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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 31 Fungi

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

In the United States and Canada, bats use one of two strategies to survive winter: They either migrate south, or they hibernate. Recently, those that hibernate seem to have come under attack by a fungus, Geomyces destructans (Gd), an attack that is occurring from Missouri to southern Canada. Many infected bats have a delicate, white filamentous mat on their muzzles, which is referred to as white-nose syndrome (WNS). The fungus invades the bat tissues, causes discomfort, and awakens the bat from its hibernation. The bat fidgets and wastes calories, using up its stored fat. The bat then behaves abnormally, leaving its cave during daytime in winter to search for food. Their food, primarily insects, is scarce during the winter, and the bats ultimately starve to death. Since 2007, it is estimated that up to one million bats have perished from WNS.

1) The Gd mat on the fur of the bats should be expected to consist of _____.

A) hyphae

B) haustoria

C) yeasts

D) basidia

2) What do fungi and arthropods have in common?

A) The haploid state is dominant in both groups.

B) Both groups are predominantly autotrophs that produce their own food.

C) Both groups use chitin for support.

D) Both groups have cell walls.

3) Fungi have an extremely high surface-area-to-volume ratio. What is the advantage of this to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption?

A) The larger surface area allows for more material to be transported through the cell membrane.

B) The lower volume prevents the cells from drying out too quickly, which can interfere with absorption.

C) This high ratio creates more room inside the cells for additional organelles involved in absorption.

D) This high ratio means that fungi have a thick, fleshy structure that allows the fungi to store more of the food it absorbs.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Suzanne Simard and colleagues knew that the same mycorrhizal fungal species could colonize multiple types of trees. They wondered if the same fungal individual would colonize different trees, forming an underground network that potentially could transport carbon and nutrients from one tree to another (S. Simard et al. 1997. Net transfer of carbon between mycorrhizal tree species in the field. Nature 388:579-82).

Figure A illustrates the team's experimental setup. Pots containing seedlings of three different tree species were set up and grown under natural conditions for three years; two of the three species (Douglas fir, birch) formed ectomycorrhizae and the other (cedar) formed arbuscular mycorrhizae. For the experiment, the researchers placed airtight bags over the Douglas fir and birch seedlings; into each bag, they injected either carbon dioxide made from carbon-13 or carbon-14 (13CO2 and 14CO2, isotopes of carbon). As the seedlings photosynthesized, the radioactive carbon dioxide was converted into radioactively labeled sugars that could be tracked and measured by the researchers.

Figure A Figure B

4) Refer to Figure A. Which of the following results would support Simard et al.'s (1997) hypothesis that fungi can move carbon from one plant to another? [Hypothesis: Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant.]

A) Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.

B) Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.

C) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.

D) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.

5) Based on the idea that fungi have pores between their cell walls, which allow cytoplasm to move from one end of the mycelium to the other, which of the following hypotheses is the most plausible?

A) If a single mycorrhizal fungus formed symbiotic associations with more than one tree, carbon could travel from one plant to another.

B) Parasitic fungi steal nutrients from their hosts.

C) Predatory fungi capture their prey by encircling them with hyphae, and the flowing of the cytoplasm through the pores helps the hyphae to move around the prey.

D) Fungi function as part of the global carbon cycle not only by converting carbon from one form to another, but by physically moving it from one location to another.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

There is much discussion in the media about protecting biodiversity. But does biodiversity really matter? Canadian and Swiss researchers wanted to know if the diversity of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AMF) was important to the productivity of grasslands (M.G.A. van der Heijden, J. N. Klironomos, M. Ursic, P. Moutoglis, R. Streitwolf-Engel, T. Boler, A. Wiemken, and I. R. Sanders. 1998. Mycorrhizal fungal diversity determines plant biodiversity, ecosystem variability and productivity. Nature 396:69-72). Specifically, they wanted to know if it mattered which specific AMF species were present, or just that some type of AMF was present. They grew various plants in combination with one of four AMF species (A, B, C, and D), no AMF species (O), or all four AMF species together (A+B+C+D); and they measured plant growth under each set of conditions. All plant species were grown in each plot, so they always competed with each other with the only difference being which AMF species were present.

6) Based on the graphs in the figure above, which of the following plant species is most likely NOT to form mycorrhizal associations?

A) Carex flacca (graph a)

B) Lotus corniculatus (graph b)

C) Sanguisorba officinalis (graph c)

D) Centaurium erythrea (graph d)

7) If all fungi in an environment that perform decomposition were to suddenly die, then which group of organisms should benefit most, due to the fact that their fungal competitors have been removed?

A) flowering plants

B) protists

C) prokaryotes

D) grasses

8) When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?

A) fungal haustoria

B) fungal enzymes

C) increased oxygen levels

D) larger bacterial populations

9) The functional significance of porous septa in certain fungal hyphae is most similar to that represented by which pair of structures in animal cells and plant cells, respectively?

A) desmosomes — tonoplasts

B) gap junctions — plasmodesmata

C) tight junctions — plastids

D) centrioles — plastids

10) A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here?

A) karyogamy

B) mycelial flagella

C) breezes distributing spores

D) cytoplasmic streaming in hyphae

11) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the _____.

A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes

B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed

C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae

D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue

12) The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to _____.

A) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms

B) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats

C) the increased probability of contact between different mating types

D) an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition

13) Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?

A) parasitic

B) mutualistic

C) commensal

D) predatory

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Figure A Figure B

14) Referring to Simard et al. (1997), what is the result that would most strongly refute their hypothesis? [Hypothesis: Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant.]

A) No movement: Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.

B) Reciprocal exchange: Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.

C) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.

D) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.

15) Referring to Simard et al. (1997), which design element is the control in this experiment and why?

A) the bags over the seedlings to contain the different types of carbon dioxide

B) the fact that all the seedlings are different species

C) the cedar seedling, because it is not bagged

D) the cedar seedling, because it forms arbuscular mycorrhizae

16) Simard et al. (1997) further hypothesized that if reciprocal transfer did occur, it would be a source-sink relationship driven by photosynthetic rates. That is, if one seedling is in full sun and the other in deep shade, there will be a net movement of carbon from the seedling in full sun to the one in deep shade. If a shade was placed over the birch seedlings and the cedar, and the Douglas fir was left in full sun, what result could Simard and colleagues expect?

A) More 13C would be found in the birch than in the Douglas fir.

B) More 13C would be found in the Douglas fir than in the birch.

C) The most 13C would be found in the cedar.

D) The most 14C would be found in the cedar.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

17) Based on the van der Heijden et al. (1998) graphs in the figure above, which of the following is the best description of the data supporting the idea that a plant species did not form mycorrhizae with a fungus? Its biomass is greatest when _____.

A) no AMF are present

B) AM fungus A is present

C) AM fungus B is present

D) AM fungus C is present

18) In graph (b) in the figure above, which of the following best explains the data given about Lotus corniculatus?

A) This plant grows best when AMF taxa A or C are present.

B) Lotus corniculatus does not form mycorrhizal associations.

C) Mycorrhizal fungi parasitize the plant's roots when they are present, reducing its growth.

