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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 1
Evolution, the Themes of biology, and Scientific Inquiry
1)
Cells are _____.
A)
only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
B)
limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
C)
characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
D)
characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
2)
In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes _____.
A)
are more structurally complex
B)
are larger
C)
are smaller
D)
do not have membranes
3)
Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as
their genetic material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear
envelope?
A)
animal
B)
plant
C)
archaean
D)
fungi
4)
To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the
molecular structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of which
concept to the study of biology?
A)
evolution
B)
emergent properties
C)
reductionism
D)
feedback regulation
5)
A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a
_____.
A)
community
B)
population
C)
ecosystem
D)
family
6)
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the complexity of
biological systems?
A)
An understanding of the interactions between different components within a
living system is a key goal of a systems biology approach to understanding
biological complexity.
B)
Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insight into
its structure and organization.
C)
Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the
functioning of a living cell.
D)
An ecosystem displays complex properties not present in the individual
communities within it.
7)
When a person gets dehydrated while exercising on a hot day, their pituitary
gland releases ADH, a hormone that signals the kidneys to retain more
water. This is an example of
A)
Positive feedback regulation
B)
Negative feedback regulation
C)
Chemical cycling
D)
Emergent properties
8)
Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the
domains?
A)
Bacteria and Eukarya
B)
Archaea and Monera
C)
Bacteria and Protista
D)
Bacteria and Archaea
9)
Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A)
near universality of the genetic code
B)
structure of the nucleus
C)
structure of cilia
D)
structure of chloroplasts
10)
Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of
organisms?
A)
informatics
B)
taxonomy
C)
genomics
D)
evolution
11)
The phylogenetic tree below _____.
A)
depicts the three major domains of life
B)
includes unicellular but not multicellular life
C)
includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex
animals and plants
D)
includes noncellular life-forms
12)
In the diagram below, "A" is _____ ; "B" is _____.
A)
the most recent species to evolve on Earth; an ancestor of group "A"
B)
the most recent species to evolve on Earth; the last common ancestor of Archaea
and Eukarya
C)
the common ancestor of all life; the common ancestor of Bacteria and Archaea
D)
the common ancestor of all life; the last common ancestor of Archaea and
Eukarya
13)
You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the
following do you and the rose have in common?
A)
You both are multicellular.
B)
You both lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
C)
You are both prokaryotic.
D)
You and the rose have nothing in common.
14)
Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?
A)
It requires genetic variation.
B)
It results in descent with modification.
C)
It involves differential reproductive success.
D)
It requires genetic variation, results in descent with modification, and
involves differential reproductive success.
15)
Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated
that organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when
they possess _____.
A)
non-heritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment
B)
non-heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in
the local environment
C)
heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the
local environment
D)
heritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the
local environment
16)
Which of the following best describes what occurred after the publication of
Charles Darwin's On the Origin of Species?
A)
The publisher was pressured to cease distribution.
B)
The book was banned from schools.
C)
The book was widely discussed and disseminated.
D)
The book was discredited by most scientists.
17)
Darwin's finches, collected from the Galápagos Islands, illustrate which of the
following?
A)
mutation frequency
B)
ancestors from different regions
C)
adaptive radiation
D)
vestigial anatomical structures
E)
the accuracy of the fossil record
18)
Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on
their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer
hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the
hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should
_____.
A)
test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B)
look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
C)
determine if hair length is heritable
D)
test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
The
following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).
A
researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs
are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees
are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs
that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But
caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs.
How
does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars
on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female
moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one
egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least
two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and
light conditions listed below.
In
each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the
other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4
environments × 2 diets).
19)
Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible
hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in
this population?
A)
The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B)
The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike
caterpillars.
C)
Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the
development of different types of caterpillars.
D)
Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
20)
Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak
flowers look like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on
oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the following
hypotheses?
A)
The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B)
Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
C)
Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D)
The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike
caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
21)
Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were
exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental
design tested which of the following hypotheses?
A)
The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B)
Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
C)
Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D)
The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike
caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
22)
Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring
looked like flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs.
What is the most likely selective advantage for this difference in body shape?
A)
Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their
environment more efficiently.
B)
Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like
twigs than like flowers.
C)
Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their
surroundings, reducing predation.
D)
Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding
efficiency; this would increase their growth rate and survival rate.
23)
How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?
A)
Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses.
B)
Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses
typically address more specific issues.
C)
Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories
typically address more specific issues.
D)
Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories.
24)
A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He
asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so,
then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing
so, you are _____.
A)
testing a theory for why the car will not start
B)
making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start
C)
stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction
D)
comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start
25)
Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are
asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become
infected. Which of the following experiments will provide the best data to
address that question?
A)
Determine the survival rate of Agrobacterium when exposed to different
concentrations of an antibiotic.
B)
Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various
concentrations of Agrobacterium.
C)
Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil
environments where the plants grow.
D)
Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to Agrobacterium
for different lengths of time.
26)
Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You
determine that tumor formation requires a large amount of the plant's energy
for tissue formation. How might this change the number of offspring a plant
produces, and what is the most likely explanation for this change?
A)
The number of offspring should increase, because in general, illness increases
the reproductive output of organisms.
B)
The number of offspring should increase, because the bacteria will provide
energy for the plant.
C)
The number of offspring should decrease, because the plant will divert energy
from reproduction to tumor formation.
D)
There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because energy
for reproduction is independent of infection.
Use
the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).
In
1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous
generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical
jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the
same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars
completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while
allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the
jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
27)
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. What hypothesis was being tested
in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars?
A)
Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.
B)
The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.
C)
Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies.
D)
Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air.
28)
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, flies
appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the
following statements is correct?
A)
The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.
B)
The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.
C)
The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in
rotting meat.
D)
The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid
by adult flies.
29)
The best experimental design _____.
A)
includes a large sample size for each condition
B)
includes a control
C)
alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
D)
includes a large sample size and a control, and alters only one condition
between the controls and the experimental condition
30)
In the process of science, which of these is tested?
A)
a result
B)
an observation
C)
a hypothesis
D)
a control group
31)
A controlled experiment _____.
A)
is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate
B)
includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental
treatment
C)
includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more
variables
D)
includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables
32)
Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?
I. It is testable.
II. It is falsifiable.
III. It produces quantitative data.
IV. It produces results that can be
replicated.
A)
I only
B)
III only
C)
I and II
D)
III and IV
33)
In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show
that most of their measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their
graph. However, two of their data points are "outliers" and fall far
to one side of the expected relationship. What should they do?
A)
Do not show these points because clearly something went wrong in the
experiment.
B)
Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them
in the final work.
C)
Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these
outliers.
D)
Change the details of the experiment until they can obtain the expected
results.
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
34)
Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?
A)
The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.
B)
The control group is matched with the experimental group except for one
experimental variable.
C)
The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.
D)
Only the experimental group is tested or measured.
35)
Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?
A)
Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are
photosynthetic; therefore, the species is photosynthetic.
B)
These organisms live in sunny regions. Therefore, they are using
photosynthesis.
C)
If protists are all single-celled, then they are incapable of aggregating.
D)
If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of
them could be to a different genus.
36)
The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as
_____.
A)
technology
B)
deductive science
C)
inductive science
D)
pure science
37)
Which of the following best describes a model organism?
A)
It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine.
B)
It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.
C)
It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.
D)
It has been chosen for study by early biologists.
38)
Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view,
from different subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures?
A)
Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific
thinking.
B)
Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways.
C)
This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results.
D)
People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because
everyone has a right to an opinion in science.
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 2 The
Chemical Context of Life
1)
About twenty-five of the ninety-two natural elements are known to be essential
to life. Which four of these twenty-five elements make up approximately 96
percent of living matter?
A)
carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B)
carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C)
oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D)
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
2)
Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities.
Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other
vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as bacteria or plants?
A)
calcium
B)
iodine
C)
sodium
D)
phosphorus
3)
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living
matter.
B)
Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.
C)
All life requires the same essential elements.
D)
Iron is needed by all humans.
4)
Which of the following are compounds?
A)
H2O, O2, and CH4
B)
H2O and
O2
C)
O2 and CH4
D)
H2O and
CH4, but
not O2
5)
Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the
following?
