on the celestial sphere.
Multiple Choice: 17, 19
Short Answer:
Relate Earth’s position around the Sun to the zodiacal
constellations we observe in the night-time sky.
Multiple Choice: 18, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41
Explain why Earth’s axial tilt causes seasons.
Multiple Choice: 20, 21, 24, 25, 29, 30, 31, 35, 42
Short Answer:
Illustrate how the height of the Sun and the length of a day
vary with the season and your latitude.
Multiple Choice: 22, 23, 27, 28, 32
Short Answer: 2.3 The Moon’s Appearance
Changes as It Orbits Earth
Define the phases of the moon.
Multiple Choice: 45
Short Answer:
Explain what causes us to observe moon phases.
Multiple Choice: 47, 48, 49, 52
Short Answer:
Illustrate the Sun-Moon-Earth geometry needed to produce each
Moon phase.
Multiple Choice: 43, 46, 51, 53, 54
Short Answer: 2.4 Calendars Are Based on the
Day, Month, and Year
Compare and contrast solar and lunar calendars.
Multiple Choice: 58
Short Answer: Illustrate the need for our current pattern of
leap years.
Multiple Choice: 55, 56, 57
2.5 Eclipses Result from the Alignment of Earth, Moon, and
the Sun
Illustrate the Sun-Moon-Earth geometries needed to produce
solar and lunar eclipses.
Multiple Choice: 59, 60, 61, 62, 68, 70
Short Answer: Relate the geometry of solar and lunar eclipses
to their visibility across Earth.
Multiple Choice: 63, 65, 66, 67
Short Answer: Working It Out 2.1
Use proportional reasoning to estimate a characteristic of
the whole based on measurement of a part.
Short Answer: MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
There are _________ constellations in the entire sky.
a.
12
b.
13
c.
88
d.
hundreds of
e.
thousands of
2.
What defines the location of the equator on Earth?
a.
the axis around which Earth rotates
b.
where the ground is the warmest
c.
the tilt of Earth’s rotational axis relative to its orbit
around the Sun
d.
the orbit of Earth around the Sun
e.
all of the above
3.
Circumpolar stars are stars that are
a.
always below the horizon.
b.
always on the celestial equator.
c.
always at the north celestial pole.
d.
sometimes above the horizon.
e.
always above the horizon.
4.
The point directly below your feet is called the
a.
meridian.
b.
celestial pole.
c.
nadir.
d.
circumpolar plane.
e.
zenith.
5.
Declination is a measure of a star’s location relative to
a.
zenith.
b.
ecliptic.
c.
nadir.
d.
celestial equator.
e.
line of nodes.
6.
Right ascension is a measure of a star’s location on the
celestial sphere that is most closely similar to which measurement of location
on Earth?
a.
meters
b.
longitude
c.
latitude
d.
degrees
e.
radians
r.
7.
If the star Polaris has an altitude of 35°, then we know that
a.
our longitude is +55°.
b.
our latitude is +55°.
c.
our longitude is −35°.
d.
our longitude is +35°.
e.
our latitude is +35°.
8.
The direction directly overhead of an observer defines his or
her
a.
meridian.
b.
celestial pole.
c.
nadir.
d.
circumpolar plane.
e.
zenith.
9.
No matter where you are on Earth, stars appear to rotate
about a point called the
a.
zenith.
b.
celestial pole.
c.
nadir.
d.
meridian.
e.
equinox.
10.
The apparent path of the Sun across the celestial sphere over
the course of a year is called the
a.
prime meridian.
b.
ecliptic.
c.
circumpolar plane.
d.
celestial equator.
e.
eclipse.
11.
At a latitude of +50°,
how far above the horizon is the north celestial pole located?
a.
0°
b.
40°
c.
50°
d.
90°
e.
It is not visible at that latitude.
12.
At what latitude is the north celestial pole located at your
zenith?
a.
0°
b.
+30°
c.
+60°
d.
+90°
e.
This occurs at every latitude.
13.
At what latitude is the north celestial pole at your horizon?
a.
0°
b.
+30°
c.
+60°
d.
+90°
e.
This can never happen.
14.
The meridian is defined as an imaginary circle on the sky on
which lie the
a.
celestial equator and vernal equinox.
b.
north and south celestial poles.
c.
zenith and the north and south celestial poles.
d.
zenith and east and west directions.
e.
celestial equator and summer solstice.
15.
A friend takes a time-lapse picture of the sky, as shown in
the figure below. What direction must your friend have been facing when the
picture was taken?
a.
north
b.
east
c.
south
d.
west
e.
directly overhead
16.
A friend takes a time-lapse picture of the sky, as shown in
the figure below. What direction must your friend have been facing when the
picture was taken?
a.
north
b.
east
c.
south
d.
west
e.
directly overhead
17.
How far away on average is Earth from the Sun?
a.
1 light-second
b.
1 light-minute
c.
1 astronomical unit
d.
1 light-hour
e.
1 light-year
18.
If you go out at exactly 9 p.m.
each evening over the course of 1 month, the position of a given star will move
westward by tens of degrees. What causes this motion?
a.
Earth’s rotation on its axis
b.
the revolution of Earth around the Sun
c.
the revolution of the Moon around Earth
d.
the revolution of the Sun around Earth
e.
the speed of the star through space
19.
The ecliptic is defined by the motion of _________ in the
sky.
a.
the Moon
b.
the Sun
c.
the planets
d.
Polaris
e.
the stars
20.
When the northern hemisphere experiences fall, the southern
hemisphere experiences
a.
spring.
b.
summer.
c.
fall.
d.
winter.