D) This plant forms multiple AMF associations, growing best with increased fungal diversity.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Canadian and Swiss researchers wanted to know if the diversity of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AMF) was important to the productivity of grasslands (M.G.A. van der Heijden, J. N. Klironomos, M. Ursic, P. Moutoglis, R. Streitwolf-Engel, T. Boler, A. Wiemken, and I. R. Sanders. 1998. Mycorrhizal fungal diversity determines plant biodiversity, ecosystem variability and productivity. Nature 396:69-72). Specifically, they wanted to know if it mattered which specific AMF species were present, or just that some type of AMF was present. They grew various plants in combination with one of four AMF species (A, B, C, & D), no AMF species (O), or all four AMF species together (A+B+C+D); and they measured plant growth under each set of conditions. All plant species were grown in each plot, so they always competed with each other with the only difference being which AMF species were present.

On the graphs below, the x-axis labels indicate the number and identity of AMF species (bar 0 = no fungi; bars A-D = individual AMF species; bar A+B+C+D = all AMF species together). The y-axis indicates the amount (grams) of plant biomass for the species shown in italics above each graph. Graph (e) is the total biomass (grams) of all 11 plant species combined; graph (f) is the biomass of Bromus erectus plants only, separated from the total.

19) What is the major difference between Bromus erectus (graph f) and the other plant species (graphs a-d) included in the study?

A) Bromus erectus grows best with a diversity of fungal partners.

B) Bromus erectus is unaffected by AMF diversity.

C) Bromus erectus does not form mycorrhizal associations.

D) Bromus erectus produces very little biomass regardless of AMF.

20) Why does total biomass (graph e in the figure above) not vary with AMF diversity?

A) Plant growth is unaffected by fungal diversity.

B) Most of the plants in this system do not form mycorrhizal associations.

C) Bromus erectus is the dominant plant species.

D) Lotus corniculatus is a rare species.

21) Based on graphs (e) and (f) in the figure above, which is the most well-supported prediction for the effect on total plant biomass if AMF diversity were increased to eight species?

A) No effect is predicted, because the dominant species is unaffected by AMF diversity.

B) Total biomass for eight species would double in comparison to that for four species.

C) Rare species would produce more biomass compared to the case when fewer AMF are present.

D) No effect is predicted, because the dominant species is non-mycorrhizal.

22) At which stage of a basidiomycete's life cycle would reproduction be halted if an enzyme that prevented the fusion of hyphae was introduced?

A) fertilization

B) karyogamy

C) plasmogamy

D) germination

23) Deuteromycetes _____.

A) represent the phylum in which all the fungal components of lichens are classified

B) are the group of fungi that have, at present, no known sexual stage

C) are the group that includes molds, yeasts, and lichens

D) include the imperfect fungi that lack hyphae

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

For several decades now, amphibian species worldwide have been in decline. A significant proportion of the decline seems to be due to the spread of the chytrid fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd). Chytrid sporangia reside within the epidermal cells of infected animals, animals that consequently show areas of sloughed skin. They can also be lethargic, which is expressed through failure to hide and failure to flee. The infection cycle typically takes four to five days, at the end of which zoospores are released from sporangia into the environment. In some amphibian species, mortality rates approach 100%; other species seem able to survive the infection.

24) Sexual reproduction has not been observed in Bd. If its morphology and genetics did not identify it as a chytridiomycete, then to which fungal group would Bd be assigned?

A) zygomycetes

B) glomeromycetes

C) basidiomycetes

D) deuteromycetes

25) Plasmogamy can directly result in which of the following?

1. cells with a single haploid nucleus

2. heterokaryotic cells

3. dikaryotic cells

4. cells with two diploid nuclei

A) 1 or 3

B) 2 or 3

C) 2 or 4

D) 3 or 4

26) After cytokinesis occurs in budding yeasts, the daughter cell has a _____.

A) similar nucleus and more cytoplasm than the mother cell

B) smaller nucleus and less cytoplasm than the mother cell

C) larger nucleus and less cytoplasm than the mother cell

D) similar nucleus and less cytoplasm than the mother cell

27) In most fungi, karyogamy does not immediately follow plasmogamy, which consequently _____.

A) means that sexual reproduction can occur in specialized structures

B) results in multiple diploid nuclei per cell

C) allows fungi to reproduce asexually most of the time

D) results in heterokaryotic or dikaryotic cells

28) Asexual reproduction in yeasts occurs by budding. Due to unequal cytokinesis, the "bud" cell receives less cytoplasm than the parent cell. Which of the following should be true of the smaller cell until it reaches the size of the larger cell?

A) It should produce fewer fermentation products per unit time.

B) It should be transcriptionally less active.

C) It should have reduced motility.

D) It should have a smaller nucleus.

29) The microsporidian Brachiola gambiae parasitizes the mosquito Anopheles gambiae. Adult female mosquitoes must take blood meals for their eggs to develop, and it is while they take blood that they transmit malarial parasites to humans. Male mosquitoes drink flower nectar. If humans are to safely and effectively use Brachiola gambiae as a biological control to reduce human deaths from malaria, then how many of the following statements should be true?

1. Brachiola should kill the mosquitoes before the malarial parasite they carry reaches maturity.

2. The microsporidian should not be harmful to other insects.

3. Microsporidians should infect mosquito larvae, rather than mosquito adults.

4. The subsequent decline in anopheline mosquitoes should not significantly disrupt human food resources or other food webs.

5. Brachiola must be harmful to male mosquitoes, but not to female mosquitoes.

A) 2 and 5

B) 1, 2, and 4

C) 2, 3, 5

D) 3 and 4

30) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?

A) Hyphae are one hundred to one thousand times larger than plant roots.

B) Hyphae have a smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio than do the hairs on a plant root.

C) Mycelia are able to grow in the direction of food.

D) Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.

31) Fossil fungi date back to the origin and early evolution of plants. What combination of environmental and morphological change is similar in the evolution of both fungi and plants?

A) presence of "coal forests" and change in mode of nutrition

B) periods of drought and presence of filamentous body shape

C) predominance in swamps and presence of cellulose in cell walls

D) colonization of land and loss of flagellated cells

32) The multicellular condition of animals and fungi seems to have arisen _____.

A) due to common ancestry

B) by convergent evolution

C) by inheritance of acquired traits

D) by serial endosymbioses

33) Which feature seen in chytrids supports the hypothesis that they diverged earliest in fungal evolution?

A) the absence of chitin within the cell wall

B) coenocytic hyphae

C) flagellated spores

D) parasitic lifestyle

Recent genetic studies of the structure of microsporidian genomes, as well as the sequences of their tubulin genes and the gene for RNA polymerase II, indicate that microsporidians are closely related to the fungi. Microsporidians lack flagella, centrioles, peroxisomes, and mitochondria (although they do have degenerate mitochondria, called mitosomes). They have the smallest genome of any eukaryote, and it is a genome that changes quickly. The genome is contained within two haploid nuclei. All microsporidians are obligate intracellular parasites. They use a unique organelle called a polar filament to gain access to the cells of their hosts. One species causes chronic diarrhea in AIDS patients. Another parasitizes Anopheles gambiae, the mosquito that transmits a fatal form of malaria to humans.

34) Given the eukaryotic structures they lack, it should be expected that microsporidians also lack _____.

A) the "9 + 2 pattern" of microtubules

B) centrosomes

C) lysosomes

D) nuclei

35) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use. What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?

A) Fungi survive better when they are associated with plants.

B) Radioactively labeled sugars produced by plants eventually show up in the fungi with which they are associated.