A)
the number of electrons in the element
B)
the number of protons in the element
C)
the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
D)
the number of protons plus electrons in the element
6)
In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same?
They have the same number of _____.
A)
protons
B)
electrons when neutral
C)
electrons in their valence shells when neutral
D)
electron shells when neutral
7)
Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass
numbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?
A)
Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B)
Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.
C)
Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.
D)
Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.
8)
Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12.
However, the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is
slightly more than 12 daltons. Why?
A)
The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B)
Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C)
Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D)
Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
9)
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms
described below?
A)
They are isomers.
B)
They are isotopes.
C)
They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
D)
They each contain only 1 neutron.
10)
The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 has a greater mass number than
nitrogen-14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains _____.
A)
7 neutrons
B)
8 neutrons
C)
8 protons
D)
15 protons
11)
From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus
atom has _____.
A)
5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons
B)
15 neutrons and 15 protons
C)
8 electrons in its outermost electron shell
D)
15 protons and 15 electrons
12)
Fluorine has an atomic number of 9. Which of the following would you do to a
neutral fluorine atom to complete its valence shell?
A)
add 1 electron
B)
add 2 electrons
C)
remove 1 electron
D)
Nothing. If fluorine is neutral, it has a complete valance shell.
13)
Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. What is the most stable charge for a
magnesium ion?
A)
a +1 charge
B)
a +2 charge
C)
a -1 charge
D)
a -2 charge
Refer
to the following figure to answer the questions below.
14)
Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). What
element has properties most similar to carbon?
A)
boron
B)
silicon
C)
nitrogen
D)
phosphorus
15)
How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus-32 (32P) atom (see
the figure above)?
A)
15
B)
16
C)
17
D)
32
16)
How many electrons will a single atom of sulfur with no charge and no bonds
have in its valence shell (see the figure above)?
A)
6
B)
8
C)
16
D)
32
17)
Based on electron configuration, which of the elements in the figure above
would exhibit a chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
A)
carbon
B)
nitrogen
C)
sulfur
D)
phosphorus
18)
Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a
charge of +1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
19)
Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a
charge of -1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
20)
Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and most commonly, a mass number of 16. Thus,
what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?
A)
approximately 8 grams
B)
approximately 8 daltons
C)
approximately 16 grams
D)
approximately 16 daltons
21)
If you change the number of neutrons in an atom, you create _____.
A)
a cation
B)
an anion
C)
an isotope
D)
a different element
22)
Can the atomic mass of an element vary?
A)
No, it is fixed. If it changes at all then you have formed a different element.
B)
Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass.
C)
Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a
different element.
D)
Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a
different element.
23)
Which of the following is the best description of an atom's physical structure?
A)
An atom is a solid mass of material.
B)
The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.
C)
Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the
bubble.
D)
Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface
of the bubble.
24)
A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces.
Therefore, a salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a _____.
A)
slightly damp surface
B)
surface of hydrocarbons
C)
surface of mostly carbon-oxygen bonds
D)
surface of mostly carbon-nitrogen bonds
25)
A covalent chemical bond is one in which _____.
A)
electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the
two atoms become oppositely charged
B)
protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements
of both atoms
C)
outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill
their respective orbitals
D)
outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron
shell of another atom
26)
What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomic
number 8 can make with hydrogen?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
4
D)
6
27)
Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following
is a correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
A)
Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a
partial negative charge.
B)
Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
C)
Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D)
The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a
partial negative charge.
28)
Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are _____.
A)
hydrogen bonds
B)
polar covalent bonds
C)
nonpolar covalent bonds
D)
ionic bonds
29)
What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
A)
a nonpolar covalent bond
B)
a polar covalent bond
C)
an ionic bond
D)
a hydrophobic interaction
30)
A covalent bond is likely to be polar when _____.
A)
one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom
B)
the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative
C)
carbon is one of the two atoms sharing electrons
D)
the two atoms sharing electrons are the same elements
31)
What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
A)
Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic
bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms.
B)
Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds
involve the electrical attraction between charged atoms.
C)
Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds
involve the sharing of protons between charged atoms.
D)
Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between charged atoms; ionic
bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms.
32)
The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What
is the formula for magnesium chloride?
A)
MgCl
B)
MgCl2
C)
Mg2Cl
D)
MgCl3
33)
How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has
the formula C2H4?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
34)
Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put
into water?
A)
covalent bonds between carbon atoms
B)
hydrogen bonds
C)
ionic bonds
D)
ionic and hydrogen bonds
35)
Water molecules are attracted to one another by _____.
A)
nonpolar covalent bonds
B)
ionic bonds
C)
hydrogen bonds
D)
hydrophobic interactions
36)
Van der Waals interactions may result when _____.
A)
electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule
B)
molecules held by ionic bonds react with water
C)
two polar covalent bonds react
D)
a hydrogen atom loses an electron
37)
What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a
molecule containing two carbon atoms?
A)
2
B)
4
C)
6
D)
8
38)
What results from the chemical reaction illustrated above? The reactants have
no charge.
A)
a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
B)
a cation with a net charge of -1 and an anion with a net charge of -1
C)
a cation with a net charge of -1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
D)
a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of -1
39)
What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated
above?
A)
8
B)
10
C)
11
D)
16
40)
What causes the shape of the molecule shown above?
A)
the shape of the 2 p orbitals in the carbon atom
B)
the shape of the 1 s orbital in the carbon atom
C)
the shape of the sp3 hybrid orbitals of the
electrons shared between the carbon and hydrogen atoms
D)
hydrogen bonding configurations between the carbon and hydrogen atoms
41)
How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond?
A)
one
B)
two
C)
three
D)
four
42)
How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond?
A)
one
B)
two
C)
three
D)
four
43)
If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?
A)
It has two more protons than neutrons.
B)
It has the same number of protons as electrons.
C)
It has one more electron than it does protons.
D)
It has one more proton than it does electrons.
44)
Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that
are _____; these elements tend to form _____ in solution.
A)
almost empty; cations
B)
almost empty; anions
C)
almost full; cations
D)
almost full; anions
45)
An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds
is it capable of forming?
A)
single, double, or triple
B)
single and double only
C)
single bonds only
D)
double bonds only
46)
When are atoms most stable?
A)
when they have the fewest possible valence electrons
B)
when they have the maximum number of unpaired electrons
C)
when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled
D)
when all electrons are paired
47)
When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity,
what type of bond results?
A)
an ionic bond
B)
a hydrogen bond
C)
a nonpolar covalent bond
D)
a polar covalent bond
48)
Nitrogen (N) normally forms three covalent bonds with a valence of 5. However,
ammonium has four covalent bonds, each to a different hydrogen (H) atom (H has
a valence of 1). What do you predict to be the charge on ammonium?
A)
+1
B)
-1
C)
+2
D)
-2
49)
You need to write down information about a molecule, but need to indicate only
the type and number of atoms it contains. Which representation would work best?
A)
molecular formula
B)
structural formula
C)
ball-and-stick model
D)
space-filling model
50)
You need to represent a molecule to best illustrate the relative sizes of the
atoms involved and their interrelationships. Which representation would work
best?
A)
molecular formula
B)
structural formula
C)
ball-and-stick model
D)
space-filling model
51)
Which of the following is true for this reaction?
A)
The reaction is nonreversible.
B)
Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
C)
Ammonia is being formed and decomposed simultaneously.
D)
Only the forward or reverse reactions can occur at one time.
52)
Which of the following correctly describes all chemical equilibrium?
A)
Forward and reverse reactions continue with no net effect on the concentrations
of the reactants and products.
B)
Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
C)
There are equal concentrations of products and reactants while forward and
reverse reactions continue.
D)
There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions
have stopped.
53)
Which of the following correctly describes a reaction that has reached chemical
equilibrium?
A)
The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
B)
All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
C)
All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
D)
Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped, with no net effect on
the concentration of the reactants and the products.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 3 Water and
Life
1)
In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen
atom by _____.
A)
hydrogen bonds
B)
nonpolar covalent bonds
C)
polar covalent bonds
D)
ionic bonds
2)
The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is attracted to the
partial positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction
called?
A)
a covalent bond
B)
a hydrogen bond
C)
an ionic bond
D)
a van der Waals interaction
3)
The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because _____.