21.
When the northern hemisphere experiences summer, the southern
hemisphere experiences
a.
spring.
b.
summer.
c.
fall.
d.
winter.
22.
The day with the smallest number of daylight hours over the
course of the year for a person living in the northern hemisphere is the
a.
summer solstice (June 1)
b.
vernal equinox (March 21)
c.
winter solstice (Dec. 22)
d.
autumnal equinox (Sept. 23)
e.
The number of daylight hours is always the same.
23.
On which day of the year does the Sun reach its northernmost
point in the sky?
a.
vernal equinox
b.
summer solstice
c.
autumnal equinox
d.
winter solstice
e.
The sun always reaches the same altitude.
24.
Earth’s rotational axis precesses in space and completes one
revolution every
a.
200 years.
b.
1,800 years.
c.
7,300 years.
d.
26,000 years.
e.
51,000 years.
25.
Which of the following stars will be the North Star in 12,000
years?
a.
Polaris
b.
Deneb
c.
Vega
d.
Thuban
e.
Sirius
26.
The latitude of the Antarctic Circle is
a.
23.5° N.
b.
66.5° N.
c.
23.5° S.
d.
66.5° S.
e.
90° S.
27.
During summer above the Arctic circle
a.
the Moon cannot be seen.
b.
the Sun can always be seen.
c.
the Sun cannot be seen.
d.
the Sun is always in the southern part of the sky.
e.
the Sun is always directly overhead.
28.
The day with the smallest number of daylight hours over the
course of the year for a person living in the southern hemisphere is the
a.
summer solstice (June 1)
b.
vernal equinox (March 21)
c.
winter solstice (Dec. 22)
d.
autumnal equinox (Sept. 23)
e.
The number of daylight hours is always the same.
29.
If Earth’s axis were tilted by 5° instead of its actual tilt,
how would the seasons be different than they are currently?
a.
The seasons would remain the same.
b.
Summers would be warmer.
c.
Winters would last longer.
d.
Winters would be warmer.
e.
Summers would last longer.
30.
If Earth’s axis were tilted by 35° instead of its actual
tilt, how would the seasons be different than they are currently?
a.
The seasons would remain the same.
b.
Summers would be colder.
c.
Winters would be shorter.
d.
Winters would be colder.
e.
Summers would be shorter.
31.
We experience seasons because
a.
Earth’s equator is tilted relative to the plane of the solar
system.
b.
Earth is closer to the Sun in summer and farther from the Sun
in the winter.
c.
the length of the day is longer in the summer and shorter in
the winter.
d.
Earth moves with a slower speed in its orbit during summer
and faster during winter.
e.
one hemisphere of Earth is closer to the Sun than the other
hemisphere during the summer.
32.
During which season (in the Northern Hemisphere) could you
see the Sun rising from the furthest north?
a.
winter
b.
spring
c.
summer
d.
fall
e.
The Sun always rises directly in the east.
33.
For a person who lives at a latitude of +40°, when is the Sun directly
overhead at noon?
a.
only on the summer solstice
b.
only on the winter solstice
c.
only on the vernal and autumnal equinoxes
d.
never
e.
always
34.
For a person living in Vancouver, Canada, at latitude of +49°, the maximum altitude of the
Sun above the southern horizon on the day of the Winter Solstice is:
a.
41.0°.
b.
17.5°.
c.
25.5°.
d.
37.0°.
e.
64.5°.
35.
Earth is closest to the Sun when the Northern Hemisphere
experiences
a.
spring.
b.
summer.
c.
fall.
d.
winter.
36.
Assume you are observing the night sky from a typical city in
the United States with a latitude of +40°.
Using the figure below, which constellation of the zodiac would be nearest to
the meridian at midnight in mid-September?
a.
Scorpius
b.
Taurus
c.
Pisces
d.
Aquarius
e.
Leo
37.
Assume you are observing the night sky from a typical city in
the United States with a latitude of +40°.
Using the figure below, which constellation of the zodiac would be nearest to
the meridian at 6 p.m. in
mid-September?
a.
Scorpius
b.
Taurus
c.
Pisces
d.
Aquarius
e.
Leo
38.
Assume you are observing the night sky from a typical city in
the United States with a latitude of +40°.
Using the figure below, which constellation of the zodiac would be nearest to
the meridian at 10 p.m. in
mid-May?
a.
Scorpius
b.
Taurus
c.
Pisces
d.
Aquarius
e.
Leo
39.
Using the figure below, what time of the day or night will
the zodiac constellation Gemini rise in March?
a.
2 p.m.
b.
8 p.m.
c.
2 a.m.
d.
8 a.m.
e.
noon
40.
You and a friend go outside to view the stars at midnight
tonight. Six months later, you go outside to find the stars in exactly the same
position in the sky as when you and your friend viewed them. What time is it?
Assume you can see the stars at any time, day or night.
a. 6
a.m.
b.
noon
c.
6 p.m.
d.
midnight
e.
This can never happen.
41.
The brightest star in the constellation Canis Major can be
referred to as
a.
Alpha Canis Majoris
b.
Beta Canis Majoris
c.
Beta Canis
d.
Alpha Majoris
e.
Alpha Canis
42.
At which of the following latitudes is it possible for the
Sun’s rays to hit the ground perpendicular to the ground at some point during
the year?
a.
87°
b.
55°
c.
42°
d.
33°
e.
20°
43.
At approximately what time does a full Moon rise?
a.
12 midnight
b.