C) Fungi associated with plants have the ability to undergo photosynthesis and produce their own sugars, while those not associated with plants do not produce their own sugars.

D) Radioactive labeling experiments show that plants pass crucial raw materials to the fungus for manufacturing sugars.

36) You observe the gametes of a fungal species under the microscope and realize that they resemble animal sperm. To which of the following group does the fungus belong?

A) Chytrids

B) Zygomycetes

C) Basidiomycota

D) Ascomycota

37) Which of the following has the LEAST affiliation with all of the others?

A) Glomeromycota

B) mycorrhizae

C) lichens

D) arbuscules

38) Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest.

1. ascospore

2. ascocarp

3. ascomycete

4. ascus

A) 3 → 2 → 4 → 1

B) 3 → 4 → 1 → 2

C) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1

D) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3

39) Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest, assuming that they all come from the same fungus.

1. basidiocarp

2. basidium

3. basidiospore

4. mycelium

5. gill

A) 4 →? 5 → 1→ 2 → 3

B) 5 → 1 → 4 → 2 → 3

C) 5 → 1 → 3 → 2 → 4

D) 4 → 1 → 5 → 2 → 3

The following figure depicts the outline of a large fairy ring that has appeared overnight in an open meadow, as viewed from above. The fairy ring represents the furthest advance of this mycelium through the soil. Locations A-D are all 0.5 meters below the soil surface.

40) What is the most probable location of the oldest portion of this mycelium?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

41) Which location is nearest to basidiocarps?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

42) At which location is the mycelium currently absorbing the most nutrients per unit surface area, per unit time?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

43) At which location should one find the lowest concentration of fungal enzymes, assuming that the enzymes do not diffuse far from their source, and that no other fungi are present in this habitat?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

44) Assume that all four locations are 0.5 meters above the surface. On a breezy day with prevailing winds blowing from left to right, where should one expect to find the highest concentration of free basidiospores in an air sample?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

45) If the fungus that produced the fairy ring can also produce arbuscules, then which of the following is most likely to be buried at location "C"?

A) tree stump

B) deceased animal

C) fire pit

D) cement-capped well

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

46) Apart from direct amphibian-to-amphibian contact, what is the most likely means by which the zoospores spread from one free-living amphibian to another?

A) by wind-blown spores

B) by flagella

C) by cilia

D) by hyphae

47) When adult amphibian skin harbors populations of the bacterium, Janthinobacterium lividum (Jl), chytrid infection seems to be inhibited. Which of the following represents the best experimental design to test whether this inhibition is real?

A) Inoculate uninfected amphibians with Jl, and determine whether the amphibians continue to remain uninfected by chytrids.

B) Inoculate infected amphibians with Jl, and determine whether the amphibians recover from infection by chytrids.

C) Take infected amphibians and assign them to two populations. Leave one population alone; inoculate the other with Jl. Measure the rate at which infection proceeds in both populations.

D) Take infected amphibians and assign them to two populations. Inoculate one population with a high dose of Jl; inoculate the other with a low dose of Jl. Measure the survival frequency in both populations.

48) A researcher took water in which a Jl population had been thriving, filtered the water to remove all bacterial cells, and then applied the water to the skins of adult amphibians to see if there would subsequently be a reduced infection rate by Bd when frog skins were inoculated with Bd. For which of the following hypotheses is the procedure described a potential test?

A) the hypothesis that a toxin secreted by Jl cells kills Bd cells when both are present together on frog skin

B) the hypothesis that Jl cells infect and kill Bd cells when both are present together on frog skin

C) the hypothesis that Jl outcompetes Bd when both are present together on a frog's skin

D) the hypothesis that the presence of Jl on frog skin causes a skin reaction that prevents attachment by Bd cells

49) Basidiomycetes are the only fungal group capable of synthesizing lignin peroxidase. What advantage does this group of fungi have over other fungi because of this capability?

A) This is always the first group of fungi to begin any kind of plant decomposition.

B) This fungal group can break down the tough lignin, which cannot be harnessed for energy, to get to the more useful cellulose.

C) This is the only group of fungi that can use lignin for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

D) This enzyme releases heat energy from the breakdown of lignin that is used to kill off competing fungi.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

50) If Bd cannot grow properly at temperatures above 28°C (82°F), then, assuming the amphibians can survive, in which time or place should the chytrid infection proceed most rapidly?

1. cooler months

2. warmer months

3. lower altitudes

4. higher altitudes

A) 1 or 3

B) 1 or 4

C) 2 or 3

D) 2 or 4

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Diploid nuclei of the ascomycete, Neurospora crassa, contain 14 chromosomes. A single diploid cell in an ascus will undergo one round of meiosis, followed in each of the daughter cells by one round of mitosis, producing a total of eight ascospores.

51) If a single, diploid G2 nucleus in an ascus contains 400 nanograms (ng) of DNA, then a single ascospore nucleus of this species should contain how much DNA (ng), carried on how many chromosomes?

A) 100, carried on 7 chromosomes

B) 100, carried on 14 chromosomes

C) 200, carried on 7 chromosomes

D) 200, carried on 14 chromosomes

52) In which of the following human mycoses should one expect to find a growth pattern most similar to that of the mycelium that produced the fairy ring?

A) skin mycoses

B) coccidiomycosis (lung infection)

C) systemic (bloodborne) Candida infection

D) Sporothrix infection of lymphatic vessels

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Rose-picker's disease is caused by the yeast Sporothrix schenkii (S. schenkii). The yeast grows on the exteriors of rose-bush thorns. If a human gets pricked by such a thorn, the yeasts can be introduced under the skin. The yeasts then assume a hyphal morphology and grow along the interiors of lymphatic vessels until they reach a lymph node. This often results in the accumulation of pus in the lymph node, which subsequently ulcerates through the skin surface and then drains.

53) Humans have immune systems in which lymph nodes are important, because many phagocytes and lymphocytes reside there. Given that a successful infection by S. schenkii damages lymph nodes themselves, which of the following is most probable?

A) The hyphae secrete antibiotics, which increases the ability of the infected human to tolerate the fungus.

B) Their conversion from yeast to hyphal morphology allows such fast growth that the body's defenses are at least temporarily overwhelmed.

C) Defensive cells of humans cannot detect foreign cells that are covered with cell walls composed of cellulose.

D) Given that most fungal pathogens attack plants, human defenses are simply not adapted to seek out and destroy fungi.

54) If haustoria from the fungal partner were to appear within the photosynthetic partner of a lichen, and if the growth rate of the photosynthetic partner consequently slowed substantially, then this would support the claim that _____.

A) algae and cyanobacteria are autotrophic

B) lichens are not purely mutualistic relationships

C) algae require maximal contact with the fungal partner in order to grow at optimal rates

D) soredia are asexual reproductive structures combining both the fungal and photosynthetic partners

55) A billionaire buys a sterile volcanic island that recently emerged from the sea. To speed the arrival of conditions necessary for plant growth, the billionaire might be advised to aerially sow what over the island?

A) basidiospores

B) spores of ectomycorrhizae

C) soredia

D) yeasts

56) Orchid seeds are tiny, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule cotyledons. If such seeds are deposited in a dark, moist environment, then which of the following represents the most likely means by which fungi might assist in seed germination, given what the seeds lack?

