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Chapter 6: The Tools of
the Astronomer
Learning
Objectives
Define the bold-faced vocabulary terms within the chapter.
Multiple Choice: 3, 18, 30, 38, 39, 40
Short Answer: 6.1 The Optical Telescope
Revolutionized Astronomy
Characterize why telescopes are important astronomical tools.
Multiple Choice: 1, 2
Illustrate the processes of reflection and refraction.
Multiple Choice: 7, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 20
Short Answer: Compare and contrast the design, construction,
and optical characteristics of reflecting and refracting telescopes.
Multiple Choice: 4, 5, 6, 17, 19
Short Answer: Relate resolution to telescope design.
Multiple Choice: 21, 22, 23
Short Answer: Illustrate the effects of atmospheric seeing.
Multiple Choice: 10, 11
Short Answer: Assess what makes a good location for a
telescope on Earth.
6.2 Optical Detectors and Instruments Used
with Telescopes
Relate the optical properties of the human eye to film or a
CCD camera.
Multiple Choice: 24, 28, 35, 36
Short Answer: Explain why photographic plates and CCD cameras
are important tools of astronomy.
Multiple Choice: 25, 26, 27, 33, 34, 42
Distinguish between imaging and spectroscopy.
Multiple Choice: 29, 31, 32
Short Answer: 6.3 Astronomers Observe in
Wavelengths Beyond the Visible
Explain when and why it is advantageous or necessary to place
telescopes in space.
Multiple Choice: 41, 45, 48
Compare and contrast the practical utility of observing on
the ground and from space for different wavelengths.
Multiple Choice: 43, 44, 49
Short Answer: Summarize the challenges and simplifications of
observing in wavelengths other than optical.
Short Answer: 6.4 Planetary Spacecraft
Explore the Solar System
Summarize reasons why spacecraft are needed to explore the
solar system.
Multiple Choice: 52, 53, 55
Evaluate the cost and benefit of different kinds of
spacecraft (flyby, orbiter, lander, probe).
Multiple Choice: 51, 54
Short Answer: 6.5 Other Astronomical Tools
Contribute to the Study of the Universe
Establish why other tools (particle accelerators and
detectors, supercomputers) are important to astronomy.
Multiple Choice: 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61
Short Answer: Working It Out 6.1
Compute the magnification and light-collecting areas of
different optical systems.
Multiple Choice: 62, 63
Short Answer: Working It Out 6.2
Compute the diffraction limits of different optical systems.
Multiple Choice: 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70
Short Answer: MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1.
The telescope was
invented by
a.
Galileo Galilei, an
Italian inventor.
b.
Hans Lippershey, an
eyeglass maker in the Netherlands.
c.
Gote Reber, a German
cabinetmaker.
d.
Tycho Brahe, a Danish
astronomer.
e.
Johannes Kepler, a
German mathematician.
2.
Which of the following
was not discovered by Galileo using a telescope?
a.
The Moon has a heavily
cratered surface.
b.
Jupiter has four moons
that orbit around it.
c.
Mars has a polar ice
cap similar to Earth.
d.
The planet Venus goes
through phases similar to those of the Moon.
e.
The Milky Way is a
collection of countless numbers of individual stars.
3.
The aperture of a
telescope is which of the following?
a.
the length of the
telescope
b.
the diameter of the
telescope tube
c.
the diameter of the
primary lens/mirror
d.
the radius of the
primary lens/mirror
e.
the diameter of the
secondary mirror
4.
Why can a compound lens
combat a refracting telescope’s chromatic aberration?
a.
Red light is absorbed
by a larger amount than blue light.
b.
Red light is refracted
by a larger amount than blue light, and different types of glass have different
indexes of refraction.
c.
Blue light is refracted
by a larger amount than red light, and different types of glass have different
indexes of refraction.
d.
Blue light is absorbed
by a larger amount than red light.
e.
A compound lens cannot
combat chromatic aberration.
5.
One reason to prefer a
reflecting over a refracting telescope is
a.
its lack of chromatic
aberration.
b.
its shorter length for
the same aperture size.
c.
its lack of an aperture
limit.
d.
its lighter weight for
larger apertures.
e.
all of the above
6.
Large reflecting
telescopes have mirrors that are _________ in shape.
a.
spherical
b.
parabolic
c.
convex
d.
hyperbolic
e.
cylindrical
7.
A beam of light passes
from air to water at an incident angle of 40°, relative to a plane perpendicular
to the boundary between the two. At what angle will it emerge into the water,
relative to a plane perpendicular to the boundary?
a.
less than 40°
b.
exactly 40°
c.
more than 40°
d.
The beam of light does
not emerge from the water.
e.
There is not enough
information to answer the question.
8.
Which of the following
phenomena is shown in the figure below?
a.
reflection
b.
refraction
c.
magnification
d.
diffraction
e.
interference
9.
Which of the following
phenomena is shown in the figure below?
a.
reflection
b.
refraction
c.
magnification
d.
diffraction
e.
interference
10.
The angular resolution
of a ground-based telescope (without adaptive optics) is typically
a.
30 arcseconds (arcsec).
b.
1 arcminutes (arcmin).
c.
10 arcsec.
d.
1 arcsec.
e.
30 arcmin.
11.
Cameras that use
adaptive optics provide higher spatial resolution images primarily because
a.
they operate above
Earth’s atmosphere.
b.
they capture infrared
light, which has a longer wavelength than visible light.
c.
deformable mirrors are
used to correct the blurring due to Earth’s atmosphere.
d.
composite lenses
correct for chromatic aberration.
e.
they simulate a much
larger telescope.
12.
According to the law of
reflection, if a beam of light strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 30°
relative to a plane perpendicular to the surface of the mirror, at what angle
will it reflect, relative to a plane perpendicular to the surface of the
mirror?
a.
0°
b.
30°
c.
60°
d.
90°
e.
120°
13.
A prism is able to
spread white light out into a spectrum of colors based on the property of
a.
reflection.
b.
refraction.
c.
magnification.
d.
resolution.
e.
aberration.
14.
Which of the following
phenomena is shown in the figure below?
a.
reflection
b.
chromatic aberration
c.
diffraction
d.
magnification
e.
interference
15.
Chromatic aberration
results from
a.
blue light being
reflected more than red light.
b.
red light being
reflected more than blue light.
c.
red light being
refracted more than blue light.
d.
blue light being
refracted more than red light.
e.
a lens being polished
incorrectly.