12 noon
c.
6 a.m.
d.
6 p.m.
e.
3 p.m.
44.
In regard to the phase of the Moon, the term waxing
means
a.
less than half-illuminated.
b.
more than half–illuminated.
c.
becoming smaller.
d.
illuminated area increasing.
e.
illuminated area decreasing.
45.
If tonight the Moon is in the waxing gibbous phase, in 3 days
what is the most likely phase of the Moon?
a.
new phase.
b.
full phase.
c.
third quarter phase.
d.
first quarter phase.
e.
waxing crescent phase.
46.
If there is a full Moon out tonight, approximately how long
from now will it be in the third quarter phase?
a.
3 to 4 days
b.
1 week
c.
2 weeks
d.
3 weeks
e.
1 month
.
47.
Which of the following is false?
a.
Everyone on Earth observes the same phase of the Moon on a
given night.
b.
The phases of the Moon cycle with a period that is longer
than its sidereal period.
c.
In some phases, the Moon can be observed during the day.
d.
The observed phase of the Moon changes over the course of one
night.
e.
A full Moon can be seen on the eastern horizon at sunset.
48.
If you see a full Moon tonight, approximately how long would
you have to wait to see the next full Moon?
a.
1 week
b.
2 weeks
c.
3 weeks
d.
4 weeks
e.
5 weeks
49.
The Moon undergoes synchronous rotation, and as a consequence
the
a.
rotational period of the Moon equals the orbital period of
the Moon around Earth
b.
rotational period of the Moon equals the rotational period of
Earth
c.
rotational period of the Moon equals the orbital period of
Earth around the Sun
d.
orbital period of the Moon around Earth equals the rotational
period of Earth
e.
Moon does not rotate as it orbits Earth
50.
The sidereal period of the moon is
a.
1 month.
b.
27.32 days.
c.
28 days.
d.
29.53 days.
e.
30 days.
.
51.
What time does a third quarter Moon rise?
a.
12 midnight
b.
12 noon
c.
3 p.m.
d.
6 a.m.
e.
6 p.m.
52.
The Moon’s sidereal period is 2.2 days shorter than the
period during which the Moon’s phases change because
a.
the Moon always keeps the same side turned toward Earth.
b.
Earth must rotate so an observer can see the Moon.
c.
the Moon’s orbit is tilted with respect to Earth’s rotational
axis.
d.
Earth moves significantly in its orbit around the Sun during
that time.
e.
the Moon’s orbital speed varies.
53.
At which of the possible times below could the waxing gibbous
moon be seen rising?
a.
3 p.m.
b.
9 a.m.
c.
11 p.m.
d.
5 a.m.
e.
8 p.m.
54.
If a person on Earth currently views the Moon in a waxing
crescent phase, in what phase would Earth appear to a person on the Moon?
a.
waxing crescent
b.
waxing gibbous
c.
waning gibbous
d.
waning crescent
e.
New
55.
Leap years occur because
a.
Earth’s orbital period around the Sun is decreasing.
b.
Earth’s orbital period is 365.24 days.
c.
the Gregorian calendar contains only 11 months.
d.
Earth speeds up in its orbit when it comes closest to the
Sun.
e.
a calendar month is not the same as a lunar month.
56.
How often do leap years occur?
a.
almost every 3 years
b.
almost every 4 years
c.
almost every 5 years
d.
almost every 8 years
e.
almost every 10 years
57.
How often would we have leap years if Earth’s orbital period
were 365.1 days?
a.
every year
b.
every 2 years
c.
every 4 years
d.
every 10 years
e.
We would not need to have leap years.
58.
A purely lunar calendar is not ideal for our modern world
because
a.
leap years are more frequent.
b.
the months line up with the phases of the moon.
c.
the seasons don’t occur in the same month every year.
d.
high and low tides occur at different times.
e.
leap year are less frequent.
59.
In the figure below, at which position must the Moon be
located in order for a lunar eclipse to occur?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
60.
In the figure below, at which position must the Moon be
located in order for a solar eclipse to occur?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
61.
During which lunar phase do solar eclipses occur?
a.
new
b.
first quarter
c.
full
d.
third quarter
62.
A partial lunar eclipse occurs when
a.
the Sun appears to go behind the Moon.
b.
the Moon passes through part of the Earth’s shadow.
c.
the Moon shadows part of the Sun.
d.
The Earth passes through part of the Moon’s shadow.
e.
the Moon passes through part of the Sun’s shadow.
63.
If you are lucky enough to see a total solar eclipse, you
must be standing in the
a.
Moon’s umbra.
b.
Moon’s penumbra.
c.
Earth’s umbra.
d.
Earth’s penumbra.
e.
Sun’s umbra.
64.
The darkest part of the Moon’s shadow is the
a.
partial shadow.
b.
penumbra.
c.
umbra.
d.
annular.
65.
During a lunar eclipse the Moon can appear red. This is
caused by
a.
the moon glowing red.
b.
oxidation of the lunar crust.
c.
solar flares.
d.
light traveling through Earth’s atmosphere.
66.
If you are observing a partial solar eclipse, you must be
standing in the
a.
Moon’s umbra.
b.
Moon’s penumbra.
c.
Earth’s umbra.
d.
Earth’s penumbra.
e.
Sun’s umbra.
.
67.
A solar-powered spacecraft is traveling through the Moon’s
shadow. Which part(s), if any, of the Moon’s shadow will cause the spacecraft
to completely lose power?
a.
umbra
b.
penumbra
c.
annulus
d.
both umbra and penumbra
e.