A) by transferring some chloroplasts to the embryo in each seed

B) by providing the seeds with water and minerals

C) by providing the embryos with some of the organic nutrients they have absorbed

D) by strengthening the seed coat that surrounds each seed

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

57) The answer to which of these questions would be of most assistance to one who is attempting to assign the genus Sporothrix to the correct fungal phylum?

A) Do these yeasts perform fermentation while growing on the rose-bush thorns, or do they wait until inside a human host?

B) Does S. schenkii rely on animal infection to complete some part of its life cycle, or is the infection merely opportunistic?

C) Are the hyphae in lymphatic vessels septate, or are they coenocytic?

D) Is S. schenkii best described as a decomposer, parasite, pathogen, or mutualist of humans?

58) Suppose that S. schenkii had initially been classified as a deuteromycete. Asci were later discovered in the pus that oozed from an ulcerated lymph node, and the spores therein germinated, giving rise to S. schenkii yeasts. Which two of these are conclusions make sense on the basis of this information?

1. S. schenkii produces asexual spores within lymph nodes.

2. S. schenkii should be reclassified.

3. S. schenkii continues to have no known sexual stage.

4. The hyphae growing in lymphatic vessels probably belonged to a different fungal species.

5. S. schenkii yeasts belonging to two different mating strains were introduced by the same thorn prick.

A) 1 and 3

B) 1 and 5

C) 2 and 5

D) 4 and 5

59) Which of the following best describes the physical relationship of the partners involved in lichens?

A) Fungal cells are enclosed within algal cells.

B) Lichen cells are enclosed within fungal cells.

C) Photosynthetic cells are surrounded by fungal hyphae.

D) The fungi grow on rocks and trees and are covered by algae.

60) Mycorrhizae are to the roots of vascular plants as endophytes are to vascular plants' _____.

A) leaf mesophyll

B) stem apical meristems

C) root apical meristems

D) xylem

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 32 An Overview of Animal Diversity

1) A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes is absolutely conserved, which of the following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny?

A) genes involved in chitin synthesis

B) collagen genes

C) β-catenin genes

D) genes involved in eye-lens synthesis

2) Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?

A) the structural carbohydrate, chitin

B) nervous system signal conduction and muscular movement

C) heterotrophy

D) flagellated gametes

3) The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following is most directly involved in the evolution of these variations in metamorphosis?

A) artificial selection of sexually immature forms of insects

B) changes in the homeobox genes governing early development

C) the evolution of meiosis

D) the origin of a brain

4) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation, your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island. You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms, and you, as a student of biology, decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase). You select three organisms and observe them in detail, making the notations found in the figure above. Which organism would you classify as an animal?

A) organism A

B) organism B

C) organism C

5) Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that most animals derive their nutrition by _____.

A) preying on animals

B) ingesting it

C) consuming living, rather than dead, prey

D) using enzymes to digest their food

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage.

6) Which of the following Tp traits is different from all other known animals?

A) Tp is multicellular.

B) Tp lacks muscle and nerve cells.

C) Tp has cilia.

D) Tp lacks cell walls.

7) What do animals ranging from corals to monkeys have in common?

A) a mouth and an anus

B) number of embryonic tissue layers

C) type of body symmetry

D) presence of Hox genes

8) In individual insects of some species, whole chromosomes that carry larval genes are eliminated from the genomes of somatic cells at the time of metamorphosis. A consequence of this occurrence is that _____.

A) we could not clone a larva from the somatic cells of such an adult insect

B) such species must reproduce only asexually

C) the descendants of these adults do not include a larval stage

D) metamorphosis can no longer occur among the descendents of such adults

9) Which of the following would you classify as something other than an animal?

A) sponges

B) coral

C) jellyfish

D) choanoflagellates

10) The evolution of animal species has been prolific (the estimates go into the millions and tens of millions). Much of this diversity is a result of the evolution of novel ways to _____.

A) reproduce

B) arrange cells into tissues

C) sense, feed, and move

D) form an embryo and establish a basic body plan

11) The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a _____.

A) unicellular chytrid

B) multicellular algae

C) multicellular fungus

D) flagellated protist

12) Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna?

A) true tissues

B) hard parts

C) bilateral symmetry

D) embryos

13) Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships? The fossil record reveals an increased incidence of _____.

A) worm burrows

B) larger animals

C) organic material

D) hard parts

14) Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?

A) binary fission

B) random segregation

C) gene duplication

D) chromosomal condensation

15) Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of _____.

A) mass extinction

B) evolutionary stasis

C) adaptive radiation

D) a large meteor impact

16) Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that _____.

A) arthropods evolved before vertebrates did

B) extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial vertebrates

C) vertebrates evolved from arthropods

D) arthropods have had more time to coevolve with land plants than have vertebrates

17) Which tissue type, or organ, is NOT correctly matched with its germ layer tissue?

A) nervous — mesoderm

B) muscular — mesoderm

C) stomach — endoderm

D) skin — ectoderm

18) While looking at some seawater through your microscope, you spot the egg of an unknown animal. Which of the following tests could you use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome? See whether the embryo _____.

A) develops germ layers

B) exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage

C) develops a blastopore

D) develops an archenteron

19) In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?

A) There is evidence of cephalization.

B) The animal is triploblastic.

C) The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical.

D) You see a mouth, but not an anus.

20) Which of the following is a feature of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in most animal phyla?

A) The outer tube consists of a hard exoskeleton.

B) The outer tube consists of digestive organs.

C) The mouth and anus form the ends of the inner tube.

D) The two "tubes" are separated by tissue that comes from embryonic endoderm.

21) If you think of the earthworm body plan as a drinking straw within a pipe, where would you expect to find most of the tissues that developed from endoderm?

A) lining the straw

B) lining the space between the pipe and the straw

C) forming the outside of the pipe

D) forming the outside of the straw

22) Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation?

A) type of symmetry (bilateral vs. radial vs. none)

B) type of body cavity (coelom vs. pseudocoelom vs. no coelom)

C) number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty vs. triploblasty)

D) type of development (protostome vs. deuterostome)

23) What do all deuterostomes have in common?

A) Adults are bilaterally symmetrical.

B) Embryos have pharyngeal pouches that may or may not form gill slits.

C) All have a spinal column.

D) The pore (blastopore) formed during gastrulation becomes the anus.

24) Soon after the coelom begins to form, a researcher injects a dye into the coelom of a deuterostome embryo. Initially, the dye should be able to flow directly into the _____.

A) blastopore

B) blastocoel

C) archenteron

D) pseudocoelom

25) You have before you a living organism, which you examine carefully. Which of the following should convince you that the organism is acoelomate?

A) It is triploblastic.

B) It has bilateral symmetry.

C) It possesses sensory structures at its anterior end.

D) Muscular activity of its digestive system distorts the body wall.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

26) On the basis of information in the paragraph above, which of these should be able to be observed in Tp?

A) the act of fertilization

B) the process of gastrulation

C) eggs

D) All three of the listed responses are correct.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise one hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45 degrees and to lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells.

27) This embryo may potentially develop into a(n) _____.

A) turtle

B) earthworm

C) sea star

D) sea urchin

28) If we were to separate these eight cells and attempt to culture them individually, then what is most likely to happen?

A) All eight cells will die immediately.

B) Each cell may continue development, but only into a nonviable embryo that lacks many parts.

C) Each cell may develop into a full-sized, normal embryo.