16.
As a beam of light
travels from one medium to another, the change in direction of the beam of
light depends on
a.
the wavelength of the
light.
b.
the index of refraction
of the outgoing medium.
c.
the index of refraction
of the incoming medium.
d.
the angle of incidence.
e.
all of the above
17.
Why do reflecting
telescopes usually have a secondary mirror in addition to a primary mirror?
a.
to increase the
light-gathering power
b.
to make the telescope
shorter
c.
to increase the
magnification
d.
to increase the focal
length
e.
to combat chromatic
aberration
18.
The aperture of a
telescope partially or totally determines its
a.
focal length and
magnification.
b.
light-gathering power.
c.
focal length.
d.
light-gathering power
and magnification.
e.
light-gathering power
and diffraction limit.
19.
An object sits
infinitely far away from a parabolic mirror. At what distance from the mirror
will its image be created?
a.
It will be imaged at
half the focal length.
b.
It will be imaged at
the focal length.
c.
It will be imaged at
twice the focal length.
d.
No image will be
created (the beams would be reflected parallel to each other).
e.
The image is created on
the other side of the mirror.
20.
Which property of light
is responsible for chromatic aberration?
a.
reflection
b.
interference
c.
dispersion
d.
diffraction
e.
magnification
21.
How does the resolution
of a telescope depend on its focal length?
a.
The longer the focal length,
the better the resolution.
b.
The longer the focal
length, the worse the resolution.
c.
There is no relation
between resolution and focal length.
22.
In practice, the
smallest angular size that one can resolve with a 10-inch telescope is governed
by the
a.
blurring caused by
Earth’s atmosphere.
b.
diffraction limit of
the telescope.
c.
size of the primary
mirror.
d.
motion of the night
sky.
e.
magnification of the
telescope.
23.
The 305-meter (-m)
Arecibo radio telescope in Puerto Rico has a resolution that is closest to that
of
a.
the Hubble Space
Telescope (0.1 arcsec).
b.
a human eye (1 arcmin).
c.
the Chandra X-ray
telescope (0.5 arcsec).
d.
a 1-m optical telescope
(1 arcsec).
e.
one of the 10-m Keck
telescopes (0.0133 arcsec)
24.
What part(s) of the
human eye is responsible for detecting light?
a.
cornea
b.
lens
c.
pupil
d.
rods and cones
e.
iris
25.
Before charge-coupled
devices (CCDs) were invented, what was the device most commonly used for
imaging with optical telescopes?
a.
Polaroid cameras
b.
photographic glass
plates
c.
35-mm film
d.
high-speed film
e.
video cameras
26.
The major advantage
CCDs have over other imaging techniques is that
a.
they have a higher
quantum efficiency.
b.
they have a linear
response to light.
c.
they yield output in
digital format.
d.
they operate at visible
and near-infrared wavelengths.
e.
all of the above
27.
Why do astronomers use
monochromatic CCDs instead of color CCDs like your cell phone does?
a.
Color CCDs have a
smaller angular resolution.
b.
They don’t make color
CCDs large enough.
c.
Monochromatic CCDs last
longer.
d.
Monochromatic CCDs have
smaller angular resolution.
28.
Why can you see fainter
stars with an 8-inch telescope than you can see with your naked eye?
a.
The telescope collects
light over a larger area.
b.
The telescope magnifies
the field of view.
c.
The telescope collects
light over a wider range of wavelengths than your eye.
d.
The telescope has a
wider field of view.
e.
The telescope has a
longer integration time than your eyes.
29.
A diffraction grating
is
a.
a filter for imaging.
b.
typically made from
glass with many closely spaced lines engraved in it.
c.
a prism.
d.
a grism.
e.
a spectrograph.
30.
A spectrograph is
a.
a device used for
imaging.
b.
typically made from
glass with many closely spaced lines engraved in it.
c.
a device used to
measure the intensity of light at each wavelength.
d.
a radio telescope.
e.
a visible-light
telescope.
31.
Most modern spectrographs
use a _________ to disperse the light from an object.
a.
spherical mirror
b.
lens
c.
glass prism
d.
diffraction grating
e.
parabolic mirror
32.
What property of light
allows a grating to disperse the light from an object into a spectrum?
a.
interference
b.
reflection
c.
refraction
d.
aberration
e.
magnification
33.
Photography provides an
improvement over naked-eye observations because
a.
it is possible to
observe a larger field of view with photographic plates.
b.
the quantum efficiency
is higher for photographic plates.
c.
the image resolution is
much better for photographic plates.
d.
it is possible to
detect fainter objects with the use of photographic plates.
e.
the integration time is
much shorter with the use of photographic plates.
34.
You are observing the
Andromeda Galaxy using both photographic plates and a CCD. If you double the
exposure time for both detectors, you
a.
double the amount of
light collected on both the photographic plate and the CCD.
b.
double the amount of
light collected on the only.
c.
double the amount of
light collected on the photographic plate, but the CCD collects less.
d.
double the amount of
light collected on the photographic plate, but the CCD collects more.
e.
collect less than twice
the amount of light on both the photographic plate and the CCD.
35.
If we could increase
the quantum efficiency of the human eye, it would
a.
allow humans to see a
larger range of wavelengths.
b.
allow humans to see
better at night or other low-light conditions.
c.
increase the resolution
of the human eye.
d.
decrease the resolution
of the human eye.
e.
not make a difference
in the sight of the human eye.
36.
Typically, video is
shot using 24 to 30 frames per second (one frame each 33 to 42 ms). If a
filmmaker shot new experimental video at 100 frames per second (one frame each
10 ms), how would it look during playback to the human eye if played at 100
frames per second?
a.
It would look like the
video was being fast-forwarded.
b.
It would look like the
video was about the same as normal video.
c.
It would look like the
video was being played back in slow motion.
d.
It would look like a
slideshow, a series of pictures on the screen each for a perceptible amount of
time.
e.
It would look like the
video was about the same speed as normal video, but blurry.
37.
Arrays of radio
telescopes can produce much better resolution than single-dish telescopes
because they work based on the principle of
a.
reflection.
b.
refraction.
c.
dispersion.
d.
diffraction.
e.
interference.
38.
An atmospheric window
is
a.
a giant glass dome.
b.
a region of the
electromagnet spectrum that can reach the ground.
c.
a region of the
electromagnet spectrum that cannot reach the ground.
d.
ultraviolet.
e.