The spacecraft will never lose power.
h.
68.
Solar and lunar eclipses are rare because
a.
the Moon’s orbital plane is tipped by 5.2° relative to the
plane defined by Earth’s equator.
b.
the Moon’s orbital plane is tipped by 5.2° relative to
Earth’s orbital plane.
c.
the Moon’s orbital plane is tipped by 23.5° relative to the
plane defined by Earth’s equator.
d.
the Moon’s orbital plane is tipped by 23.5° relative to
Earth’s orbital plane.
e.
the Moon’s orbital plane is tipped by 5.2° relative to the
galactic plane.
.
69.
A type of eclipse in which the Sun appears as a bright ring
is called a
a.
total solar eclipse.
b.
partial solar eclipse.
c.
annular solar eclipse.
d.
lunar eclipse.
e.
umbral eclipse.
70.
Approximately how often do lunar eclipses occur?
a.
twice every year
b.
three times every year
c.
once per month
d.
twice every 11 months
e.
once every 11 years
SHORT
ANSWER
1.
Consider an observer located on the equator. If the observer
sees a star directly overhead at 10 p.m.,
where will that star be located in the night sky at 3 a.m.?
OBJ:
Show the path that a star follows on the sky, from the time it rises until it
sets.
2.
Consider an observer located on the equator. If the observer
sees a star directly overhead at 8 p.m.,
where will that star be located in the night sky at midnight? How far above the
horizon will it be or will it have set?
3.
On what place(s) on Earth can you stand and have the
celestial equator be at the same altitude for all 360 degrees of its
circumference?
4.
Draw a dome representing the visible sky. Label the horizon,
meridian, zenith, and each of the four cardinal directions (north, east, south,
and west).
5.
The center of the Milky Way lies approximately 30° south of
the celestial equator. From what latitudes on Earth is it impossible to view
the center of our galaxy?
6.
How is the observed height of Polaris above the horizon
related to an observer’s latitude? (Hint: Consider three cases of observers
located at the equator, the North Pole, and latitude =
+45°.)
7.
What latitude on Earth would be the best for observing as
much of the celestial sphere as possible over the course of a year?
8.
If you are standing on the equator and shoot a cannonball
directly north, where would you expect it to land?
9.
What would be the effect on the seasons if the tilt of
Earth’s axis were 10° rather than 23.5°?
10.
What is the point on the celestial sphere where the ecliptic
crosses from below to above the celestial equator called?
11.
What makes the equinoxes and solstices special?
12.
On what day(s) of the year does the Sun set due west?
13.
Earth experiences seasons due to the tilt of its axis. What
are two consequences of this tilt that contribute to the seasons?
14.
For an observer in Seattle, Washington, which is located at
latitude =
+47°, what is the lowest possible
altitude one might see the Sun on the meridian over the course of the year?
Approximately what time of the day and year will this occur?
15.
The position of the autumnal equinox lies at the intersection
of which two great celestial circles on the celestial sphere?
16.
Why does the Moon always show the same face to Earth?
17.
Explain why we always see the same side of the Moon from
Earth.
18.
If the Moon was full 3 days ago, what phase will it be in
tonight, and when will it rise and set?
19.
Based on the location of the Moon shown in the figure below,
draw a picture of how the moon would appear to an observer located on Earth.
20.
As the month passes, the Moon appears to rise later in the
day or night when compared to the previous day. Explain why this happens.
21.
Based on the location of the Moon shown in the figure below,
draw a picture of how the Moon would appear to an observer located on Earth.
22.
What is the difference between the terms solar day and
sidereal day?
23.
How does today’s Gregorian calendar differ from the calendars
of more ancient civilizations, such as the Chinese, the Egyptians, and the
Babylonians?
24.
Why do some years in certain lunar calendars have 13 months?
25.
Draw a picture below showing the Moon’s location relative to
Earth and the Sun during a lunar eclipse.
.
26.
Draw a picture below showing the Moon’s location relative to
Earth and the Sun during a solar eclipse.
.
27.
Explain the type of solar eclipse that would be observed by
an observer on Earth if they were in each respective part (A, B, C, and D) of
the shadow of the moon, shown in the figure below.
28.
Explain why the eclipse seasons occur roughly twice every 11
months, rather than twice per year.
29.
Approximately how large is the umbra on the surface of Earth?
30.
Earth has an average radius of approximately 6.4 × 103 km. What is the
average speed, in units of km/s, of the ground at Earth’s equator due to the
daily rotation of Earth if there are 8.64 ×
104 seconds per day?
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Chapter 3: Motion of
Astronomical Bodies
Learning Objectives
Define the bold-faced vocabulary terms within the chapter.
Multiple Choice: 2, 3, 18, 22, 37, 43, 44, 46, 47, 50, 51, 52
3.1 The Motions of Planets in the Sky
Distinguish the geocentric and heliocentric models of the
Solar System.
Multiple Choice: 1, 4, 8, 13, 20
Short Answer: Illustrate the cause of retrograde motion in
the heliocentric model.
Multiple Choice: 6, 7, 10, 11, 15
Short Answer: Summarize how Copernicus determined the correct
order of the planets around the Sun.
Multiple Choice: 5, 9, 12, 14, 16, 17, 19
Short Answer: 3.2 Kepler’s Laws Describe
Planetary Motion
State Kepler’s three laws.
Multiple Choice: 21, 24, 30, 31, 32, 34
Short AnswerIllustrate the important features of an ellipse
that relate to Kepler’s first law.