D) Each cell may develop into a smaller-than-average, but otherwise normal, embryo.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

The most recently discovered phylum in the animal kingdom (1995) is the phylum Cycliophora. It includes three species of tiny organisms that live in large numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. The feeding stage permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk and collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a current created by a ring of cilia. The body is sac-like and has a U-shaped intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are coelomates, do not molt (though their host does), and their embryos undergo spiral cleavage.

29) Which of these features is LEAST useful in assigning the phylum Cycliophora to a clade of animals?

A) having a true coelom as a body cavity

B) having a body symmetry that permits a U-shaped intestine

C) having embryos with spiral cleavage

D) lacking ecdysis (molting)

Use the following figure and information to answer the question(s) below.

Fishes that have swim bladders can regulate their density and, thus, their buoyancy. There are two types of swim bladder: physostomous and physoclistous. The ancestral version is the physostomous version, in which the swim bladder is connected to the esophagus via a short tube (see the figure above). The fish fills this version by swimming to the surface, taking gulps of air, and directing them into the swim bladder. Air is removed from this version by "belching." The physoclistous version is more derived, and has lost its connection to the esophagus. Instead, gas enters and leaves the swim bladder via special circulatory mechanisms within the wall of the swim bladder.

30) We should expect the inner wall of the swim bladder to be lined with tissue that is derived from _____.

A) ectoderm

B) endoderm

C) mesoderm

D) mesoglea

31) What was an early selective advantage of a coelom in animals? A coelom _____.

A) contributed to a hydrostatic skeleton, allowing greater range of motion

B) was a more efficient digestive system

C) allowed cephalization and the formation of a cerebral ganglion

D) allowed asexual and sexual reproduction

32) The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history, resulting in two main subgroups—Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa. What does this finding suggest?

A) These two subgroups have a common ancestor that was a deuterostome.

B) The protostomes are a polyphyletic group.

C) Division of these two groups occurred after the protostome developmental sequence appeared.

D) The lophotrochozoans are monophyletic.

33) Which of these, if true, would support the claim that the ancestral cnidarians had bilateral symmetry?

1. Cnidarian larvae possess anterior-posterior, left-right, and dorsal-ventral aspects.

2. Cnidarians have fewer Hox genes than bilaterians.

3. All extant cnidarians, including Nematostella, are diploblastic.

4. β-catenin turns out to be essential for gastrulation in all animals in which it occurs.

5. All cnidarians are acoelomate.

A) 1 and 4

B) 2 and 3

C) 2 and 4

D) 4 and 5

34) An organism that exhibits cephalization probably also _____.

A) is bilaterally symmetrical

B) has a coelom

C) is segmented

D) is diploblastic

35) Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells. Which of the following would be a likely mechanism by which this pesticide works?

A) The mosquito would develop a weakened exoskeleton that would make it vulnerable to trauma.

B) The mosquito would have trouble digesting food, due to impaired gut function.

C) The mosquito would have trouble with respiration and circulation, due to impaired muscle function.

D) The mosquito wouldn't be affected at all.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

36) Tp's body symmetry seems to be most like that of _____.

A) most sponges

B) cnidarians

C) worms

D) tetrapods

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

37) Cycliophorans have two types of larvae. One type of larva is produced when the digestive system of a female is impregnated by a male. The digestive system then collapses and develops into a larva, which swims away in search of a new host after the surrounding female dies. Which is the embryonic tissue that is apparently most important in forming this type of larva?

A) mesohyl

B) mesoderm

C) ectoderm

D) endoderm

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Nudibranchs, a type of predatory sea slug, can have various protuberances (that is, extensions) on their dorsal surfaces. Rhinophores are paired structures, located close to the head, which bear many chemoreceptors. Dorsal plummules, usually located posteriorly, perform respiratory gas exchange. Cerata usually cover much of the dorsal surface and contain nematocysts at their tips.

38) If nudibranch rhinophores are located at the anterior ends of these sea slugs, then they contribute to the sea slugs' _____.

A) segmentation

B) lack of torsion

C) cephalization

D) identity as lophotrochozoans

39) Fossil evidence indicates that the following events occurred in what sequence, from earliest to most recent?

1. Protostomes invade terrestrial environments.

2. Cambrian explosion occurs.

3. Deuterostomes invade terrestrial environments.

4. Vertebrates become top predators in the seas.

A) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3

B) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3

C) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4

D) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4

40) What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent?

1. tetrapods

2. vertebrates

3. deuterostomes

4. amniotes

5. bilaterians

A) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

B) 5 → 3 → 4 → 2 → 1

C) 3 → 5 → 4 → 2 → 1

D) 3 → 5 → 2 → 1 → 4

41) The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is the characteristic of having _____.

A) radial or bilateral symmetry

B) diploblastic or triploblastic embryos

C) true tissues or no tissues

D) a body cavity or no body cavity

42) You find a new species of worm and want to classify it. Which of the following lines of evidence would allow you to classify the worm as a nematode and not an annelid?

A) It is segmented.

B) It is triploblastic.

C) It has a coelom.

D) It sheds its external skeleton to grow.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

43) Using similarities in embryonic development, body symmetry, and other anatomical features to assign an organism to a clade involves _____.

1. cladistics based on body plan

2. molecular-based phylogeny

3. morphology-based phylogeny

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3

44) The common ancestor of the protostomes had a coelom. What does this suggest?

A) All lophotrochozoans have a coelom.

B) There are no pseudocoelomates within the protostomes.

C) There are no acoelomates within the protostomes.

D) The body cavity evolved before the lophophore.

A: Morphological phylogeny.

B: Molecular phylogeny.

45) In the traditional phylogeny (A), the phylum Platyhelminthes is depicted as a sister taxon to the rest of the protostome phyla and as having diverged earlier from the lineage that led to the rest of the protostomes. In the molecular phylogeny (B), Platyhelminthes is depicted as a lophotrochozoan phylum. What probably led to this change?

A) Platyhelminthes ceased to be recognized as true protostomes.

B) The removal of the acoel flatworms (Acoela) from the Platyhelminthes allowed the remaining flatworms to be a monophyletic clade clearly tied to the Lophotrochozoa.

C) All Platyhelminthes must have a well-developed lophophore as their feeding apparatus.

D) Platyhelminthes' close genetic ties to the arthropods became clear as their Hox gene sequences were studied.

46) The Hox genes came to regulate each of the following. From earliest to most recent, in what sequence did these events evolve?

1. identity and position of paired appendages in protostome embryos

2. anterior-posterior orientation of segments in protostome embryos

3. positioning of tentacles in cnidarians

4. anterior-posterior orientation in vertebrate embryos

A) 4 → 1 → 3 → 2

B) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3

C) 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

D) 3 → 4 → 1 → 2

47) The last common ancestor of all bilaterians is thought to have had four Hox genes. Most extant cnidarians have two Hox genes, except Nematostella (of β-catenin fame), which has three Hox genes. On the basis of these observations, some have proposed that the ancestral cnidarians were originally bilateral and, in stages, lost Hox genes from their genomes. If true, this would mean that _____.

A) the Radiata should be a true clade

B) the radial symmetry of extant cnidarians is secondarily derived, rather than being an ancestral trait

C) Hox genes play little actual role in coding for an animal's "body plan"

D) the Cnidaria may someday replace porifera as the basal bilaterians

48) Some researchers claim that sponge genomes have homeotic genes, but no Hox genes. If true, this finding would _____.