X-rays.
39.
The Jansky is a unit
used to measure the strength of which type of source?
a.
X-ray
b.
ultraviolet
c.
visible
d.
infrared
e.
radio
40.
An interferometer
requires a minimum of how many telescopes?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
10
41.
Which of the following
is the best location for an infrared telescope on the ground?
a.
at sea level
b.
300 ft above sea level
c.
1000 ft above sea level
d.
6000 ft above sea level
e.
10,000 ft above sea
level
42.
The first astronomical
detector was
a.
the CCD.
b.
photoelectric tubes.
c.
the human eye.
d.
photographic plates.
e.
35-mm film.
43.
You hear a news story
about an X-ray telescope being built on Earth. You know this can’t be possible
because
a.
X-rays do not travel
very far through Earth’s atmosphere.
b.
X-ray telescopes are
impossible to build.
c.
X-ray telescopes would
receive too much interference from hospitals.
d.
it would cost too much
money.
44.
Astronomers can use
ground-based telescopes to observe in the majority of which of the following
parts of the electromagnetic spectrum?
a.
visible and infrared
b.
visible and ultraviolet
c.
visible and radio
d.
visible, ultraviolet,
and infrared
e.
visible, infrared, and
radio
45.
Water vapor in Earth’s
atmosphere primarily absorbs which type of photons?
a.
radio
b.
infrared
c.
visible
d.
ultraviolet
e.
X-ray
46.
NASA’s Kuiper Airborne
Observatory and the Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA)
are two examples of telescopes placed in high-flying aircraft. Why would
astronomers put telescopes in airplanes?
a.
to get the telescopes
closer to the stars
b.
to get the telescopes
away from the light-pollution of cities
c.
to get the telescopes
above the majority of the water vapor in Earth’s atmosphere
d.
to be able to observe
one object for more than 24 hours without stopping
e.
to allow the telescopes
to observe the full spectrum of light
47.
Which of the following
is the biggest disadvantage of putting a telescope in space?
a.
Astronomers don’t have
as much control in choosing what to observe.
b.
Astronomers have to
wait until the telescopes come back to Earth to get their images.
c.
Space telescopes can
only observe in certain parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
d.
Space telescopes don’t
last long before they fall back to Earth.
e.
Space telescopes are
much more expensive than similar ground-based telescopes.
48.
Which of the following
is not a reason to put a telescope in space?
a.
to observe at
wavelengths blocked by Earth’s atmosphere
b.
to avoid
light-pollution on Earth
c.
to avoid weather on
Earth
d.
to avoid atmospheric
distortion
e.
to get closer to the
stars
49.
Ultraviolet radiation
with wavelengths shorter than about 200 nm are hard to observe primarily
because
a.
Earth’s atmosphere
easily absorbs it.
b.
no space-based
telescopes operate at ultraviolet wavelengths.
c.
only the lowest mass
stars emit ultraviolet light.
d.
very few objects emit
at ultraviolet wavelengths.
e.
Earth emits too much
ultraviolet background light.
50.
The first astronomical
radio source ever observed was
a.
the Andromeda Galaxy.
b.
the galactic center, in
the constellation Sagittarius.
c.
thunderstorms.
d.
Earth.
e.
Jupiter.
51.
Samples of which
celestial object(s) have been brought back to Earth to be studied in detail?
a.
a comet
b.
the solar wind
c.
an asteroid
d.
the Moon
e.
all of the above
52.
Remote sensing
instruments have been used to
a.
map surfaces hidden
beneath thick atmospheres.
b.
measure the composition
of atmospheres.
c.
identify geological
features.
d.
watch weather patterns
develop.
e.
all of the above
53.
The Voyager 1
spacecraft is currently 18 billion km from Earth and heading out of our Solar
System. How long does it take radio messages from Voyager 1 to reach us?
a.
1.7 days
b.
17 hours
c.
17 days
d.
17 weeks
e.
17 minutes
54.
Landers, rovers, and/or
atmospheric probes have visited which object(s) listed below in an effort to
gain new information about our Solar System?
a.
Jupiter
b.
Titan, Saturn’s moon
c.
Mars
d.
Eros, an asteroid
e.
all of the above
55.
In 2008, the Cassini
spacecraft made a flyby of Enceladus, one of the icy moons of Saturn. If the
spacecraft’s high-resolution camera had an angular resolution of 3 arcsec and
it flew at an altitude of 23 km above Enceladus’s surface, how large an object
could be resolved on the surface?
a.
3 m
b.
30 cm
c.
30 km
d.
5 cm
e.
50 m
56.
Particle accelerators
that smash atoms or particles together at high speeds, such as the Large Hadron
Collider (LHC), are important tools used for simulating conditions in
a.
the early universe.
b.
the solar wind.
c.
red giants.
d.
brown dwarf stars.
e.
planetary nebula.
57.
Which of the following
cannot be directly detected using a telescope?
a.
X-rays
b.
visible light
c.
infrared light
d.
neutrinos
e.
ultraviolet light
58.
What type of waves have
not yet been directly detected by astronomers?
a.
sound waves
b.
gravitational waves
c.
X-ray waves
d.
gamma-ray waves
e.
pressure waves
59.
Telescopes and
satellites such as Cosmic Background Explorer (COBE), Wilkinson Microwave
Anisotropy Probe (WMAP), and Planck are designed to detect microwave radiation
emitted by
a.
galaxies.
b.
black holes.
c.
planets.
d.
the Big Bang.
e.
stars.
60.
High-speed computers
have become one of an astronomer’s most important tools. Which of the following
does not require the use of a high-speed computer?
a.
analyzing images taken
with very large CCDs
b.
generating and testing
theoretical models
c.
moving a telescope from
object to object
d.
studying the evolution
of astronomical objects or systems over time
e.
correcting for
atmospheric distortion
61.
Neutrino detectors
typically capture one out of every _________ neutrinos that pass through them.
a.
10
b.
106 (one
million)
c.
109 (one
billion)
d.
1012 (one
trillion)
e.
1022 (10
billion trillion)
62.
The magnification of a
telescope depends on the focal length of the telescope and
a.
the size of the
aperture.
b.
the type of telescope
(refracting vs. reflecting).
c.
the wavelengths being observed.
d.
the focal length of the
eyepiece.
e.
the angular resolution
of the telescope.
63.
Which telescope would
collect 100 times more light than a 1-m telescope?
a.
100-m telescope
b.