Multiple Choice: 23, 33, 35, 36, 38, 39
Short Answer: Explain Kepler’s second law in terms of orbital
speeds and distances.
Multiple Choice: 25, 26, 27, 28, 29
Short Answer: 3.3 Galileo’s Observations
Supported the Heliocentric Model
Explain how Galileo applied the scientific method to geocentric
and heliocentric models.
Multiple Choice: 40, 41
Short Answer: 3.4 Newton’s Three Laws Help
to Explain the Motion of Celestial Bodies
Describe the difference between empirical and physical laws.
Multiple Choice: 45
Relate inertia and mass.
Multiple Choice: 48
Short Answer: Illustrate Newton’s first law by considering
how objects move in different physical situations.
Short Answer: Describe the difference between speed and
acceleration.
Short Answer: Apply Newton’s second law to establish whether or
not objects will accelerate in different physical situations.
Multiple Choice: 34, 42, 49
Illustrate Newton’s third law by considering action-reaction
pairs in different physical situations.
Multiple Choice: 53
Short Answer: Working It Out 3.1
Use synodic and Earth’s sidereal periods to calculate the
orbital periods of planets.
Multiple Choice: 54, 55, 56, 58
Short Answer: Working It Out 3.2
Use Kepler’s third law to compute the period or semimajor
axis of a planet.
Multiple Choice: 59, 60, 61, 62, 63, 64, 65
Short Answer: Working It Out 3.3
Use Newton’s second law to calculate acceleration.
Short Answer: MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
At the center of the geocentric model of the Solar System is
the
a.
Sun.
b.
Moon.
c.
Earth.
d.
Venus.
e.
Jupiter.
2.
An inferior planet is one that is
a.
smaller than Earth.
b.
larger than Earth.
c.
closer to the Sun than Earth.
d.
farther from the Sun than Earth.
e.
made of lighter materials than Earth.
3.
A superior planet is one that is
a.
smaller than Earth.
b.
larger than Earth.
c.
closer to the Sun than Earth.
d.
farther from the Sun than Earth.
e.
made of heavier materials than Earth.
4.
Who of the following was not a proponent of the
heliocentric model of the solar system?
a.
Galileo
b.
Copernicus
c.
Newton
d.
Ptolemy
e.
Aristarchus
5.
The amount of time a planet takes to orbit the Sun is called
its _________ period.
a.
synodic
b.
sidereal
c.
prograde
d.
retrograde
e.
geocentric
6.
When Earth catches up to a slower moving outer planet and
passes it like a faster runner overtaking a slower runner in an outside lane,
the planet
a.
exhibits retrograde motion.
b.
slows down because it feels Earth’s gravitational pull.
c.
decreases in brightness as it passes through Earth’s shadow.
d.
moves into a more elliptical orbit
e.
exhibits prograde motion.
7.
Observations of what astronomical events allowed astronomers
to definitively determine that the heliocentric model of the solar system was
correct?
a.
total eclipses of the Sun
b.
the precise motions of planets across the celestial sphere
c.
motion of bright stars on the celestial sphere
d.
the timing of the equinoxes
e.
the timing of the solstices
8.
Astronomers argued that the heliocentric model of the Solar
System was simpler than the geocentric model, based on
a.
the observation that the planets do not move relative to the
background stars.
b.
the fact that the Moon orbits Earth.
c.
the fact that the Sun is more massive than Earth.
d.
the observed retrograde motions of the planets.
e.
the observed timing of lunar and solar eclipses.
9.
The time it takes for a planet to come back to the same
position relative to the Sun is called its _________ period.
a.
synodic
b.
sidereal
c.
heliocentric
d.
geocentric
e.
prograde
10.
Retrograde motion is seen when ____________ due to Earth’s
motion.
a.
stars change their position in the sky with respect to
background stars
b.
stars rise in the west and set in the east
c.
planets rise in the west and set in the east
d.
planets change the direction in which they move across the
night sky
e.
planets orbit the Sun in the opposite direction
11.
How did Ptolemy “fix” the geocentric system?
a.
He introduced retrograde motion.
b.
He introduced prograde motion.
c.
He moved the Sun to the center.
d.
He introduced epicycles.
e.
He introduced Earth’s motion.
12.
Based on his observations of the planets, Copernicus
calculated the relative distance of the planets from the Sun using the
heliocentric model, and these distances were
a.
10 times too large.
b.
exactly correct.
c.
close to the correct values, with errors less than 0.5
astronomical unit (AU).
d.
accurate, but not as accurate as Ptolemy’s values.
e.
two times too small.
13.
Which of the following are the inferior planets?
a.
Only Mercury
b.
Mercury and Mars
c.
Mercury and Venus
d.
Mars
e.
Mercury, Mars, and Pluto
14.
Which of the following are superior planets?
a.
Mars
b.
Earth and Venus
c.
Venus, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn
d.
Earth, Jupiter, and Saturn
e.
Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn
15.
When the geocentric model of the solar system did not match
the observed positions of the planets,
a.
Tycho Brahe made measurements of higher accuracy and showed
the geocentric model was correct.
b.
Ptolemy added epicycles to the geocentric model to match the
observed data.
c.
Galileo argued that the Sun revolved around Earth.
d.
Kepler was inspired to create the theory of gravity.
e.
Copernicus proposed the heliocentric mode.
16.
Based on the figure below, a superior planet would be seen
high overhead at midnight
a.
when at opposition.
b.
when at eastern quadrature.
c.
when at conjunction.
d.
when at western quadrature.
e.
throughout its orbit.
17.