A) mean that sponges must no longer be classified as animals

B) confirm the identity of sponges as "basal animals"

C) mean that extinct sponges must have been the last common ancestor of animals and fungi

D) require sponges to be reclassified as choanoflagellates

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

49) Which of these, if discovered among cycliophorans, would cause the most confusion concerning our current understanding of cycliophoran taxonomy?

A) if the ciliated feeding ring is a lophophore

B) if embryos are diploblastic

C) if the body cavity is actually a pseudocoelom

D) if the organisms show little apparent cephalization

50) The feeding stage of cycliophorans _____.

1. is autotrophic

2. is sessile

3. captures food in a manner similar to that of animals with lophophores

4. shows radial symmetry

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 4

D) 1, 2, and 3

51) Which morphological trait evolved more than once in animals, according to the phylogeny based on DNA sequence data found in the figure above?

A) coelom

B) bilateral symmetry

C) segmentation

D) protostome development

52) Why might researchers choose to use molecular data (such as ribosomal RNA sequences) rather than morphological data to study the evolutionary history of animals?

A) Molecular data can be gathered in the lab, while morphological data must be gathered in the field.

B) Sequence data can be gathered faster than morphological data, and morphological data provides a different perspective.

C) Morphological changes usually do not result from molecular changes.

D) Some phyla vary too widely in morphological characteristics to be classified accurately.

53) If in the future the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is further substantiated, what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived from the fossil record?

A) The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.

B) The fossil evidence will be understood to have been interpreted incorrectly because it is incomplete.

C) The fossil record will henceforth be ignored.

D) Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

54) Basing your inferences on information in the paragraph above, to which clade(s) should cycliophorans belong?

1. Eumetazoa

2. Deuterostomia

3. Bilateria

4. Ecdysozoa

5. Lophotrochozoa

A) 1 and 3

B) 1, 3, and 5

C) 2, 3, and 4

D) 2, 3, and 5

Use the following table to answer the question(s) below.

Proposed Number of Hox Genes in Various Extant and Extinct Animals

Last Common Ancestor of Bilateria	Last Common Ancestor of Insects and Vertebrates	Ancestral Vertebrates	Mammals
4	7	14	38-40

55) What conclusion is apparent from the data in the table above?

A) Land animals have more Hox genes than do those that live in water.

B) All bilaterian phyla have had the same degree of expansion in their numbers of Hox genes.

C) The expansion in number of Hox genes throughout vertebrate evolution cannot be explained merely by three duplications of the ancestral vertebrate Hox cluster.

D) Extant insects all have seven Hox genes.

56) All things being equal, which of these is the most parsimonious explanation for the change in the number of Hox genes from the last common ancestor of insects and vertebrates to ancestral vertebrates, as shown in the table above?

A) The occurrence of seven independent duplications of individual Hox genes.

B) The occurrence of two distinct duplications of the entire seven-gene cluster, followed by the loss of one cluster.

C) The occurrence of a single duplication of the entire seven-gene cluster.

57) Two competing hypotheses to account for the increase in the number of Hox genes from the last common ancestor of bilaterians to the last common ancestor of insects and vertebrates are: (1) a single duplication of the entire four-gene cluster, followed by the loss of one gene, and (2) three independent duplications of individual Hox genes. To prefer the first hypothesis on the basis of parsimony requires the assumption that _____.

A) the duplication of a cluster of four Hox genes is equally likely as the duplication of a single Hox gene

B) there is an actual process by which individual genes can be duplicated

C) genes can exist is spatial groupings called clusters

D) clusters of genes can undergo disruption, with individual genes moving to different chromosomes during evolution

58) In the experiment outlined in the figure above, what would you expect to happen if researchers supplied an enzyme that blocked the expression of the Dll gene?

A) The embryo would have appendages in abnormal locations.

B) The origins of the embryo's appendages would fluoresce.

C) The developing embryo would have no appendages.

D) The embryo's appendages would be shorter than usual.

59) Dll is a gene known to direct limb development in the fruit fly. Researchers studying this gene have found that it is also expressed in developing appendages in animals from many other phyla, supporting the hypothesis that all animal appendages may be homologous. However, suppose researchers looking at Dll activity had instead found the results shown in the figure above. These results suggest instead that _____.

A) Dll is not actually involved in appendage development

B) appendages evolved separately in protostomes and deuterostomes

C) appendages coevolved with segmentation

D) all animal appendages are homologous

60) Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is (are) true?

1. Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi.

2. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect.

3. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic.

4. Animals only reproduce sexually.

5. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.

A) 1 and 2

B) 3 and 5

C) 3, 4, and 5

D) 2 and 4

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 33 An Introduction to Invertebrates

1) One should expect to find cilia associated with the feeding apparatus of _____.

A) annelids

B) coral animals

C) tapeworms

D) sponges

2) Sponges _____.

A) have larvae which are motile and move via the motion of cilia

B) are the simplest diploblastic animals

C) have a nerve net but not a central nervous system

D) have feeding cells called dinoflagellates

3) Which of the following is most likely to be aquatic?

A) suspension feeder

B) mass feeder

C) deposit feeder

D) fluid feeder

4) Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you, but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass. Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucus on their tentacles or other body parts. What feeding tactic do these animals use?

A) suspension feeder

B) fluid feeder

C) deposit feeder

D) food-mass feeder

5) Which of the following can be found in the mesohyl of a sponge?

1. amoebocytes

2. spicules

3. spongin

4. zygotes

5. choanocytes

A) 1 and 2

B) 2, 3, 4

C) 1, 2, 3, and 4

D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

6) Which of the following factors, when used to label the horizontal axis of the graph above, would account most directly for the shape of the plot?

A) rate of cribrostatin synthesis (molecules/unit time)

B) number of pores per sponge

C) number of spicules per sponge

D) number of choanocytes per sponge

7) Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet. What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the evolution of these toxins?

A) the medusa body form

B) asexual reproduction

C) a slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult

D) diploblastic design

8) Healthy corals are brightly colored because they _____.

A) secrete colorful pigments to attract mates

B) host symbionts with colorful photosynthetic pigments

C) build their skeletons from colorful minerals

D) secrete colorful pigments to protect themselves from ultraviolet light

9) In terms of food capture, which sponge cell is most similar to the cnidocyte of a cnidarian?

A) amoebocyte

B) choanocyte

C) epidermal cell

D) pore cell

10) The crown-of-thorns sea star, Acanthaster planci, preys on the flesh of live coral. If coral animals are attacked by these sea stars, then what actually provides nutrition to the sea star, and which chemical (besides the toxin within their nematocysts) do the corals rely on for protection?

A) medusae; silica

B) exoskeleton; calcium carbonate

C) polyps; calcium carbonate

D) polyps; silica

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

An elementary school science teacher decided to liven up the classroom with a saltwater aquarium. Knowing that saltwater aquaria can be quite a hassle, the teacher proceeded stepwise. First, the teacher conditioned the water. Next, the teacher decided to stock the tank with various marine invertebrates, including a polychaete, a siliceous sponge, several bivalves, a shrimp, several sea anemones of different types, a colonial hydra, a few coral species, an ectoproct, a sea star, and several herbivorous gastropod varieties. Lastly, she added some vertebrates—a parrotfish and a clownfish. She arranged for daily feedings of copepods and feeder fish.