A)
the oxygen atom donates an electron to each of the hydrogen atoms
B)
the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time
around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus
C)
the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not
neutralized by hydrogen atoms
D)
one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom
4)
Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has
electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of
H2S will
_____.
A)
have greater cohesion to other molecules of H2S
B)
have a greater tendency to form hydrogen bonds with each other
C)
have a higher capacity to absorb heat for the same change in temperature
D)
not form hydrogen bonds with each other
5)
Water molecules can form hydrogen bonds with _____.
A)
compounds that have polar covalent bonds
B)
oils
C)
oxygen gas (O2)
molecules
D)
chloride ions
6)
Which of the following is a property of liquid water? Liquid water _____.
A)
is less dense than ice
B)
has a specific heat that is lower than that for most other substances
C)
has a heat of vaporization that is higher than that for most other substances
D)
is nonpolar
7)
Which of the following can be attributed to water's high specific heat?
A)
Oil and water do not mix well.
B)
A lake heats up more slowly than the air around it.
C)
Ice floats on water.
D)
Sugar dissolves in hot tea faster than in iced tea.
8)
The cities of Portland, Oregon, and Minneapolis, Minnesota, are at about the
same latitude, but Minneapolis has much hotter summers and much colder winters
than Portland. Why?
A)
They are not at the same exact latitude.
B)
The ocean near Portland moderates the temperature.
C)
Fresh water is more likely to freeze than salt water.
D)
Minneapolis is much windier, due to its location in the middle of North
America.
9)
To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance has to have the
capacity to absorb a great deal of heat. You have a reference book with tables
listing the physical properties of many liquids. In choosing a coolant for your
car, which table would you check first?
A)
pH
B)
density at room temperature
C)
heat of vaporization
D)
specific heat
10)
Water has many exceptional and useful properties. Which is the rarest property
among compounds?
A)
Water is a solvent.
B)
Solid water is less dense than liquid water.
C)
Water has a high heat capacity.
D)
Water has surface tension.
11)
Which of the following effects can occur because of the high surface tension of
water?
A)
Lakes cannot freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
B)
A raft spider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C)
Organisms can resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to
chemical reactions.
D)
Sweat can evaporate from the skin, helping to keep people from overheating.
12)
Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
A)
Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
B)
Kinetic energy in the liquid water decreases.
C)
A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
D)
The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
13)
A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following statements
correctly defines 1 kilocalorie? One kilocalorie equals _____.
A)
1000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g
of water by 1°C
B)
10,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1
kg of water by 1°F
C)
1000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg
of water by 1°C
D)
1000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g
of water by 100°C
14)
Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
A)
ionic bonds
B)
polar covalent bonds
C)
hydrogen bonds
D)
both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
15)
Why does ice float in liquid water?
A)
The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top.
B)
The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
C)
Stable hydrogen bonds keep water molecules of ice farther apart than water
molecules of liquid water.
D)
The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.
16)
Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are _____.
A)
nonpolar substances that repel water molecules
B)
nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules
C)
polar substances that repel water molecules
D)
polar substances that have an affinity for water
17)
One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is _____.
A)
180 × 1023 molecules of glucose
B)
1 kilogram of glucose dissolved in 1 liter of solution
C)
180 kilograms of glucose
D)
180 grams of glucose
18)
When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water, the
component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na+) and
chloride ions (Cl-).
In contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose,
glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution. Which of
the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest number of
solute particles (molecules or ions)?
A)
1 liter of 0.5 M NaCl
B)
1 liter of 1.0 M NaCl
C)
1 liter of 1.0 M glucose
D)
1 liter of 1.0 M NaCl and 1 liter of 1.0 M glucose will contain
equal numbers of solute particles.
19)
The molar mass of glucose is 180 grams per mole (g/mol). Which of the following
procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose? Into
0.8 liter (L) of water, dissolve _____.
A)
1 g of glucose and then add more water until the total volume of the solution
is 1 L
B)
18 g of glucose and then add more water until the total volume of the solution
is 1 L
C)
180 g of glucose and then add 0.2 L more of water
D)
180 g of glucose and then add more water until the total volume of the solution
is 1 L
20)
You have a freshly prepared 0.1 M glucose solution. Each liter of this
solution contains how many glucose molecules?
A)
6.02 × 1023
B)
3.01 × 1023
C)
6.02 × 1024
D)
6.02 × 1022
21)
Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule
depicted here is most likely _____.
A)
positively charged
B)
negatively charged
C)
without charge
D)
nonpolar
22)
One mole of the compound above would weigh how many grams? (Note: The atomic
masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for
oxygen.)
A)
29
B)
30
C)
60
D)
150
23)
How many grams of the compound in the figure above are required to make 1 liter
of a 0.5 M solution? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are
approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.)
A)
29
B)
30
C)
60
D)
150
24)
Identical heat lamps are arranged to shine on two identical containers, one
containing water and one methanol (wood alcohol), so that each liquid absorbs
the same amount of energy minute by minute. The covalent bonds of methanol
molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol
molecules. Which of the following graphs correctly describes what will happen
to the temperature of the water and the methanol?
A)
B)
C)
D)
25)
You have two beakers. One contains pure water, the other contains pure methanol
(wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there
are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt
(NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen.
A)
Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol.
B)
NaCl crystals will not dissolve in either water or methanol.
C)
NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol.
D)
NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water.
26)
Rank, from low to high, the pH of blood, stomach acid, and urine.
A)
blood, urine, and stomach acid
B)
stomach acid, blood, and urine
C)
urine, blood, stomach acid
D)
stomach acid, urine, blood
27)
A solution with a pH of 5 has how many more protons in it than a solution with
a pH of 7?
A)
5 times
B)
10 times
C)
100 times
D)
1000 times
28)
Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: What would be the effect of adding
additional H2CO3?
What would be the effect of adding
additional H2CO3?
A)
It would drive the equilibrium dynamics to the right.
B)
It would drive the equilibrium dynamics to the left.
C)
Nothing would happen, because the reactants and products are in equilibrium.
D)
The amounts of CO2 and H2O would decrease.
29)
A strong acid like HCl _____.
A)
dissociates completely in an aqueous solution
B)
increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution
C)
reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution
D)
is a strong buffer at low pH
30)
Which of the following dissociates completely in solution and is considered to
be a strong base (alkali)?
A)
HCl
B)
NH3
C)
H2CO3
D)
NaOH
31)
A 0.01 M solution of a substance has a pH of 2. What can you conclude
about this substance?
A)
It is a strong acid that dissociates completely in water.
B)
It is a strong base that dissociates completely in water.
C)
It is a weak acid.
D)
It is a weak base.
32)
A solution contains 0.0000001 (10-7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH-] per liter.
Which of the following best describes this solution?
A)
acidic: H+ acceptor
B)
basic: H+ acceptor
C)
acidic: H+ donor
D)
neutral
33)
What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion (OH-) concentration of 10-12 M?
A)
pH 2
B)
pH 4
C)
pH 10
D)
pH 12
34)
Which of the following solutions would require the addition of the greatest
amount of base to bring the solution to neutral pH?
A)
gastric juice at pH 2
B)
vinegar at pH 3
C)
black coffee at pH 5
D)
household bleach at pH 12
35)
What is the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution of pH 8?
A)
8 M
B)
8 x 10-6 M
C)
10-8 M
D)
10-6 M
36)
If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the
concentration of _____.
A)
H+ has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was
at pH 9
B)
H+ has doubled compared to what it was at pH 9
C)
H+ has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what
it was at pH 9
D)
OH- has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what
it was at pH 9
37)
One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+) than 1
liter of a solution of pH 6?
A)
4 times more
B)
40,000 times more
C)
10,000 times more
D)
100,000 times more
38)
Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
A)
They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are
added to them.
B)
They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are
added to them.
C)
They fluctuate in pH when either acids or bases are added to them.
D)
They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to
them.
39)
One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic
acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid
is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a
bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)
and a hydrogen ion (H+), as noted below.
If
the pH of blood drops, one would expect _____.
A)
a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an
increase in the concentration of HCO3-
B)
the concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) to increase
C)
the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ by the formation of H2CO3
D)
the HCO3- to act as an acid and remove excess H+ by the formation of H2CO3
40)
One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic
acid (H2CO3). Carbonic
acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into
a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)
and a hydrogen ion (H+), as noted below.