80-m telescope
c.
50-m telescope
d.
30-m telescope
e.
10-m telescope
64.
When we determine the
angular resolution of an interferometric array of radio telescopes using the
formula θ ∝ λ/D, the
variable D stands for the
a.
diameter of the
telescopes.
b.
separation between the
telescopes.
c.
magnification of the
telescopes.
d.
number of telescopes.
e.
focal length of the
telescopes.
65.
Which of the following
phenomena is shown in the figure below?
a.
reflection
b.
chromatic aberration
c.
refraction
d.
magnification
e.
interference
66.
The diffraction limit
of a 4-m telescope is _________ than that of a 2-m telescope.
a.
two times larger
b.
four times larger
c.
four times smaller
d.
two times smaller
e.
It depends on the type
of telescope.
67.
Grote Reber conducted
the first radio survey of the sky in the 1930s and 1940s with his 9-m-diameter
radio telescope. Why did his telescope need to be so large?
a.
He needed a large
light-collecting area because radio sources are notoriously dim.
b.
He needed better
angular resolution to identify sources because radio waves are so long.
c.
He needed a higher
magnification to identify sources because radio sources are quite small.
d.
He needed a longer
focal length because radio sources are so far away.
e.
He needed a shorter
focal length because radio sources are so far away.
68.
The Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence (SETI)
project’s Allen Telescope Array will have 350 radio dishes, each with an
individual diameter of 6 m, spread out over a circle whose diameter is 1 km.
What would this array’s spatial resolution be when it operates at 6,000 MHz?
a.
10 arcsec
b.
0.10 arcsec
c.
1 arcsec
d.
10 arcmin
e.
1.0 arcmin
69.
The two Keck 10-m
telescopes, separated by a distance of 85 m, can operate as an optical
interferometer. What is its resolution when it observes in the infrared at a
wavelength of 2 microns?
a.
0.01 arcsec
b.
0.005 arcsec
c.
0.4 arcsec
d.
0.06 arcsec
e.
0.2 arcsec
70.
The angular resolution
of the largest single-dish radio telescope in the United States, the 100-m
Green Bank Telescope, is _________ when it operates at a wavelength of 20 cm.
a.
41 arcmin
b.
6.8 arcmin
c.
4.1 arcmin
d.
6.8 arcsec
e.
4.1 arcsec
SHORT ANSWER
1.
Explain why the largest
telescopes are not refracting telescopes.
2.
Why do reflecting
telescopes use curved mirrors instead of flat mirrors?
3.
Explain why stars
twinkle when viewed from the ground. Would they twinkle if they were viewed
from outer space?
4.
When a ray of light
passes from vacuum into a material, what is the speed of light inside the
material?
5.
A ray of light is
incident on a flat mirror at an angle of 15° degrees from the vertical, what is
the angle of reflection, so the angle of reflection is also 15 degrees from the
vertical.
6.
Explain how adaptive optics
help compensate for atmospheric seeing.
7.
Explain why chromatic
aberration is a problem for refracting lenses but not for reflecting mirrors.
8.
Label the eyepiece,
lens, focus, and focal length of the telescope shown in the figure below.
9.
In what way are Arecibo
and the human eye similar?
10.
Label the eyepiece,
primary mirror, secondary mirror, focus, and focal length of the telescope
shown in the figure below.
11.
Explain what happens
when white light is refracted by a prism.
12.
In 2009, the Cassini
spacecraft made repeated orbits around Titan, Saturn’s largest moon. If this
spacecraft orbited at an altitude of 1,000 km above Titan’s surface and its
high-resolution camera had an angular resolution of 3 arcsec, how large an
object could be resolved on Titan’s surface?
13.
Calculate the
resolution of an interferometric array consisting of five 10-m radio
telescopes, each located 1,000 m apart from each other and observing a distant
object at a wavelength of 21 cm.
14.
What is the angular
resolution of a 1-m, ground-based, optical telescope that observes at a
wavelength of 600 nm compared to that of a 300-ft, single-dish radio telescope
that observes at a wavelength of 21 cm?
15.
Explain three major
advantages of CCDs over other imaging techniques.
16.
What is quantum
efficiency?
17.
When you look at the
side of a CD where the data are stored, why do you observe a rainbow?
18.
Why is it difficult to
view low-surface-brightness, such as the Andromeda Galaxy, with the naked eye?
Does the view improve with the use of a telescope? What is needed to get a
bright, clear view of the Andromeda Galaxy, as commonly seen in pictures?
19.
Explain how a
spectrograph works.
20.
Explain the difference
between dispersion and diffraction. How can both phenomena be used to create a
spectrum?
21.
Where is the best place
to put a ground-based optical telescope? Discuss the reasons for your
selection.
22.
Name two reasons why
astronomers might use a space telescope over a ground-based telescope.
23.
Why don’t astronomers
put all telescopes in space?
24.
Why does combining the
light from smaller telescopes give observation results comparable to those of a
single large telescope with a diameter equal to the separation of the two
smaller telescopes?
25.
Discuss two advantages
of flyby missions over orbiters in exploring planets and moons in the solar
system.
26.
What are some
advantages and disadvantages of using landers to explore the solar system?
27.
What are gravitational
waves? Have astronomers been able to detect them yet?
28.
Discuss two tools that
modern astronomers use to explore the cosmos that are different from
traditional optical telescopes and give an example of how and why each is used.
29.
How much larger is the
light-gathering power of a 10-inch telescope than the human eye?
30.
What is the diffraction
limit of a 4-m telescope observing at a wavelength of 650 nm?
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Chapter
7: The Birth and Evolution of Planetary Systems
Learning Objectives
Define the bold-faced vocabulary terms within the chapter.
Multiple Choice: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 17, 27, 28, 29, 42
Short Answer: 7.1 Planetary Systems Form
around a Star
Illustrate the nebular hypothesis for solar system formation.
Multiple Choice: 5
Short Answer: Describe how astronomers and geologists arrived
at the same conclusions about Earth’s origins from different pieces of
evidence.
Multiple Choice: 3
Short Answer7.2 The Solar System Began with
a Disk
Explain conservation of angular momentum.
Multiple Choice: 9, 11, 13
Short Answer: Illustrate how accretion disks transfer angular
momentum so that stars and planets can collapse.
Multiple Choice: 10, 12, 14, 15
Short Answer: Describe the formation sequence of
planetesimals in an accretion disk.