Based on the figure below, a superior planet at opposition
a.
would rise at noon and set at midnight.
b.
would rise at midnight and set at noon.
c.
would rise at sunset and set at sunrise.
d.
would rise at sunrise and set at sunrise.
e.
would rise at 8 and set at 8.
18.
Based on the figure below, an inferior planet would have its
greatest angular separation from the Sun and therefore most easily visible at
a.
inferior conjunction.
b.
superior conjunction.
c.
only greatest eastern elongation.
d.
only greatest western elongation.
e.
at either greatest eastern or western elongation.
19.
When the Sun, Earth, and a planet all lie along a straight
line, the planet is at
a.
quadrature.
b.
opposition.
c.
only greatest elongation.
d.
only conjunction.
e.
either opposition or conjunction.
20.
In the ________ model of the Solar System, ________ motion is
only an apparent, not a real, motion.
a.
geocentric; retrograde
b.
heliocentric; retrograde
c.
geocentric; prograde
d.
heliocentric; prograde
e.
Galilean; prograde
21.
_________ was the first person to introduce a mathematical
heliocentric model of the Solar System from which accurate predictions could be
made of planets’ positions.
a.
Nicolaus Copernicus
b.
Tycho Brahe
c.
Johannes Kepler
d.
Galileo Galilei
e.
Isaac Newton
22.
Which laws are based entirely on observational data without
having any theoretical framework behind them?
a.
physical laws
b.
Galileo’s laws of planetary motion
c.
Newton’s laws of motion
d.
deductive laws
e.
empirical laws
23.
The time it takes a planet to complete one full orbital
revolution is commonly known as its
a.
period.
b.
frequency.
c.
orbital domain.
d.
velocity.
e.
eccentricity.
24.
If the Sun is located at one focus of Earth’s elliptical
orbit, what is at the other focus?
a.
Earth
b.
the Moon
c.
another planet
d.
nothing
e.
Jupiter
25.
In the figure below, a planet orbits the Sun. The line
connecting the planet and Sun sweeps out three areas labeled A, B, and C,
during three different time intervals. If the duration of the time intervals
are the same (meaning t2 −
t1 =
t4 −
t3 =
t6 −
t5), how are the sizes of these areas related?
a.
A >
B > C
b.
C >
B > A
c.
A >
C > B
d.
B >
A > C
e.
A, B, and C have the same size.
26.
In the figure below, a planet orbits the Sun. During which of
the three sections (A, B, or C) will the planet have the lowest average
velocity?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
The average velocity is the same for sections A, B, and C.
e.
The information given is insufficient to answer this
question.
27.
Kepler’s second law says that if a planet is in an elliptical
orbit around a star, then the planet moves fastest when the planet is
a.
farthest from the star.
b.
closest to the star.
c.
exceeding the escape velocity.
d.
experiencing zero acceleration.
e.
located at one of the foci.
28.
Which of the following is true about a comet that is
on an elliptical orbit around the Sun?
a.
The comet’s speed is greatest when it is farthest from the
Sun.
b.
The comet’s speed is greatest when it is nearest the Sun.
c.
This comet’s speed is zero.
d.
The comet’s speed is constant because its mass and the Sun’s
mass stay approximately the same.
e.
The eccentricity is very low.
29.
During a certain comet’s orbit around the Sun, its closest
distance to the Sun is 0.6 AU, and its farthest distance from the Sun is 35 AU.
At what distance will the comet’s orbital velocity be the largest?
a.
35 AU
b.
17.8 AU
c.
1.2 AU
d.
0.6 AU
e.
The comet’s velocity is constant no matter what its distance
is.
30.
Kepler’s third law for our Solar System can be expressed
mathematically as
a.
P ∝
A.
b.
P2
∝ A2.
c.
P2
∝ A3.
d.
P3
∝ A2.
e.
P ∝
A2.
31.
Kepler’s third law is a relationship between an orbiting
object’s
a.
gravitational force and mass.
b.
acceleration and mass.
c.
velocity and period.
d.
period and semimajor axis.
e.
semimajor axis and velocity.
32.
Which equation represents the relationship of the planet’s
period to its semimajor axis in data shown in the figure below?
a.
P ∝
A
b.
P2
∝ A2
c.
P3
∝ A2
d.
P2
∝ A3
e.
P ∝
A3
33.
The distance between the foci when the eccentricity equals
zero is
a.
equal to the semimajor axis.
b.
equal to the semiminor axis.
c.
half the semimajor axis.
d.
zero.
34.
According to Kepler’s laws, a comet with a highly eccentric
orbit will
a.
spend most of its time near the Sun.
b.
spend most of its time far from the Sun.
c.
always be the same distance from the Sun.
d.
spend the same amount of time everywhere.
35.
The average distance between a planet and the Sun is given by
the _________ of its elliptical orbit.
a.
radius
b.
semiminor axis
c.
eccentricity
d.
semimajor axis
e.
distance between the foci
36.
The eccentricity of the majority of the planetary orbits in
our Solar System is approximately
a.
0.
b.
1.
c.
0.5.
d.
0.2.
e.
infinity.
37.
An empirical science is one that is based on
a.
assumptions.
b.
calculus.
c.
computer models.
d.
observed data.
e.
hypotheses.
38.
The fact that Kepler’s heliocentric model of the Solar System
predicted _________ more easily and accurately than the geocentric model is an
illustration of how scientific theories evolve by the scientific method.
a.
solar eclipses
b.
lunar eclipses
c.
retrograde motion of planets
d.
prograde motion of planets
e.
the duration of the seasons
39.