If
the pH of blood increases, one would expect _____.
A)
a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an
increase in the concentration of HCO3-
B)
an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a
decrease in the concentration of HCO3-
C)
a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H+
D)
an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of OH-
41)
Assume that acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH 4.0. What
is the hydroxide ion concentration of this lake?
A)
1 × 10-10 mol of hydroxide ions per liter of lake water
B)
1 × 10-4 mol of hydroxide ions per liter of lake water
C)
4.0 M with regard to hydroxide ion concentration
D)
4.0 × 10-4 mol of hydroxide ions per liter of lake water
42)
Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7.
From this information, we can reasonably conclude that _____.
A)
solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H+)
B)
the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1000 times as great as the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X
C)
the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times as great as the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y
D)
the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 1000 times as great as the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y
43)
A beaker contains 100 milliliters (mL) of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A
technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the
following statements correctly describes the result of this mixing?
A)
The concentration of Na+ ions will rise.
B)
The pH of the beaker's contents will increase.
C)
The pH of the beaker's contents will be neutral.
D)
The pH of the beaker's contents will decrease.
44)
Increased atmospheric CO2 concentrations might
have what effect on seawater?
A)
Seawater will become more alkaline, and carbonate concentrations will decrease.
B)
There will be no change in the pH of seawater, because carbonate will turn to
bicarbonate.
C)
Seawater will become more acidic, and carbonate concentrations will decrease.
D)
Seawater will become more acidic, and carbonate concentrations will increase.
45)
How would acidification of seawater affect marine organisms? Acidification of
seawater would _____.
A)
increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals
and shell-building animals
B)
decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals
and shell-building animals
C)
increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and
shell-building animals
D)
decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and
shell-building animals
46)
One idea to mitigate the effects of burning fossil fuels on atmospheric CO2 concentrations is to pipe liquid CO2 into the ocean at depths of 2500 feet or
greater. At the high pressures at such depths, CO2 is heavier than water. What potential effects
might result from implementing such a scheme?
A)
increased carbonate concentrations in the deep waters
B)
increased growth of corals from a change in the carbonate–bicarbonate
equilibrium
C)
no effect because carbon dioxide is not soluble in water
D)
increased acidity and decreased carbonate concentrations in the deep waters
47)
If the cytoplasm of a cell is at pH 7, and the mitochondrial matrix is at pH 8,
then the concentration of H+ ions
_____.
A)
is 10 times higher in the cytoplasm than in the mitochondrial matrix
B)
is 10 times higher in the mitochondrial matrix than in the cytoplasm
C)
in the cytoplasm is 7/8 the concentration in the mitochondrial matrix
D)
in the cytoplasm is 8/7 the concentration in the mitochondrial matrix
48)
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. If CO2 is bubbled into a beaker containing pure,
freshly distilled water, which of the following graphs correctly describes the
results?
A)
B)
C)
D)
49)
The loss of water from a plant by transpiration cools the leaf. Movement of
water in transpiration requires both adhesion to the conducting walls and wood
fibers of the plant and cohesion of the molecules to each other. A scientist
wanted to increase the rate of transpiration of a crop species to extend its
range into warmer climates. The scientist substituted a nonpolar solution with
an atomic mass similar to that of water for hydrating the plants. What do you
expect the scientist’s data will indicate from this experiment?
A)
The rate of transpiration will be the same for both water and the nonpolar
substance.
B)
The rate of transpiration will be slightly lower with the nonpolar substance as
the plant will not have evolved with the nonpolar compound.
C)
Transpiration rates will fall to zero as nonpolar compounds do not have the
properties necessary for adhesion and cohesion.
D)
Transpiration rates will increase as nonpolar compounds undergo adhesion and
cohesion with wood fibers more readily than water.
50)
In living systems molecules involved in hydrogen bonding almost always contain
either oxygen or nitrogen or both. How do you explain this phenomenon?
A)
Oxygen and nitrogen are elements found in both nucleic acids and proteins.
B)
Oxygen and nitrogen are elements with very high attractions for their
electrons.
C)
Oxygen and nitrogen are elements found in fats and carbohydrates.
D)
Oxygen and nitrogen were both components of gases that made up the early
atmosphere on Earth.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 4 Carbon
and the Molecular Diversity of Life
1)
The element present in all organic molecules is _____.
A)
hydrogen
B)
oxygen
C)
carbon
D)
nitrogen
2)
The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to _____.
A)
the chemical versatility of carbon atoms
B)
the variety of rare elements in organic molecules
C)
the diverse bonding patterns of nitrogen
D)
their interaction with water
3)
The experimental approach taken in current biological investigations presumes
that _____.
A)
simple organic compounds can be synthesized in the laboratory from inorganic
precursors, but complex organic compounds like carbohydrates and proteins can
be synthesized only by living organisms
B)
a life force ultimately controls the activities of living organisms and this
life force cannot be studied by physical or chemical methods
C)
living organisms are composed of the same elements present in nonliving things,
plus a few special trace elements found only in living organisms or their
products
D)
living organisms can be understood in terms of the same physical and chemical
laws that can be used to explain all natural phenomena
4)
Differences among organisms are caused by differences in the _____.
A)
elemental composition from organism to organism
B)
types and relative amounts of organic molecules synthesized by each organism
C)
sizes of the organic molecules in each organism
D)
types of inorganic compounds present in each organism
5)
Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments supported the hypothesis that _____.
A)
life on Earth arose from simple inorganic molecules
B)
organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have
existed on early Earth
C)
life on Earth arose from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning
and volcanoes
D)
the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life
6)
When Stanley Miller applied heat and electrical sparks to a mixture of simple
inorganic compounds such as methane, hydrogen gas, ammonia, and water vapor,
what compounds were produced?
A)
only simple organic compounds such as formaldehyde and cyanide
B)
mostly hydrocarbons
C)
only simple inorganic compounds
D)
simple organic compounds, amino acids, and hydrocarbons
7)
Which of the following is true of carbon?
A)
It forms only polar molecules.
B)
It can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other elements.
C)
It is highly electronegative.
D)
It can form both polar and nonpolar bonds.
8)
Why is carbon so important in biology?
A)
It is a common element on Earth.
B)
It has very little electronegativity, making it a good electron donor.
C)
It bonds to only a few other elements.
D)
It can form a variety of carbon skeletons and host functional groups.
9)
How many electron pairs does carbon share to complete its valence shell?
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
8
10)
A carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s) with other atoms?
A)
ionic
B)
hydrogen
C)
covalent
D)
ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds
11)
Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?
A)
The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
B)
The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
C)
They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
D)
They are less dense than water.
12)
Which of the following statements correctly describes cis-trans isomers?
A)
They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
B)
They have an asymmetric carbon that makes them mirror images.
C)
They have the same chemical properties.
D)
They have different molecular formulas.
13)
Research indicates that ibuprofen, a drug used to relieve inflammation and
pain, is a mixture of two enantiomers; that is, molecules that _____.
A)
have identical chemical formulas but differ in the branching of their carbon
skeletons
B)
are mirror images of each other
C)
differ in the location of their double bonds
D)
differ in the arrangement of atoms around their double bonds
14)
What determines whether a carbon atom's covalent bonds to other atoms are in a
tetrahedral configuration or a planar configuration?
A)
the presence or absence of bonds with oxygen atoms
B)
the presence or absence of double bonds between the carbon atom and other atoms
C)
the polarity of the covalent bonds between carbon and other atoms
D)
the solvent in which the organic molecule is dissolved
15)
Compared to a hydrocarbon chain where all the carbon atoms are linked by single
bonds, a hydrocarbon chain with the same number of carbon atoms, but with one
or more double bonds, will _____.
A)
be more flexible in structure
B)
be more constrained in structure
C)
be more polar
D)
have more hydrogen atoms
16)
Organic molecules with only hydrogens and five carbon atoms cannot _____.
A)
have a branching carbon skeleton
B)
have different combinations of double bonds between carbon atoms
C)
have different positions of double bonds between carbon atoms
D)
form enantiomers
17)
The two molecules shown in the figure below are best described as _____.