Multiple Choice: 6, 7
7.3 The Inner Disk and Outer Disk Formed
at Different Temperatures
Explain conservation of energy.
Multiple Choice: 18, 21
Use conservation of energy to argue why material falling on
an accretion disk heats the disk up.
Multiple Choice: 24, 25
Short Answer:
Distinguish between refractory and volatile materials.
Multiple Choice: 22
Short Answer: Relate the temperature of an accretion disk to
the presence of different types of materials (e.g. refractory, volatile,
organic, ice) within the disk.
Multiple Choice: 23, 26
Short Answer: Compare and contrast primary and secondary
atmospheres.
Multiple Choice: 19, 20
Short Answer: 7.4 The Formation of Our Solar
System
Compare and contrast terrestrial and giant planets.
Multiple Choice: 31, 40
Describe how planetesimals become planets.
Multiple Choice: 32, 33, 34, 35, 37, 38, 39
Short Answer:
Show how temperature differences in our accretion disk led to
the formation of terrestrial and giant planets.
Multiple Choice: 30, 36
7.5 Planetary Systems Are Common
Summarize the five methods that astronomers use to detect
extrasolar planets.
Multiple Choice: 41, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 50, 51, 52, 55,
56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61, 62, 63, 64, 65
Short Answer: Describe how planetary migration accounts for
hot Jupiters being located very close to their host stars.
Multiple Choice: 49, 53, 54
Short Answer:
Working It Out 7.1
Compute and compare orbital and spin angular momentum.
Multiple Choice: 66, 67, 68, 69
Short Answer: Working It Out 7.2
Use Kepler’s third law to calculate the size of a planet’s
orbit.
Working It Out 7.3
Estimate the size of a planet by considering how much of its
parent star’s light it occults.
Multiple Choice: 70
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
What is a protostar?
a.
a planet like Jupiter
b.
a hot star
c.
a large ball of gas not
yet hot enough at its core to be a star
d.
a large ball of gas too
hot at its core to be a star
e.
a star with too much
angular momentum
2.
What is a meteorite?
a.
a streak of light in
the sky
b.
a rock that fell to
Earth from space
c.
a fireball
d.
a volcanic rock
e.
an iron-rich rock
3.
What have astronomers
and geologists studied to arrive at the same conclusions about Earth’s origins?
a.
volcanism in the solar
system
b.
comets
c.
meteorites
d.
the Moon
e.
the oceans
4.
The icy planetesimals
that remain in the solar system today are called
a.
asteroids.
b.
moons.
c.
meteorites.
d.
comet nuclei.
5.
Which of the following
is not a characteristic of the early Solar System, based on current
observations?
a.
The early solar nebula
must have been flattened.
b.
The material from which
the planets formed was swirling about the Sun in the same average rotational
direction.
c.
The first objects to
form started out small and grew in size over time.
d.
The initial composition
of the solar nebula varied between its inner and outer regions.
e.
Temperatures decreased
with increasing distance from the Sun.
6.
The smallest grains of
dust stick together in an accretion disk by which force?
a.
gravitational force
b.
electrostatic force
c.
magnetic force
d.
quantum mechanical
force
e.
strong force
7.
In order for two clumps
of dust to stick together in an accretion disk, they must collide at roughly
a.
100 m/s.
b.
10 m/s.
c.
1 m/s.
d.
0.5 m/s.
e.
0.1 m/s or less.
8.
What is a planetesimal?
a.
bodies of ice and rock
100 meters or more in diameter
b.
bodies of ice and rock
10 meters or less in diameter
c.
bodies of ice and rock
about 1 meter in diameter
d.
another name for dwarf
planets
e.
planets that haven’t
cleared their orbits
9.
According to the
conservation of angular momentum, if an ice-skater who is spinning with her
arms out wide slowly pulls them close to her body, this will cause her to . . .
a.
spin faster.
b.
spin slower.
c.
maintain a constant
rate of spin.
d.
fall down.
10.
Approximately how much
mass was there in the protoplanetary disk out of which the planets formed,
compared to the mass of the Sun?
a.
50 percent
b.
25 percent
c.
10 percent
d.
5 percent
e.
< 1 percent
11.
In the figure shown
below, the direction of the disk’s rotation is indicated. What is the direction
of the protostellar Sun’s rotation?
a.
impossible to tell
b.
in the opposite
direction as the disk’s rotation
c.
in the same direction
as the disk’s rotation
d.
perpendicular to the
disk’s rotation
12.
Consider the figure
shown below. At which point in time does the collapsing cloud have the greatest
angular momentum?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
1 and 2, because the
protostar has not yet formed
e.
The cloud has the same
angular momentum at each point in time.
13.
The fact that Jupiter’s
radius is contracting at a rate of 1 mm per year results in
a.
Jupiter’s rotation rate
slowing down with time.
b.
Jupiter’s shape being
noticeably oblate.
c.
Jupiter moving slightly
farther from the Sun with time.
d.
Jupiter radiating more
heat than it receives from the Sun.
e.
Jupiter having a strong
magnetic field.
14.
If a collapsing
interstellar cloud formed only a protostar without an accretion disk around it,
what would happen?
a.
The forming protostar
would be significantly less massive than it would have been otherwise.
b.
The forming protostar
would be rotating too fast to hold itself together.
c.
Only giant planets
would form around the protostar.
d.
Only terrestrial
planets would form around the protostar.
e.
More planets would form
around the protostar.
15.
Conservation of angular
momentum slows a cloud’s collapse
a.
equally in all
directions.
b.
only when the cloud is
not rotating initially.
c.
mostly along directions
perpendicular to the cloud’s axis of rotation.
d.
mostly at the poles
that lie along the cloud’s axis of rotation.
e.
to a complete stop.
16.
What is a primary
atmosphere?
a.
the atmospheres that
all planets have today
b.
the gas captured during
the planet’s formation
c.
the gas captured after
the planet’s formation
d.
the oxygen and nitrogen
in Earth’s atmosphere
e.
the gas closest to the
planet’s surface
17.
What is a secondary
atmosphere?
a.
the atmosphere that
escapes
b.
the gas captured during
the planet’s formation
c.
the gas farthest from
the surface
d.
the atmosphere that
remains after the planet has formed
e.
the gas closest to the
planet surface
18.