A circular orbit has an eccentricity of _________ and a very
elliptical orbit has an eccentricity of _________.
a.
1; 0
b.
1; 1
c.
0; infinity
d.
0; 1
e.
infinity; 0
40.
Galileo’s telescopic observations of the _________ led him to
conclude that the heliocentric model of the Solar System was correct.
a.
motion of Jupiter and Saturn
b.
motion of Venus
c.
moons of Jupiter and phases of Venus
d.
phases of the Moon
e.
epicycles of Mars
41.
Galileo observed what the geocentric astronomers viewed as
imperfections. These observations helped Galileo to show that the heliocentric
model was the more accurate model. Which was not an observation of Galileo?
a.
The Moon had craters.
b.
sunspots
c.
the moons of Jupiter
d.
Venus’ phases
e.
the moons of Saturn
42.
A 100-kg astronaut throws a 1-kg wrench with a force of 1 N.
What is the acceleration of the wrench after the wrench leaves the astronaut’s
hand?
a.
More information is needed.
b.
1 m/s2
c.
Zero
d.
0.01 m/s2
43.
Newton’s first law states that objects in motion
a.
eventually come to rest.
b.
experience an unbalanced force.
c.
experience a nonzero acceleration.
d.
stay in motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
e.
must be subject to zero friction.
44.
If you travel at a velocity of 30 miles per hour (mph) during
a 15-mile trip from home to school, how long does the trip take?
a.
2 hours
b.
0.2 hours
c.
0.5 hour
d.
5 hours
e.
750 hours
45.
Which laws have a theoretical framework behind them?
a.
physical laws
b.
deductive laws
c.
empirical laws
46.
An inertial frame of reference is
a.
an object’s mass.
b.
any moving frame of reference.
c.
any frame of reference moving in a straight line at a
constant velocity.
d.
both B and C
47.
As a car drives around a corner at constant speed, the car is
a.
not accelerating.
b.
accelerating because speed is decreasing.
c.
accelerating because speed is increasing.
d.
accelerating because the direction is changing.
48.
Which object, masses listed, will have the largest inertia?
a.
1 kg
b.
2 kg
c.
10 kg
d.
20 kg
e.
50 kg
49.
Which object, masses listed, will experience the greatest
acceleration if the same force is applied to all of them?
a.
1 kg
b.
2 kg
c.
10 kg
d.
20 kg
e.
50 kg
50.
If you traveled at a velocity of 60 mph for a 5-hour trip,
how far did you travel?
a.
300 miles
b.
120 miles
c.
12 miles
d.
0.4 miles
e.
240 mph
51.
If you travel 20 miles from home to school in 30 minutes,
what is your average velocity?
a.
20 mph
b.
40 mph
c.
0.7 mph
d.
5 mph
e.
600 mph
52.
The natural tendency of an object to resist changes in motion
is called
a.
inertia.
b.
weight.
c.
acceleration.
d.
mass.
e.
velocity.
53.
Which of the following is a valid action-reaction force pair?
a.
weight force pushing down on a chair, and the chair’s normal
force pushing back up
b.
weight force on a falling object, and the drag force pulling
up
c.
Earth pulling on the Moon, and the Moon pulling on Earth
d.
you pushing on a box, and the box moving
54.
If a superior planet is observed from Earth to have a synodic
period of 1.2 years, what is its sidereal period?
a.
0.54 years
b.
1.8 years
c.
2.3 years
d.
4.0 years
e.
6.0 years
55.
If the synodic period of Venus is observed from Earth to be
1.6 years, Venus’ sidereal period is _____ years.
a.
1.9
b.
0.45
c.
0.28
d.
1.6
e.
0.62
56.
If the synodic period of Mars is observed from Earth to be
2.1 years, what is Mars’s sidereal period?
a.
5.3 years
b.
0.47 years
c.
1.9 years
d.
3.4 years
e.
0.69 year
57.
If you start from rest and accelerate at 15 mph/s for 5
seconds, how fast will you be traveling at the end?
a.
75 mph
b.
45 mph
c.
3 mph
d.
12 mph
e.
20 mph
58.
If the sidereal period of Jupiter is 11.9 years, what is
Jupiter’s synodic period as observed from Earth?
a.
2.3 years
b.
0.84 years
c.
0.92 years
d.
1.09 years
e.
1.5 years
59.
Suppose an asteroid had an orbit with a semimajor axis of 4
AU. How long would it take for it to orbit once around the Sun?
a.
76 years
b.
45 years
c.
8 years
d.
16 years
e.
2 years
60.
If Jupiter has an orbital period of 12 years, what value is
closest to its average distance from the Sun?
a.
2 AU
b.
25 AU
c.
10 AU
d.
5 AU
e.
144 AU
61.
The dwarf planet named Eris orbits the Sun with a semimajor
axis of 68 AU. Using Kepler’s third law, Eris’s orbital period is
a.
26 years.
b.
130 years.
c.
72 years.
d.
240 years.
e.
560 years.
62.
Kepler’s third law says that a comet with a period of 160
years will have a semimajor axis of
a.
30 AU.
b.
50 AU.
c.
90 AU.
d.
140 AU.
e.
210 AU.
63.
A comet orbits the Sun with a semimajor axis of 90 AU. Using
Kepler’s third law, the comet’s orbital period is approximately
a.
850 years.
b.
630 years.
c.
410 years.
d.
180 years.
e.
90 years.
.
64.
If Neptune has a semimajor axis of 19 AU, its orbital period
is
a.