A)
enantiomers
B)
structural isomers
C)
cis-trans isomers
D)
chain length isomers
18)
The figure above shows the structures of glucose and fructose. These two
molecules differ in the _____.
A)
number of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
B)
types of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
C)
arrangement of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
D)
number of oxygen atoms joined to carbon atoms by double covalent bonds
19)
The figure above shows the structures of glucose and fructose. These two
molecules are _____.
A)
isotopes
B)
enantiomers
C)
cis-trans isomers
D)
structural isomers
20)
The two molecules shown in the figure below are best described as _____.
A)
enantiomers
B)
radioactive isotopes
C)
structural isomers
D)
cis-trans isomers
21)
Which of the following illustrations is NOT a structural isomer of an organic
compound with the molecular formula C6H14? For clarity, only the carbon skeletons are
shown; hydrogen atoms that would be attached to the carbons have been omitted.
A)
B)
C)
D)
22)
Which of the pairs of molecular structures shown below depict enantiomers
(enantiomeric forms) of the same molecule?
A)
B)
C)
D)
23)
Which of the pairs of molecular structures shown below do NOT depict
enantiomers (enantiomeric forms) of the same molecule?
A)
B)
C)
D)
24)
Thalidomide and L-dopa, shown below, are examples of pharmaceutical drugs that
occur as enantiomers, or molecules that _____.
A)
have identical three-dimensional shapes
B)
are mirror images of one another
C)
are mirror images of one another and have the same biological activity
D)
are cis-trans isomers
25)
Which of the following molecules is polar?
C3H7OH C2H5COOH
A)
C3H7OH and C2H5COOH are both
polar molecules.
B)
Neither C2H5COOH or C3H7OH is polar.
C)
C2H5COOH is
polar, but C3H7OH is not
polar.
D)
C3H7OH is not
polar, but C3H7OH is polar.
26)
Which of the functional groups below acts most like an acid in water?
A)
amino
B)
carbonyl
C)
carboxyl
D)
hydroxyl
27)
A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group.
Therefore, this compound _____.
A)
lacks an asymmetric carbon and is probably a fat or lipid
B)
should dissolve in water
C)
should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent
D)
will not form hydrogen bonds with water
28)
Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
A)
carbonyl and amino groups
B)
carboxyl and amino groups
C)
amino and sulfhydryl groups
D)
hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
29)
Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?
A)
amino
B)
carbonyl
C)
carboxyl
D)
phosphate
30)
A hydrocarbon skeleton is covalently bonded to an amino group at one end and a
carboxyl group at the other end. When placed in water this molecule would
function _____.
A)
only as an acid because of the carboxyl group
B)
only as a base because of the amino group
C)
as an acid and a base
D)
as neither an acid nor a base
31)
Which chemical group can act as an acid?
A)
amino
B)
carbonyl
C)
carboxyl
D)
methyl
32)
Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively, in
many vertebrates. In what way(s) do these molecules differ from each other?
Testosterone and estradiol _____.
A)
are structural isomers but have the same molecular formula
B)
are cis-trans isomers but have the same molecular formula
C)
have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton
D)
are enantiomers of the same organic molecule
33)
What is the name of the functional group shown in the figure below?
A)
carbonyl
B)
ketone
C)
aldehyde
D)
carboxyl
34)
Which of the structures illustrated above is an impossible covalently bonded
molecule?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
35)
In which of the structures illustrated above are the atoms bonded by ionic
bonds?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
none of the structures
36)
Which functional group shown above is characteristic of alcohols?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
37)
Which functional group(s) shown above is (are) present in all amino acids?
A)
A and B
B)
B and D
C)
C only
D)
B and C
38)
Which of the groups shown above is a functional group that helps stabilize
proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
39)
Which of the groups above is a carboxyl functional group?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
40)
Which of the groups above is an acidic functional group that can dissociate and
release H+ into a solution?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
41)
Which of the groups above is a basic functional group that can accept H+ and become positively charged?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
42)
Which molecule shown above would have a positive charge in a cell?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
43)
Which molecule(s) shown above is (are) ionized in a cell?
A)
A
B)
B and D
C)
C and D
D)
D
44)
Which molecules shown above contain a carbonyl group?
A)
A and B
B)
B and C
C)
B, C, and D
D)
C and D
45)
Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a
ketone?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
46)
Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an
aldehyde?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
47)
Which molecule shown above contains a carboxyl group?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
48)
Which molecule shown above can increase the concentration of hydrogen ions in a
solution and is, therefore, an organic acid?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
49)
Which molecule shown above can form a cross linkage?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
50)
Which molecule shown above contains an amino functional group, but is NOT an
amino acid?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
51)
Which molecule shown above is a thiol?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
52)
Which molecule shown above contains a functional group that cells use to
transfer energy between organic molecules?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
53)
Which molecule shown above can function as a base?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
54)
Which of the following is a FALSE statement concerning amino groups? Amino
groups _____.
A)
are basic with respect to pH
B)
are found in amino acids
C)
contain nitrogen
D)
are nonpolar
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 5 The
Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules
1)
Which of these classes of biological molecules does NOT include polymers?
A)
lipids
B)
carbohydrates
C)
proteins
D)
nucleic acids
2)
Which of the following is NOT a polymer?
A)
glucose
B)
starch
C)
cellulose
D)
DNA
3)
How many molecules of water are used to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is
11 monomers long?
A)
12
B)
11
C)
10
D)
9
4)
Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration
reactions and hydrolysis?
A)
Dehydration reactions assemble polymers; hydrolysis reactions break polymers
apart.
B)
Dehydration reactions eliminate water from membranes; hydrolysis reactions add
water to membranes.
C)
Dehydration reactions and hydrolysis reactions assemble polymers from monomers.
D)
Hydrolysis reactions create polymers and dehydration reactions create monomers.
5)
The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula
for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration
reactions?
A)
C18H36O18
B)
C18H32O16
C)
C6H10O5
D)
C18H30O15
6)
What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A)
the number of carbons
B)
the position of the hydroxyl groups
C)
the position of the carbonyl group
D)
One is a ring form, the other is a linear chain/
7)
What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A)
the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B)
the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C)
whether glucose is in the α or β form
D)
the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
8)
Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals
and fungi?
A)
chitin
B)
cellulose
C)
amylopectin
D)
amylose
9)
What does the term insoluble fiber refer to on food packages?
A)
cellulose
B)
polypeptides
C)
starch
D)
amylopectin
10)
A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a _____.
A)
fatty acid
B)
polysaccharide
C)
nucleic acid
D)
monosaccharide
11)
Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a
glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
A)
as a hexose
B)
as a monosaccharide
C)
as a disaccharide
D)
as a polysaccharide
12)
Starch and cellulose _____.
A)
are polymers of glucose
B)
are cis-trans isomers of each other
C)
are used for energy storage in plants
D)
are structural components of the plant cell wall
13)
Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because _____.
A)
humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the α-glycosidic linkages of starch but
not the β-glycosidic linkages of cellulose
B)
starch monomers are joined by covalent bonds and cellulose monomers are joined
by ionic bonds
C)
the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose
D)
the monomer of starch is fructose, while the monomer of cellulose is glucose
14)
The molecule shown in the accompanying figure is _____.
A)
a hexose
B)
a pentose
C)
fructose
D)
maltose
15)
A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?
A)
an amino group
B)
a peptide bond
C)
a disulfide bond
D)
a β-pleated sheet
/ 5.4
16)
Cooking oil and gasoline (a hydrocarbon) are not amphipathic molecules because
they _____.
A)
do not have a polar or charged region
B)
do not have a nonpolar region
C)
have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions
D)
are highly reduced molecules
17)
How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?
A)
The polar heads avoid water; the nonpolar tails attract water (because water is
polar and opposites attract).
B)
Phospholipids do not interact with water because water is polar and lipids are
nonpolar.
C)
The polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not.
D)
Phospholipids dissolve in water.
18)
Phospholipids and triglycerides both _____.
A)
contain serine or some other organic compound
B)
have three fatty acids
C)
have a glycerol backbone
D)
have a phosphate
19)
Which of the following is the best explanation for why vegetable oil is a
liquid at room temperature while animal fats are solid?
A)
Vegetable oil has more double bonds than animal fats.
B)
Vegetable oil has fewer double bonds than animal fats.
C)
Animal fats have no amphipathic character.