Consider four spheres
of equal mass and size. Which has the most potential energy?
a.
a sphere on the top
shelf of a bookshelf
b.
a sphere rolling on the
floor at the base of the bookshelf
c.
a sphere sitting at
rest on the floor at the base of the bookshelf
d.
a sphere on the middle
shelf of a bookshelf
e.
a sphere that fell from
the top shelf to the floor
.
19.
The atmosphere of which
of these Solar System bodies is primary, as opposed to secondary, in origin?
a.
Venus
b.
Earth
c.
Saturn’s moon Titan
d.
Saturn
e.
Mars
20.
The primary atmospheres
of the planets are made mostly of
a.
carbon and oxygen.
b.
hydrogen and helium.
c.
oxygen and nitrogen.
d.
iron and nickel.
e.
nitrogen and argon.
21.
When you push your
palms together and rub them back and forth, you are demonstrating one way of
converting _________ energy into _________ energy.
a.
potential; thermal
b.
kinetic; potential
c.
thermal; kinetic
d.
kinetic; thermal
e.
potential; total
22.
The solid form of a
volatile material is generally referred to as a(n)
a.
metal.
b.
silicate.
c.
ice.
d.
rock.
e.
refractory material.
23.
Based on the figure
shown below, which planet(s) is(are) most likely to have the largest fraction
of its(their) mass made of highly volatile materials such as methane and
ammonia?
a.
Venus, Earth, and Mars
b.
Earth
c.
Saturn
d.
Jupiter
e.
Uranus
24.
What happens to the
kinetic energy of gas as it falls toward and eventually hits the accretion disk
surrounding a protostar?
a.
It is immediately
converted into photons, giving off a flash of light on impact.
b.
It is converted into
thermal energy, heating the disk.
c.
It is converted into
potential energy as the gas plows through the disk and comes out the other
side.
d.
It becomes the kinetic
energy of the orbit of the gas in the accretion disk around the protostar.
e.
It disappears into
interstellar space.
25.
What sets the
temperature of the pocket of gas in a protoplanetary disk?
a.
its distance from the
forming star
b.
how much kinetic energy
was converted to heat
c.
how much radiation from
the forming star shines on the gas
d.
a combination of A, B,
and C
26.
Whether or not a planet
is composed mostly of rock or gas is set by
a.
its mass.
b.
its temperature.
c.
its distance from the
star when it formed.
d.
a combination of A, B,
and C
27.
Which of the following
is a terrestrial planet?
a.
Mercury
b.
Jupiter
c.
Venus
d.
both A and B
e.
both A and C
28.
Which of the following
is a giant planet?
a.
Mercury
b.
Jupiter
c.
Venus
d.
both A and B
e.
both A and C
29.
Which is the best
description of a moon?
a.
any small icy body in
the solar system
b.
any small rocky body in
the solar system
c.
any natural satellite
of a planet or asteroid
d.
a captured asteroid
e.
a captured comet
30.
What is the most
important factor in determining whether or not a planet will be rocky like
terrestrial planets or gaseous like giant planets?
a.
the time at which the
planet forms
b.
the planet’s radius
c.
the planet’s distance
from the Sun
d.
whether the planet has
moons
e.
the planet’s internal
temperature
31.
Why do the outer giant
planets have massive gaseous atmospheres of hydrogen and helium whereas the
inner planets do not?
a.
These gases were more
abundant in the outer regions of the accretion disk where the outer planets
formed.
b.
The outer planets grew
massive quickly enough to gravitationally hold on to these gases before the
solar wind dispersed the accretion disk.
c.
The inner planets are
made of rock.
d.
Frequent early
collisions by comets with the inner planets caused most of their original
atmospheres to dissipate.
32.
Comets and asteroids
are
a.
other names for moons
of the planets.
b.
primarily located
within 1 astronomical unit (AU) of the Sun.
c.
all more massive than
Earth’s Moon.
d.
material left over from
the formation of the planets.
e.
other names for
meteors.
33.
The Moon probably
formed
a.
out of a collision
between Earth and a Mars-sized object.
b.
when Earth’s gravity
captured a planetesimal.
c.
when the accretion disk
around Earth fragmented.
d.
when planetesimals
collided to form a more massive object.
e.
when a piece of Earth
broke off and entered orbit.
34.
What prevented the Moon
from maintaining any atmosphere with which it originally formed?
a.
It repeatedly collided
with planetesimals.
b.
It is too close to the
Sun.
c.
The solar wind blew it
away.
d.
It is not massive
enough.
e.
It is tidally locked to
Earth.
35.
Which of the following
is not considered evidence of cataclysmic impacts in the history of our
Solar System?
a.
Uranus is “tipped over”
so that it rotates on its side.
b.
Valles Marineris on
Mars is a huge scar, many times deeper than the Grand Canyon, which spans
one-fourth the circumference of the planet.
c.
Mercury has a crust
that has buckled on the opposite side of an impact crater.
d.
Mimas has a crater
whose diameter is roughly one-third of the Moon’s size.
e.
Mercury, Earth’s Moon,
and many other small bodies are covered with many impact craters.
36.
The difference in
composition between the giant planets and the terrestrial planets is most
likely caused by the fact that
a.
the giant planets are
much larger.
b.
only the terrestrial
planets have iron cores.
c.
the terrestrial planets
are closer to the Sun.
d.
the giant planets are
made mostly of carbon.
e.
only small differences
in chemical composition existed in the solar nebula.
37.
Two competing models of
the formation of giant gaseous planets suggest they form either from gas
accreting onto a rocky core or from
a.
fragmentation of the
accretion disk that surrounds the protostar.
b.
the merger of two large
planetesimals.
c.
planets stolen from
another nearby protostar.
d.
materials condensing
out of the solar wind.
e.
an eruption of material
from the protostar.
38.
Was it ever possible
(or is it currently possible) for Jupiter to become a star?
a.
Yes, it is in the
process of becoming a star in the near future.
b.
Yes, but it cooled off
before it could become a star.
c.
No, it would have to be
at least 13 times more massive.
d.
No, its composition is
too different from stars for it to become one.
e.
No, it used to be
massive enough, but the solar wind has blown off too much of its mass.
39.
How much material in an
accretion disk goes into forming the planets, moons, and smaller objects?
a.
most of it
b.
roughly half of it
c.
none; these objects
were not formed in the accretion disk
d.
a small amount of it
40.
Why do the terrestrial
planets have a much higher fraction of their mass in heavy chemical elements
(as opposed to lighter chemical elements) than the giant planets?
a.