11) One day, Tommy, a student in an undersupervised class of forty fifth graders, got the urge to pet Nemo (the clownfish), who was swimming among the waving petals of a pretty underwater "flower" that had a big hole in the midst of the petals. Tommy giggled upon finding that these petals felt sticky. A few hours later, Tommy was in the nurse's office with nausea and cramps. Microscopic examination of his fingers would probably have revealed the presence of _____.

A) teeth marks

B) spines

C) spicules

D) nematocysts

12) The teacher and class were especially saddened when the colonial hydrozoan died. They had watched it carefully, and the unfortunate creature never even got to produce offspring by budding. Yet, everyone was elated when one of the students noticed a small colonial hydrozoan growing in a part of the tank far from the location of the original colony. The teacher was apparently unaware that these hydrozoans exhibit _____.

A) spontaneous generation

B) abiogenesis

C) alternation of generations

D) a medusa stage

13) The sharp, inch-long thorns of the crown-of-thorns sea star are its spines. These spines, unlike those of most other sea stars, contain a potent toxin. If it were discovered that crown-of-thorns sea stars do not make this toxin themselves, then the most likely alternative would be that this toxin is _____.

A) derived from the nematocysts of its prey

B) absorbed from the surrounding seawater

C) an endotoxin of cellulose-digesting bacteria that inhabit the sea star's digestive glands

D) injected into individual thorns by mutualistic corals which live on the aboral surfaces of these sea stars

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

14) The clownfish readily swims among the tentacles of the sea anemones; the parrotfish avoids them. One hypothesis for the clownfish's apparent immunity is that they slowly build a tolerance to the sea anemone's toxin. A second hypothesis is that a chemical in the mucus that coats the clownfish prevents the nematocysts from being triggered. Which of the following graphs supports the second, but not the first, of these hypotheses?

15) The presence of a lophophore in a newly discovered species would suggest that the species _____.

A) has an exoskeleton

B) grows by shedding its external covering

C) is motile

D) is a suspension feeder

16) You find what you believe is a new species of animal. Which of the following characteristics would enable you to argue that it is more closely related to a flatworm than it is to a roundworm?

A) It is a suspension feeder.

B) It has no coelom.

C) It is shaped like a worm.

D) It has a mouth and an anus.

17) What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton?

A) presence of a muscular foot

B) presence of a rasp-like feeding structure

C) production of eggs

D) number of shell plates

18) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio? Assume that all of the following are the same total length.

A) a mollusk

B) an annelid

C) an arthropod

D) a platyhelminth

19) Against which hard structure do the circular and longitudinal muscles of annelids work?

A) cuticle

B) shell

C) endoskeleton

D) hydrostatic skeleton

20) While sampling marine plankton in a lab, a student encounters large numbers of fertilized eggs. The student rears some of the eggs in the laboratory for further study and finds that the blastopore becomes the mouth. The embryo develops into a trochophore larva and eventually has a true coelom. These eggs probably belonged to a(n) _____.

A) echinoderm

B) mollusc

C) nematode

D) arthropod

This nudibranch, a type of sea slug, has many reddish cerata on its dorsal surface, as well as two white-tipped rhinophores located on the head.

The nontaxonomic term sea slug encompasses a wide variety of marine gastropods. One feature they share as adults is the lack of a shell. We might think, therefore, that they represent defenseless morsels for predators. In fact, sea slugs have multiple defenses. Some sea slugs prey on sponges and concentrate sponge toxins in their tissues. Others feed on cnidarians, digesting everything except the nematocysts, which they then transfer to their own skins. Whereas the most brightly colored sea slugs are often highly toxic, others are nontoxic and mimic the coloration of the toxic species. Their colors are mostly derived from pigments in their prey. There are also sea slugs that use their coloration to blend into their environments.

21) Which structure do sea slugs use to feed on their prey?

A) nematocysts

B) an incurrent siphon

C) a radula

D) a mantle cavity

22) The nematocysts most likely reach the skin of sea slugs through branches of the _____.

A) intestine

B) excurrent siphon

C) nephridium

D) pseudocoelom

23) The nematocysts of sea slugs should be most effective at protecting individual sea slugs from predation if the predators _____.

A) remove small bites of flesh from sea slugs and have long-term memory

B) remove small bites of flesh from sea slugs and have no long-term memory

C) consume entire sea slugs in one gulp and have no long-term memory

D) consume entire sea slugs in one gulp and have long-term memory

Use the following information and figure to answer the question(s) below.

The sea slug Pteraeolidia ianthina (P. ianthina) can harbor living dinoflagellates (photosynthetic protists) in its skin. These endosymbiotic dinoflagellates reproduce quickly enough to maintain their populations. Low populations do not affect the sea slugs very much, but high populations (> 5 x 105 cells/mg of sea slug protein) can promote sea slug survival.

Percent of sea slug respiratory carbon demand provided by indwelling dinoflagellates.

24) If the dinoflagellate-containing sea slug P. ianthina preys on coral animals, then it would be LEAST surprising to find that _____.

A) P. ianthina has no tolerance to the toxin in the nematocysts of its prey

B) P. ianthina can locate its coral prey by chemicals released into the water by corals

C) the coral prey harbor dinoflagellates in their tissues

D) the coral prey transform themselves into medusas to flee from approaching P. ianthina

25) The sea slug Elysia chorotica has no nematocysts or dinoflagellates but, rather, has "naked" chloroplasts in its skin. The chloroplasts are all that remain of the seaweed (Vaucheria sp.) that Elysia feeds upon. The chloroplasts are transferred to the skin; consequently, this slug is green. It spends most of its time basking in shallow water on the surface of seaweeds. How should we expect its chloroplasts to benefit the Elysia sea slug?

1. provide Elysia with fixed carbon dioxide

2. provide Elysia with fixed nitrogen

3. provide Elysia with protective coloration

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

26) Nudibranchs usually have two rhinophores. However, if they had a single rhinophore, it could still carry out the function of two rhinophores, and with similar effectiveness, if this single rhinophore _____.

A) had two branches, one directed to the left, the other to the right

B) was located within the mantle cavity

C) was as long as two rhinophores placed end to end

D) had cilia whose power strokes directed water away from the surface of the slug

27) A natural predator of the crown-of-thorns sea star is a mollusc called the Giant Triton, Charonia tritonis. If the triton uses a radula to saw into the sea star, then to which clade should the triton belong?

A) chitons

B) bivalves

C) gastropods

D) cephalopods

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

28) If the teacher wanted to show the students what a lophophore is and how it works, the teacher would point out a feeding _____.

A) hydra

B) sponge

C) gastropod

D) ectoproct

29) The teacher was unaware of the difference between suspension feeding and predation. The teacher thought that providing live copepods (2 mm long) and feeder fish (2 cm long) would satisfy the dietary needs of all of the organisms. Consequently, which two organisms would have been among the first to starve to death (assuming they lack photosynthetic endosymbionts)?

A) sponges and corals

B) sea stars and sponges

C) shrimp and bivalves

D) bivalves and sponges

30) What would be the most effective method of reducing the incidence of blood flukes in a human population?

A) reduce the mosquito population

B) reduce the population of the intermediate snail host

C) avoid contact with rodent droppings

D) carefully wash all raw fruits and vegetables

Use the following information and figure to answer the question(s) below.

Percent of sea slug respiratory carbon demand provided by indwelling dinoflagellates.