D)
Vegetable oil has longer fatty-acid tails than animal fats have.
20)
Which of the following statements is FALSE? Saturated fats _____.
A)
are more common in animals than in plants
B)
have many double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids
C)
usually solidify at room temperature
D)
contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats that consist of the same number of
carbon atoms
21)
Lipids _____.
A)
are insoluble in water
B)
are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and nitrogen
C)
contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates
D)
are made by dehydration reactions
22)
The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable
oil" as the major ingredient. Hydrogenated vegetable oil _____.
A)
is solid at room temperature
B)
has more "kinks" in the fatty acid chains
C)
has fewer trans fatty acids
D)
is less likely to clog arteries
23)
Saturated fatty acids _____.
A)
have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids
B)
are the principal molecules in lard and butter
C)
are usually liquid at room temperature
D)
are usually produced by plants
24)
Steroids are considered to be lipids because they _____.
A)
are essential components of cell membranes
B)
are not soluble in water
C)
are made of fatty acids
D)
contribute to atherosclerosis
25)
The molecule illustrated in the accompanying figure _____.
A)
is a saturated fatty acid.
B)
stores genetic information.
C)
will be liquid at room temperature.
D)
is a carbohydrate.
26)
The molecule shown the accompanying figure is a _____.
A)
fatty acid
B)
steroid
C)
protein
D)
phospholipid
27)
Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to make
proteins?
A)
a phosphorus atom, P
B)
an amino functional group, NH2
C)
a side chain, R
D)
a carboxyl group, COOH
28)
What component of amino acid structure varies among different amino acids?
A)
the long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule
B)
the presence of a central C atom
C)
the components of the R-group
D)
the glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the amino acid
29)
You disrupt all hydrogen bonds in a protein. What level of structure will be
preserved?
A)
primary structure
B)
secondary structure
C)
tertiary structure
D)
quaternary structure
30)
Which of the following is the strongest evidence that protein structure and
function are correlated?
A)
Proteins function best at certain temperatures.
B)
Proteins have four distinct levels of structure and many functions.
C)
Enzymes tend to be globular in shape.
D)
Denatured (unfolded) proteins do not function normally.
31)
You have just sequenced a new protein found in mice and observe that
sulfur-containing cysteine residues occur at regular intervals. What is the
significance of this finding?
A)
Cysteine residues are required for the formation of α-helices and β-pleated
sheets.
B)
It will be important to include cysteine in the diet of the mice.
C)
Cysteine residues are involved in disulfide bridges that help form tertiary
structure.
D)
Cysteine causes bends, or angles, to occur in the tertiary structure of
proteins.
Use
the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).
Rhodopsins
are light-sensitive molecules composed of a protein (opsin) and retinal
(derivative of vitamin A). Opsin is a membrane protein with several α-helical
segments that loop back and forth through the plasma membrane. There are two
classes of rhodopsins. According to Oded Beje, one class has relatively slow
dynamics (a photocycle of approximately 0.5 second) and is well suited for
light detection. The second class has faster dynamics (a photocycle of
approximately 0.02 seconds) and is well suited for chemiosmosis: pumping of
protons or chloride ions across cell membranes. Oded Beje was the first, in
September 2000, to report on a rhodopsin (proteorhodopsin) found in the domain
Bacteria. [SOURCE: O. Beje et al., Science 289 (2000): 1902.]
32)
Proteorhodopsin consists of a single polypeptide chain. What is the highest
level of structure found in this protein?
A)
primary
B)
secondary
C)
tertiary
D)
quaternary
33)
All of the following contain amino acids EXCEPT _____.
A)
hemoglobin
B)
cholesterol
C)
enzymes
D)
insulin
34)
Which level of protein structure do the α-helix and the β-pleated sheet
represent?
A)
primary
B)
secondary
C)
tertiary
D)
quaternary
35)
The tertiary structure of a protein is the _____.
A)
order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain
B)
unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
C)
organization of a polypeptide chain into an α-helix or β-pleated sheet
D)
overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more
polypeptide subunits
36)
The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid serine is -CH2-OH. The
R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid leucine is -CH2-CH-(CH3)2. Where would
you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
A)
Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the
globular protein.
B)
Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the
globular protein.
C)
Serine and leucine would both be in the interior of the globular protein.
D)
Serine and leucine would both be on the exterior of the globular protein.
37)
Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the
following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded
polypeptides?
A)
Alzheimer's only
B)
Parkinson's only
C)
diabetes mellitus only
D)
Alzheimer's and Parkinson's only
38)
Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids would
_____.
A)
alter the primary structure of the protein but not its tertiary structure or
function
B)
cause the tertiary structure of the protein to unfold
C)
always alter the biological activity or function of the protein
D)
always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary
structure of the protein, and sometimes affect its biological activity
39)
Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of β hemoglobin
and two molecules of α hemoglobin. In sickle-cell disease, as a result of a
single amino acid change, the mutant hemoglobin tetramers associate with each
other and assemble into large fibers. Based on this information alone, we can
conclude that sickle-cell hemoglobin exhibits _____.
A)
only altered primary structure
B)
only altered tertiary structure
C)
only altered quaternary structure
D)
altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and
tertiary structures may or may not be altered
40)
What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding
of other proteins?
A)
tertiary protein
B)
chaperonin
C)
renaturing protein
D)
denaturing protein
41)
The chemical reaction illustrated in the accompanying figure _____.
A)
is a hydrolysis reaction
B)
results in a peptide bond
C)
joins two fatty acids together
D)
links two polymers to form a monomer
42)
Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A)
nucleotides
B)
sugars
C)
amino acids
D)
nitrogenous bases
43)
Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA and DNA?
A)
cytosine and uracil
B)
cytosine and thymine
C)
cytosine, uracil, and thymine
D)
cytosine, uracil, and guanine
44)
When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid _____.
A)
a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of
a second
B)
a hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of
a second
C)
covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
D)
hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
45)
Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand
of RNA is correct?
A)
The end has a hydroxyl group attached to the
number 5 carbon of ribose.
end has a hydroxyl group attached to the
number 5 carbon of ribose.
B)
The end has a phosphate group attached to the
number 5 carbon of ribose.
end has a phosphate group attached to the
number 5 carbon of ribose.
C)
The end has phosphate attached to the number 5
carbon of the nitrogenous base.
end has phosphate attached to the number 5
carbon of the nitrogenous base.
D)
The end has a carboxyl group attached to the
number 5 carbon of ribose.
end has a carboxyl group attached to the
number 5 carbon of ribose.
46)
One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to _____.
A)
transmit genetic information to offspring
B)
function in the synthesis of proteins
C)
make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity
D)
act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA
47)
If 14C-labeled
uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be
labeled?
A)
DNA
B)
RNA
C)
both DNA and RNA
D)
proteins
48)
Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as
nucleotides?
A)
a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
B)
a nitrogenous base and a sugar
C)
a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a sugar
D)
a sugar and a purine or pyrimidine
49)
If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of
guanine?
A)
10
B)
40
C)
80
D)
It is impossible to tell from the information given.
50)
Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between DNA
and RNA?
A)
DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not.
B)
The bases in DNA contain sugars, whereas the bases in RNA do not contain sugar.
C)
DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
D)
DNA contains the base uracil, whereas RNA contains the base thymine.
51)
If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other
complementary strand would have the sequence _____.
A)
5'TAACGT3'
B)
5'TGCAAT3'
C)
3'UAACGU5'
D)
5'UGCAAU3'
The
following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in the
accompanying figure. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
52)
Which molecule has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and is found in
plasma membranes?
A)
1
B)
5
C)
12
D)
14
53)
Which of the following combinations of molecules illustrated could be linked to
form a nucleotide?
A)
1, 2, and 11
B)
3, 7, and 8
C)
5, 9, and 10
D)
11, 12, and 13
54)
Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?
A)
1
B)
5
C)
8
D)
9
55)
Which of the following molecules is a purine nitrogenous base?
A)
2
B)
5
C)
12
D)
13
56)
Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of
polypeptides?
A)
1, 4, and 6
B)
2, 7, and 8
C)
7, 8, and 13
D)
11, 12, and 13
57)
Which of the following pairs of molecules could be joined together by a peptide
bond in a dehydration reaction?