Terrestrial planets are
low in mass and high in temperature, thus their lighter chemical elements
eventually escaped to the outer reaches of the Solar System.
b.
The heavier elements in
the forming solar nebula sank to the center of the Solar System, thus the inner
terrestrial planets formed mostly from heavy chemical elements.
c.
The giant planets were
more massive than terrestrial planets, and the giant planets preferentially
pulled the lighter elements from the inner to the outer Solar System.
d.
Terrestrial planets
formed much earlier than giant planets before the hydrogen and helium had a
chance to cool and condense onto them.
e.
Terrestrial planets are
colder and thus more massive chemical elements condensed on them than on the
giant planets.
41.
Which property of an
extrasolar planet cannot be determined using the Doppler effect?
a.
orbital period
b.
orbital distance
c.
orbital speed
d.
mass
e.
radius
42.
What is the habitable
zone?
a.
the distance from a
star where liquid water can exist
b.
the location on the sky
where planets can be found
c.
the distance from a
star where liquid can exist
d.
the distance from a
star where planets have oxygen in the atmosphere
e.
1 AU from any star
43.
Which method can be
used to determine the radius of an extrasolar planet?
a.
Doppler shift
b.
transit
c.
microlensing
d.
direct imaging
e.
none of the above
44.
Most planets currently
found around other stars are
a.
rocky in composition
like terrestrial planets.
b.
2 to 10 MEarth,
which is smaller than Neptune.
c.
2 to 10 MJupiter.
d.
located at distances
much larger than Jupiter’s distance from the Sun.
e.
similar in mass to
Earth.
45.
Which is not a
scientific goal of NASA’s Kepler mission?
a.
finding Earth-sized
planets
b.
finding rocky planets
c.
finding Earth-sized
planets that could have liquid water
d.
finding intelligent
life on other planets
e.
All the above are goals
of the Kepler mission
46.
Consider a star that is
more massive and hotter than the Sun. For such a star, the habitable zone would
a.
be located inside 1 AU.
b.
be located outside 1AU.
c.
not exist at any radii.
d.
exist at every radii.
47.
The Kepler mission is
designed to search for extrasolar planets using the _________ method.
a.
Doppler shift
b.
transit
c.
microlensing
d.
direct imaging
48.
Earth-sized planets
have been found using the _________ method(s).
a.
Doppler shift
b.
transit and Doppler
shift
c.
microlensing
d.
direct imaging
e.
transit
49.
Astronomers believe
that the “hot Jupiters” found orbiting other stars must have migrated inward
over time
a.
by slowly accreting
large amounts of gas and increasing their gravitational pull.
b.
by losing their gas
because of evaporation.
c.
by losing orbital
angular momentum.
d.
after colliding with
another planet.
e.
after a close encounter
between their star and another star.
50.
The borderline between
the most massive planet and the least massive brown dwarf occurs at
a.
4 Jupiter masses.
b.
13 Jupiter masses.
c.
120 Jupiter masses.
d.
80 Jupiter masses.
e.
45 Jupiter masses.
51.
Have astronomers
detected any Earth-sized planets around normal stars yet?
a.
Yes, the Kepler
spacecraft is just starting to find them.
b.
Yes, although the ones
detected lie much closer to their stars than we do to ours.
c.
Yes, although the ones
detected lie much farther from their stars than we do from ours.
d.
No, we do not have the
technology to detect such low-mass planets yet.
e.
No; although we have
the technology to detect low-mass planets, we haven’t found any others yet.
52.
Why have astronomers
using the radial velocity method found more Jupiter-sized planets at a distance
of 1 AU around other stars than Earth-sized planets?
a.
A Jupiter-sized planet
occults a larger area than an Earth-sized planet.
b.
A Jupiter-sized planet
exerts a larger gravitational force on the star than an Earth-sized planet, and
the Doppler shift of the star is larger.
c.
A Jupiter-sized planet
shines brighter than an Earth-sized planet.
d.
Earth-sized planets are
much rarer than Jupiter-sized planets.
e.
Actually, the planets
found at these distances all have been Earth-sized.
53.
When astronomers began
searching for extrasolar planets, they were surprised to discover Jupiter-sized
planets much closer than 1 AU from their parent stars. Why is this surprising?
a.
These planets must have
formed at larger radii where temperatures were cooler and then migrated inward.
b.
Jupiter-sized, rocky
planets were thought to be uncommon in other solar systems.
c.
These planets must be
the remnants of failed stars.
d.
Earth-like planets must
be rarer than Jupiter-sized planets in other solar systems.
e.
Jupiter-sized planets
so close to the star are different than in our Solar System.
54.
Which of the following
is false?
a.
Hundreds of extrasolar
planets have been discovered to date from radial velocity surveys.
b.
The most common types
of extrasolar planets found to date have masses 10 times the mass of Jupiter
and lie within 5 AU from their parent star.
c.
Some planetary systems
have been found that contain multiple planets.
d.
A star can brighten
significantly because of gravitational lensing when a planet that orbits it
passes directly in front of the star.
e.
The Kepler mission has
begun to find terrestrial planets similar in size to Earth.
55.
Astronomers have used
radial velocity monitoring to discover
a.
extrasolar planetary
systems that are similar to our own Solar System.
b.
Earth-sized planets
around other stars.
c.
Earth-sized planets at
distances of 10 AU from their parent stars.
d.
extrasolar planetary
systems that contain more than one planet.
e.
all of the above
56.
An observer located
outside our Solar System, who monitors the velocity of our Sun over time, will
find that the Sun’s velocity varies by ± 12 m/s over a period of 12 years, due to
a.
Jupiter’s gravitational
pull.
b.
Earth’s gravitational
pull.
c.
variations in its
brightness.
d.
convection on the Sun’s
surface.
e.
the sunspot cycle.
57.
Detecting a planet
around another star using the transit method is difficult because the
a.
planet must pass
directly in front of the star.
b.
planet must have a
rocky composition.
c.
star must be very dim.
d.
star must be moving
with respect to us.
e.
planet’s orbital period
is usually longer than 1 month.
58.
In the figure below,
which of the dips in the brightness of the star is(are) caused by the transit
of the planet with the largest orbital period?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
A and B
e.
B and C
59.
Figure 7.4 shows data
from the transit study of a star in which three different planets repeatedly
transit in front of the star (A, B, and C). Which dip is(are) caused by the
transit of the planet with the smallest radius?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
A, B, and C
e.
impossible to tell from
these data
60.