45 years.
b.
83 years.
c.
130 years.
d.
220 years.
e.
380 years.
65.
If Mercury has an orbital period of about 88 days, what is
its average distance from the Sun?
a.
0.2 AU
b.
0.01 AU
c.
0.05 AU
d.
0.4 AU
e.
0.7 AU
66.
What is your acceleration if you go from 0 to 60 mph in 4
seconds?
a.
60 mph/s
b.
30 mph/s
c.
15 mph/s
d.
8.5 mph/s
e.
240 mph/s
67.
If you apply a force of 10 N to a grocery cart and get an
acceleration of 0.5 m/s2, then the mass of the grocery cart is
a.
5 kg.
b.
0.05 kg.
c.
20 kg.
d.
50 kg.
e.
0.20 kg.
68.
If a 100-kg astronaut pushes on a 5,000-kg satellite and the
satellite experiences an acceleration of 0.1 m/s2, what is the
acceleration experienced by the astronaut in the opposite direction?
a.
5 m/s2
b.
10 m/s2
c.
50 m/s2
d.
0.1 m/s2
e.
1000 m/s2
69.
If you start from rest and accelerate at 10 mph/s and end up
traveling at 60 mph, how long did it take?
a.
1 second
b.
6 seconds
c.
600 seconds
d.
0.6 seconds
e.
200 seconds
70.
You apply a force of 10 N to a grocery cart in order to get
an acceleration of 0.5 m/s2. If you apply a force of 20 N to the
same grocery cart, its acceleration will be
a.
10 m/s2.
b.
1 m/s2.
c.
0.5 m/s2.
d.
0.25m/s2.
e.
20 m/s2.
f.
SHORT ANSWER
1.
When an inferior planet
has reached its largest angular separation from the Sun on the sky, what is this
called?
2.
What does the term
conjunction mean in planetary orbits?
3.
If Venus is at inferior
conjunction, what phase would we observe from Earth?
4.
Explain what is meant
by retrograde motion only being an “observational artifact” in the heliocentric
system.
5.
Why were epicycles used
in the geocentric system? Who first introduced epicycles?
6.
Who was the first
notable historical figure to argue that Earth orbits the Sun? Name two other
people who were instrumental in arguing for the heliocentric model.
7.
Based on the figure
below, explain why an inferior planet is most likely to be seen when it is at
one of its greatest elongations.
8.
Based on the figure
below, explain why, when a superior planet is in opposition, it will be visible
from Earth all night long.
9.
Based on the figure
below, explain why a superior planet, when it is at conjunction, will not be
seen at all from Earth during the night.
10.
Based on the figure
below, explain why an inferior planet would not be able to be seen at all from
Earth when it is in conjunction.
11.
In the heliocentric
model of the Solar System, does retrograde motion occur for superior or
inferior planets? (It might help you to draw some illustrations to answer this
question.)
12.
How was retrograde
motion explained in the geocentric system?
13.
Explain how the Occam’s
razor argument influenced whether people believed in the heliocentric or the
geocentric model of the Solar System.
14.
In a period of three
months, a planet travels 30,000 km with an average speed of 10.5 km/s. Sometime
later, the same planet travels 65,000 km in three months. How fast is the
planet traveling at this later time? During which period is the planet closer
to the Sun?
15.
What do we customarily
call the semimajor axis of a circular orbit? What is the value of the
eccentricity of a circle? What might the value of the eccentricity be for a
comet on a very elliptical orbit around the Sun?
16.
Explain where and why a
planet in an elliptical orbit has the highest and lowest orbital speeds.
17.
Which of Kepler’s laws
is sometimes referred to as the law of equal areas? Which of Kepler’s laws is
sometimes referred to the harmonic law?
18.
Draw a diagram showing
the relative positions Earth, Venus, and the Sun that produce a “new” phase of
Venus.
19.
Given that the solar
system is heliocentric, do you expect any planet besides Venus to have a “new”
phase? If so, why?
20.
Galileo observed that
Venus has phases, and that the angular size of Venus changes with phase. Why
does this support a heliocentric solar system?
21.
According to Aristotle,
what is the natural state of all objects? In practical terms, what does this
mean for moving objects? How did Galileo disagree with Aristotle’s theory?
22.
Name the two ways in
which an object’s motion (meaning its velocity) can experience a nonzero
acceleration.
23.
In terms of frames of
reference, explain why an object moving in a straight line at constant speed
remains in motion.
24.
You are following a
construction vehicle on the road in your car. A large object falls off the
construction vehicle. What happens to this object while it is still in the air,
neglecting air resistance.
25.
If a 100-kg asteroid
collides with Earth, causing the asteroid to slows down in one second from
1,000 m/s to 0 m/s, what acceleration will Earth experience according to
Newton’s third law? (For reference, Earth has a mass of approximately 6 × 1024
kg.)
26.
Explain why your
downward weight force (gravity pulling on you) and the chair’s upward normal
force are not an action-reaction force pair.
27.
Explain how the synodic
and sidereal periods of a planet are defined. Why are they not the same?
Explain how they are related to one another.
28.
Assume that at sunset
today, Jupiter appears to be 20 degrees away from the Sun. If the sidereal
period of Jupiter is 12 years, when will it next appear exactly in this same
position relative to the Sun?
29.
Saturn has a semimajor
axis of 9.6 AU. How long does it take Saturn to orbit once around the Sun?
.
30.
What acceleration would
result from a 5-N force acting on a 3-kg object? (Recall that 1 N = 1 kg m/s2.)
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