A)
2 and 3
B)
7 and 8
C)
8 and 9
D)
12 and 13
58)
A fat (or triacylglycerol) would be formed as a result of a dehydration
reaction between _____.
A)
one molecule of 9 and three molecules of 10
B)
three molecules of 9 and one molecule of 10
C)
one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 9
D)
one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 10
59)
Which of the following molecules is the pentose sugar found in RNA?
A)
1
B)
6
C)
12
D)
13
60)
A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine
that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino
acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from
a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism
is more closely related to _____.
A)
humans than to frogs
B)
frogs than to humans
C)
rats than to frogs
D)
gibbons than to rats
61)
Absorbance at Various pH Levels
|
Time (sec)
|
pH 4
|
pH 5
|
pH 6
|
pH 7
|
pH 8
|
pH 9
|
|
20
|
0.003
|
0.025
|
0.055
|
0.146
|
0.005
|
0.004
|
|
40
|
0.009
|
0.109
|
0.152
|
0.300
|
0.015
|
0.008
|
|
60
|
0.012
|
0.195
|
0.255
|
0.432
|
0.038
|
0.010
|
|
80
|
0.020
|
0.215
|
0.341
|
0.552
|
0.065
|
0.012
|
|
100
|
0.023
|
0.333
|
0.413
|
0.659
|
0.081
|
0.013
|
|
120
|
0.025
|
0.360
|
0.478
|
0.755
|
0.090
|
0.013
|
The
accompanying table represents the results of an experiment where the effects of
pH buffers on an enzyme found in saliva (amylase) were studied. A spectrophotometer set at 500nm was used to
measure absorbance at the various pH levels every 20 sec for 2 min. The higher
absorbance values would indicate greater enzyme activity. All experiments were conducted at the same
temperature.
Which
statement correctly identifies the result that the optimum pH for amylase
function is 7?
A)
The pH with the lowest absorbance values would indicate the optimum pH for
amylase since this pH does not affect the structure or function of the protein.
B)
The pH with the highest absorbance values would indicate the optimum pH for
amylase since this pH does not affect the structure or function of the protein.
C)
At pH 9, the enzyme is denatured and will lose its function, but not its
structure.
D)
At pH 4, the structure of the enzyme will be altered, and the enzyme would not
be able to catalyze the reaction.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 6 A Tour of
the Cell
1)
The smallest cell structure that would most likely be visible with a standard
(not super-resolution) research-grade light microscope is a _____.
A)
mitochondrion
B)
microtubule
C)
ribosome
D)
microfilament
2)
The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that _____.
A)
light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy
B)
light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy
C)
light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells
D)
light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy
3)
In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary
factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the
supernatant or the pellet is the _____.
A)
relative solubility of the component
B)
size and weight of the component
C)
percentage of carbohydrates in the component
D)
presence or absence of lipids in the component
4)
What is the reason that a modern transmission electron microscope (TEM) can
resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of
nanometers achievable for the best super-resolution light microscope?
A)
The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer.
B)
Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal.
C)
Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
D)
The electron microscope has a much greater ratio of image size to real size.
5)
What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of
condensed chromosomes during cell division?
A)
standard light microscopy
B)
scanning electron microscopy
C)
transmission electron microscopy
6)
A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that an inexpensive toy
microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as
much as the more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the
primary reason for the price difference?
A)
The toy microscope does not have the same fine control for focus of the
specimen.
B)
The toy microscope magnifies a good deal, but has low resolution and therefore
poor quality images.
C)
The college microscope produces greater contrast in the specimens.
D)
The toy microscope usually uses a different wavelength of light source.
7)
All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT _____.
A)
a cell wall
B)
a plasma membrane
C)
ribosomes
D)
an endoplasmic reticulum
8)
Cell size is limited by _____.
A)
the number of proteins within the plasma membrane
B)
the surface area of mitochondria in the cytoplasm
C)
surface to volume ratios
D)
the size of the endomembrane system
9)
Which of the following is a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic
cells?
A)
Prokaryotes have cells while eukaryotes do not.
B)
Eukaryotic cells have more intracellular organelles than prokaryotes.
C)
Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration, relying instead on
anaerobic metabolism.
D)
Prokaryotes are generally larger than eukaryotes.
10)
You have a cube of modeling clay in your hands. Which of the following changes
to the shape of this cube of clay will decrease its surface area relative to
its volume?
A)
Pinch the edges of the cube into small folds.
B)
Flatten the cube into a pancake shape.
C)
Round the clay up into a sphere.
D)
Stretch the cube into a long, shoebox shape.
11)
Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the
domains?
A)
Bacteria and Eukarya
B)
Bacteria and Archaea
C)
Archaea and Protista
D)
Bacteria and Protista
12)
Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
A) chloroplast
B) central
vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) centriole
13)
Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?
A) mitochondrion
B) ribosome
C) chloroplast
D) ER
14)
In a bacterium, we will find DNA in _____.
A)
a membrane-enclosed nucleus
B)
mitochondria
C)
the nucleoid
D)
ribosomes
15)
Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells?
A)
mitochondria
B)
microtubules
C)
centrosomes
D)
peroxisomes
16)
What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes?
A)
It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus.
B)
It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA.
C)
It selectively transports molecules out of the nucleus, but prevents all
inbound molecules from entering the nucleus.
D)
It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus.
17)
Which of the following macromolecules leaves the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell
through pores in the nuclear membrane?
A)
DNA
B)
amino acids
C)
mRNA
D)
phospholipids
18)
Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein
secretion from prokaryotic cells?
A)
Prokaryotes cannot secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system.
B)
The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that
in eukaryotes.
C)
Proteins secreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes bound to the cytoplasmic
surface of the plasma membrane.
D)
Prokaryotes cannot secrete proteins because they lack ribosomes.
19)
Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing
which of the following molecules?
A)
lipids
B)
glycogen
C)
proteins
D)
nucleic acids
20)
The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear
membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into
disarray, what would you most likely expect to be the immediate consequence?
A)
the loss of all nuclear function
B)
the inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division
C)
a change in the shape of the nucleus
D)
failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information
21)
A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely _____.
A)
primarily producing proteins for secretion
B)
primarily producing proteins in the cytosol
C)
constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix
D)
enlarging its vacuole
22)
Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?
A)
lysosome
B)
vacuole
C)
Golgi apparatus
D)
peroxisome
23)
A cell with an extensive area of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is specialized to
_____.
A)
play a role in storage
B)
synthesize large quantities of lipids
C)
actively export protein molecules
D)
import and export protein molecules
24)
Which structure is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
A) nuclear
envelope
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi
apparatus
D) plasma
membrane
25)
The Golgi apparatus has a polarity, or sidedness, to its structure and
function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?
A)
Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite
side.
B)
Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move
from one side of the Golgi to the other.
C)
Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move
from one side of the Golgi to the other.
D)
All of the listed responses correctly describe polarity characteristics of the
Golgi function.
26)
The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the
endomembrane system is largely determined by the _____.
A)
transportation of membrane lipids among the membranes of the endomembrane
system by small membrane vesicles
B)
function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components
C)
modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination
D)
synthesis of different lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the
endomembrane system
27)
Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported
from the cell?
A)
rough ER
B)
plasmodesmata
C)
Golgi vesicles
D)
free cytoplasmic ribosomes
28)
Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells
accumulating and becoming clogged with very large, complex, undigested lipids.
Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?
A)
the endoplasmic reticulum
B)
the Golgi apparatus
C)
the lysosome
D)
mitochondrion
29)
The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the
following structures is primarily involved in this process and, therefore,
abundant in liver cells?
A)
rough ER
B)
smooth ER
C)
Golgi apparatus
D)
nuclear envelope
30)
Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be
secreted?
A)
lysosome
B)
mitochondrion
C)
Golgi apparatus
D)
peroxisome
31)
What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will
be secreted by a cell?
A) ER → Golgi →
nucleus
B) Golgi → ER →
lysosome
C) ER → Golgi →
vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
D) ER →
lysosomes → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
32)
Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk
from working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of
asbestosis caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will phagocytize
asbestos, but are not able to degrade it. As a result, asbestos fibers
accumulate in _____.