Using the Doppler
effect data shown in the figure below, determine the approximate orbital period
of the extrasolar planet.
a.
1 year
b.
3 years
c.
6 years
d.
8 years
e.
12 years
61.
Using the Doppler
effect data for a particular star shown in Figure 7.5 and assuming the star is
about the same mass as our Sun, determine the approximate orbital distance of
its exoplanet.
a.
1.1 AU
b.
6.4 AU
c.
18 AU
d.
36 AU
e.
3.3 AU
62.
From the data shown in
Figure 7.5, which property of an extrasolar planet cannot be determined?
a.
orbital period
b.
orbital distance
c.
radius
d.
mass
e.
All of the above
properties can be determined.
63.
What is the best method
to detect Earth-sized exoplanets with the telescopes and instrumentation that
exist today?
a.
Doppler shift
b.
Transit
c.
Microlensing
d.
Direct imaging
.
64.
Which of the following
is false?
a.
The masses of
exoplanets can be determined using the radial velocity technique.
b.
Most of the exoplanets
detected to date have masses that are between 2 and 10 MEarth.
c.
Some exoplanets have
been found in the habitable zone around their stars.
d.
Using the transit
technique, the Kepler satellite has detected rocky planets.
e.
No images of exoplanets
have been obtained because they are too far away.
65.
In the figure shown
below, what can be directly measured from the information given?
a.
the mass of the planet
b.
percentage reduction in
light
c.
size of the planet
d.
orbital radius of the
planet
e.
distance of the star
66.
What is the ratio of
the orbital angular momentum of Earth compared to its spin angular momentum?
Note that Earth has a radius of 6 × 106 m, and 1 AU is 1.5 × 1011
m.
a.
1
b.
70
c.
640
d.
25,000
e.
4.3 ×
106
67.
What is the ratio of
the orbital angular momentum of Jupiter to its spin angular momentum? Jupiter’s
orbit has a semimajor axis of 5 AU and period of 12 years, and Jupiter has a
rotation period of 0.4 day and a radius of 70,000 km.
a.
650,000
b.
26,000
c.
920
d.
38
e.
4.5
68.
If an interstellar
cloud having a diameter of 1016 m and a rotation period of 1 million
years were to collapse to form a sphere that had the diameter of our Solar
System, approximately 40 AU, what would its rotation period be? Assume the
cloud’s total mass and angular momentum did not change.
a.
1 million years
b.
600 years
c.
1 year
d.
6 years
e.
4 months
69.
Consider a small parcel
of gas in the cloud out of which the Sun formed that initially was located in
the accretion disk at a distance of 10 AU from the Sun and rotating around it
with a speed of 10 km/s. If this parcel of gas eventually found its way to a
distance of 1 AU from the Sun without changing its orbital angular momentum,
what would be its new rotation speed?
a.
100 km/s
b.
0.1 km/s
c.
0.001 km/s
d.
10 km/s
e.
1,000 km/s
70.
If an astronomer on a
planet orbiting a nearby star observed the Sun when Neptune was transiting in
front of the Sun, how would the Sun’s brightness change? Note that the radius
of Neptune is 2.5 × 107 m.
a.
The Sun’s brightness
would decrease by 0.1 percent.
b.
The Sun’s brightness
would increase by 0.1 percent.
c.
The Sun’s brightness
would increase by 1 percent.
d.
The Sun’s brightness
would decrease by 1 percent.
e.
The Sun’s brightness
would not change at all.
SHORT ANSWER
1.
Explain the nebular
hypothesis, and describe two observations that support it.
2.
Explain why astronomers
believe that the formation of planets is a natural by-product of star
formation.
3.
How do meteorites tell
us about how the solar system formed?
4.
What does conservation
of angular momentum mean?
5.
What evidence do we
have that the accretion disk that formed the Solar System was initially much
more dense near its center?
6.
Explain why an
accretion disk forms around a protostar when an interstellar cloud collapses.
7.
What happens to a
slowly rotating cloud as it collapses to form a stellar system?
8.
What is the difference
between refractory and volatile materials?
9.
Explain why there are
significant amounts of methane and ammonia in the atmospheres of Uranus and
Neptune but not nearly as much in the atmospheres of Jupiter and Saturn.
10.
Why does an accretion
disk heat up?
11.
The primary atmosphere
of Earth consisted of what type of chemical elements and from where did it
originate? What chemical elements did the secondary atmosphere of Earth consist
of and from where did it originate?
12.
Explain the primary
reasons why the inner solar nebula was hotter than the outer solar nebula.
13.
Why did the terrestrial
planets lose their primary atmospheres?
14.
How do astronomers
explain the basic difference in composition between the inner planets and the
outer planets?
15.
Why did the
planetesimals in the asteroid belt never coalesce into a planet?
16.
Why might a newly
discovered comet contain clues to the composition of the early solar nebula?
17.
What are craters in the
solar system evidence of?
18.
How did the formation
of our Moon differ from the formation of the Galilean moons of Jupiter?
19.
Approximately how massive
are most of the extrasolar planets that have been discovered using the Doppler
effect, and which planet in our Solar System is similar in mass? Why is the
Doppler effect method more likely to find massive (rather than low-mass)
planets and planets that are close to their stars?
20.
Explain why most of the
extrasolar planets that astronomers first detected were so-called “hot
Jupiters.”
21.
Have any Earth-sized,
terrestrial, extrasolar planets been detected? If so, explain what method(s)
is(are) used.
22.
In addition to the
percentage reduction in light, is anything else needed to determine the size of
the transiting planet?
23.
Explain how astronomers
use the Doppler effect to detect the presence of extrasolar planets.
24.
What property of an
extrasolar planet can be determined directly from the Doppler effect data shown
in the figure below? What other properties of the planet can then be
determined?
25.
Briefly explain the
five different observational methods we use to detect extrasolar planets. How
many extrasolar planets have been discovered to date?
26.
What evidence do we
have that planetary systems are common in the universe?
27.
What is planet
migration?
28.
What are some
limitations of the radial velocity method of exoplanet detection?
29.
What are some
limitations of the transit method of exoplanet detection?
30.
Compare the orbital
angular momentum of Earth and Jupiter. Which is larger and by how much? (Note
that Jupiter’s mass is 318 times that of Earth, the semimajor axis of Jupiter’s
orbit is 5.2 AU, and Jupiter’s orbital period is 12 years.)
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