A)
mitochondria
B)
ribosomes
C)
peroxisomes
D)
lysosomes
33)
Which of the following is NOT true? Both chloroplasts and mitochondria _____.
A)
have their own DNA
B)
have multiple membranes
C)
are part of the endomembrane system
D)
are capable of reproducing themselves
34)
Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A)
lysosome
B)
mitochondrion
C)
Golgi apparatus
D)
peroxisome
35)
Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in _____.
A)
chloroplasts
B)
mitochondria
C)
lysosomes
D)
nuclei
36)
In a plant cell, DNA may be found _____.
A)
only in the nucleus
B)
only in the nucleus and chloroplasts
C)
in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
D)
in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes
37)
In a liver cell detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, the enzymes of the
peroxisome remove hydrogen from these molecules and _____.
A)
combine the hydrogen with water molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide
B)
use the hydrogen to break down hydrogen peroxide
C)
transfer the hydrogen to the mitochondria
D)
transfer the hydrogen to oxygen molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide
38)
The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved _____.
A)
endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell—the endosymbiont evolved
into mitochondria
B)
anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to
escape toxic oxygen—the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts
C)
an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolving into the nucleus
D)
acquisition of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria
from a portion of the Golgi
39)
Where are proteins produced other than on ribosomes free in the cytosol or
ribosomes attached to the ER?
A)
in the extracellular matrix
B)
in the Golgi apparatus
C)
in mitochondria
D)
in the nucleolus
40)
Suppose a cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA,
ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from _____.
A)
a bacterium
B)
an animal but not a plant
C)
nearly any eukaryotic organism
D)
a plant but not an animal
41)
Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell
is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the _____.
A) mitochondria
B) peroxisomes
C) lysosomes
D) endoplasmic
reticulum
42)
Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a metabolic
disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this
disease?
A)
lysosomes
B)
Golgi apparatus
C)
ribosomes
D)
mitochondria
43)
Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what
types of cellular structures?
A)
membrane proteins of the inner nuclear envelope
B)
free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to the ER
C)
components of the cytoskeleton
D)
cellulose fibers in the cell wall
44)
Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules,
consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single
microtubules?
A)
motile cilia and primary (nonmotile) cilia
B)
flagella and motile cilia
C)
basal bodies and primary (nonmotile) cilia
D)
centrioles and basal bodies
45)
Vinblastine, a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization, is used to treat
some forms of cancer. Cancer cells given vinblastine would be unable to _____.
A)
form cleavage furrows during cell division
B)
migrate by amoeboid movement
C)
separate chromosomes during cell division
D)
maintain the shape of the nucleus
46)
Amoebae move by crawling over a surface (cell crawling), which involves _____.
A)
growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane
B)
setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of
cytoplasm
C)
reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments
D)
cytoplasmic streaming
47)
Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by
attempting to assemble the transport components. They set up microtubular
tracks along which vesicles could be transported, and they added vesicles and
ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy). Yet, when they
put everything together, there was no movement or transport of vesicles. What
were they missing?
A)
an axon
B)
contractile microfilaments
C)
endoplasmic reticulum
D)
motor proteins
48)
Cilia and flagella bend because of _____.
A)
conformational changes in ATP that thrust microtubules laterally
B)
a motor protein called radial spokes
C)
the quick inward movements of water by osmosis.
D)
a motor protein called dynein
49)
Spherocytosis is a human blood disorder associated with a defective
cytoskeletal protein in the red blood cells (RBCs). What do you suspect is the
consequence of such a defect?
A)
abnormally shaped RBCs
B)
an insufficient supply of ATP in the RBCs
C)
an insufficient supply of oxygen-transporting proteins in the RBCs
D)
adherence of RBCs to blood vessel walls, causing plaque formation
50)
Cytochalasin D is a drug that prevents actin polymerization. A cell treated
with cytochalasin D will still be able to _____.
A)
divide in two
B)
contract muscle fibers
C)
extend pseudopodia
D)
move vesicles within a cell
51)
Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella?
A)
tubulin
B)
laminin
C)
actin
D)
intermediate filaments
52)
Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true?
A)
The cytoskeleton of eukaryotes is a static structure most resembling
scaffolding used at construction sites.
B)
Although microtubules are common within a cell, actin filaments are rarely
found outside of the nucleus.
C)
Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing
microtubules to move relative to each other.
D)
Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would have little effect
on a cell's response to external stimuli.
53)
The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix
of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following
is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures?
A)
They must block water and small molecules to regulate the exchange of matter
and energy with their environment.
B)
They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell
surface area to volume.
C)
They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then
transported out of the cell.
D)
They are composed of a mixture of lipids and nucleotides.
54)
A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add polysaccharide
modifications to proteins would most likely cause defects in its _____.
A)
nuclear matrix and extracellular matrix
B)
mitochondria and Golgi apparatus
C)
Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix
D)
nuclear pores and secretory vesicles
55)
The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal
cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of
the cell via which of the following?
A)
gap junctions
B)
the nucleus
C)
DNA and RNA
D)
integrins
56)
Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the
following structures in animal cells?
A)
desmosomes
B)
gap junctions
C)
extracellular matrix
D)
tight junctions
57)
Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm
of an adjacent cell through _____.
A)
plasmodesmata
B)
tight junctions
C)
desmosomes
D)
gap junctions
58)
In plant cells, the middle lamella _____.
A)
allows adjacent cells to adhere to one another
B)
prevents dehydration of adjacent cells
C)
maintains the plant's circulatory system
D)
allows for gas and nutrient exchange among adjacent cells
59)
Where would you expect to find tight junctions?
A)
in the epithelium of an animal's stomach
B)
between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)
between plant cells in a woody plant
D)
in the plasma membrane of prokaryotes
60)
H. V. Wilson worked with sponges to gain some insight into exactly what was
responsible for holding adjacent cells together. He exposed two species of
differently pigmented sponges to a chemical that disrupted the cell-cell
interaction (cell junctions), and the cells of the sponges dissociated. Wilson
then mixed the cells of the two species and removed the chemical that caused
the cells to dissociate. Wilson found that the sponges reassembled into two
separate species. The cells from one species did not interact or form
associations with the cells of the other species. How do you explain the
results of Wilson's experiments?
A)
The two species of sponge had different enzymes that functioned in the
reassembly process.
B)
The molecules responsible for cell-cell adhesion (cell junctions) were
irreversibly destroyed during the experiment.
C)
The molecules responsible for cell-cell adhesion (cell junctions) differed
between the two species of sponge.
D)
One cell functioned as the nucleus for each organism, thereby attracting only
cells of the same pigment.
61)
Gaucher disease is the most common of lipid storage diseases in humans. It is
caused
by
a deficiency of an enzyme necessary for lipid metabolism. This leads to a
collection of
fatty
material in organs of the body including the spleen, liver, kidneys, lungs,
brain, and
bone
marrow.
Using
your knowledge of the structure of eukaryotic cells, identify the statement
below
that
best explains how internal membranes and the organelles of cells would be
involved
in
Gaucher disease.
A)
The mitochondria are most likely defective and do not produce adequate amounts
of
ATP
needed for cellular respiration.
B)
The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains too many ribosomes which results in an
overproduction
of the enzyme involved in carbohydrate catalysis.
C)
The lysosomes lack sufficient amounts of enzymes necessary for the metabolism
of
lipids.
D)
The Golgi apparatus produces vesicles with faulty membranes that leak their
contents
into
the cytoplasm of the cell.
62)
Both the volume and the surface area for three different cells were
measured. These values are listed in the
following table:
|
|
Volume
|
Surface Area
|
|
Cell 1
|
9.3 μm3
|
26.5 μm2
|
|
Cell 2
|
12.2 μm3
|
37.1 μm2
|
|
Cell 3
|
17.6 μm3
|
40.6 μm2
|
Using
data from the table above, select the best explanation for why that cell will
be able to eliminate waste most efficiently?
A)
Cell 1 since it has the smallest volume and will not produce as much waste as
the other cells.
B)
Cell 2 since it has the highest surface area-to-volume ratio which facilitates
the exchange of materials between a cell and its environment.
C)
Cell 3 since it has the largest surface area which will enable it to eliminate
all of its wastes quickly.
D)
Cell 3 because it is big enough to allow wastes to easily diffuse through the
plasma membrane.
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