31) According to the graph, during which season(s) of the year is the relationship between the sea slug and its dinoflagellates closest to being commensal?

A) winter

B) spring

C) summer

D) spring and summer

32) Planarians lack dedicated respiratory and circulatory systems because _____.

A) none of their cells are far removed from the gastrovascular cavity or from the external environment

B) they lack mesoderm as embryos and, therefore, lack the adult tissues derived from mesoderm

C) their flame bulbs can carry out respiratory and circulatory functions

D) their body cavity, a pseudocoelom, carries out these functions

33) Which one of these mollusk groups can be classified as suspension feeders?

A) bivalves

B) gastropods

C) chitons

D) cephalopods

34) Which characteristic is shared by cnidarians and flatworms?

A) dorsoventrally flattened bodies

B) radial symmetry

C) a digestive system with a single opening

D) a distinct head

35) If a lung were to be found in a mollusc, where would it be located?

A) mantle cavity

B) incurrent siphon

C) visceral mass

D) excurrent siphon

36) Parasitism is one of the most widespread life strategies ever to evolve. Which of the following is consistent with this finding?

A) Parasites almost always predigest their hosts' tissues and, therefore, spend less energy and require fewer structural adaptations.

B) Parasites, unlike predators, feed on almost all the tissues of their host.

C) Parasites do not generally kill their hosts; thus they can feed on the same host throughout the host's normal life span and do not have competition from decomposers.

D) Parasites generally kill their host and can feed for a very long time because they are much smaller than their host.

37) Nematodes and arthropods both _____.

A) develop an anus from the blastopore (pore) formed in the gastrula stage

B) are suspension feeders

C) grow by shedding their exoskeleton

D) have ciliated larvae

38) Arthropod exoskeletons and mollusk shells both _____.

A) completely replace the hydrostatic skeleton

B) are secreted by the mantle

C) help retain moisture in terrestrial habitats

D) are comprised of the polysaccharide chitin

39) You find a multi-legged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede. You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you have found a centipede. Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction?

A) segmentation

B) poisonous fangs

C) egg-laying

D) molting

40) Whiteflies are common pest insects found on cotton, tomato, poinsettia, and many other plants. Nymphs are translucent and mostly sessile, feeding on their host plants' phloem (sap) from the undersides of leaves. They undergo incomplete metamorphosis into winged adults. Because whitefly nymphs cannot escape predation by moving, you hypothesize that their translucent bodies make them hard to spot by predators. How could you directly test this hypothesis?

A) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs on plant leaves of different colors (for example, red vs. green poinsettia leaves).

B) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs coated with a nontoxic dye vs. undyed whitefly nymphs.

C) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs vs. whitefly adults.

D) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs by predators that are translucent vs. predators that are not translucent.

41) All arthropods _____.

1) undergo complete metamorphose

2) have jointed appendages

3) molt

4) have segmented bodies

5) have an exoskeleton or cuticle

A) 1, 2, and 4

B) 3 and 5

C) 2, 3, 4, 5

D) 1, 4, 5

Use the following information when to answer the question(s) below.

Many terrestrial arthropods exchange gases with their environments by using tracheae, tubes that lead from openings (called spiracles) in the animal's exoskeleton or cuticle directly to the animal's tissues. Some arthropods can control whether their spiracles are opened or closed; opening the spiracles allows the carbon dioxide produced in the tissues to travel down the tracheae and be released outside the animal. Klok et al. measured the carbon dioxide emitted over time (represented by

) by several species of centipedes. The figure below presents graphs of their results for two species, Cormocephalus morsitans and Scutigerina weberi. (C. J. Klok, R. D. Mercer, and S. L. Chown. 2002. Discontinuous gas-exchange in centipedes and its convergent evolution in tracheated arthropods. Journal of Experimental Biology 205:1019-29.) Copyright 2002 The Company of Biologists and the Journal of Experimental Biology.

42) Look at the graph for Cormocephalus morsitans in the figure above. What is the best interpretation of these results?

A) The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.

B) The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.

C) The centipede had its spiracles open when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and closed when CO2 emission was low.

D) The centipede had its spiracles closed when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and open when CO2 emission was low.

43) Look at the graph for Scutigerina weberi (note the scale of the y-axis) in the figure above. What is the best interpretation of these results?

A) The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.

B) The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.

C) The centipede had its spiracles open when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and closed when CO2 emission was low.

D) The centipede had its spiracles closed when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and open when CO2 emission was low.

44) How would a terrestrial centipede most likely benefit from the ability to close its spiracles? Closing spiracles would _____.

A) allow the centipede to move more quickly

B) allow the centipede to retain more moisture in its tissues

C) allow the centipede to stay warmer

D) allow more oxygen from the environment to reach the centipede's tissues

45) Compare the graphs in the figure above of carbon dioxide (CO2) emission for Cormocephalus morsitans and Scutigerina weberi. What hypothesis can you make about each centipede's habitat?

A) C. morsitans lives in a habitat that provides more carbon dioxide than does S. weberi.

B) C. morsitans lives in a habitat with more predators than does S. weberi.

C) C. morsitans lives in a colder habitat than does S. weberi.

D) C. morsitans lives in a drier habitat than does S. weberi.

46) What would be the most direct effect of removing or damaging an insect's antennae? The insect would have trouble _____.

A) hearing

B) mating

C) seeing

D) smelling

47) The heartworms that can accumulate within the hearts of dogs and other mammals have a pseudocoelom, an alimentary canal, and an outer covering that is occasionally shed. To which phylum does the heartworm belong?

A) Platyhelminthes

B) Arthropoda

C) Nematoda

D) Annelida

48) A terrestrial animal species is discovered with the following larval characteristics: exoskeleton, system of tubes for gas exchange, and modified segmentation. A knowledgeable zoologist should predict that the adults of this species would also feature _____.

A) eight legs

B) two pairs of antennae

C) a sessile lifestyle

D) an open circulatory system

49) In a tide pool, a student encounters an organism with a hard outer covering that contains much calcium carbonate, an open circulatory system, and gills. The organism could potentially be a crab, a shrimp, a barnacle, or a bivalve. The presence of which of the following structures would allow for the most certain identification of the organism?

A) a mantle

B) a heart

C) a body cavity

D) a filter-feeding apparatus

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

50) The claws (fangs) on the foremost trunk segment of centipedes have a function most similar to that of _____.

A) rhinophores

B) dorsal plummules

C) cerata

D) chemoreceptors

51) The stingers of honeybees have a function most similar to that of _____.

A) rhinophores

B) dorsal plummules

C) cerata

D) chemoreceptors

52) The spiracles and tracheae of insects have a function most similar to that of _____.

A) rhinophores

B) dorsal plummules

C) cerata.

D) chemoreceptors

53) The antennae of insects have a function most similar to that of _____.

A) rhinophores

B) dorsal plummules

C) cerata

D) chemoreceptors

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

A farm pond, usually dry during winter, has plenty of water and aquatic pond life during the summer. One summer, Sarah returns to the family farm from college. Observing the pond, she is fascinated by some six-legged organisms that can crawl about on submerged surfaces or, when disturbed, seemingly "jet" through the water. Watching further, she is able to conclude that the "mystery organisms" are ambush predators, and their prey includes everything from insects to small fish and tadpoles.

54) If the pond organisms are larvae, rather than adults, Sarah should expect them to have all of the following structures, EXCEPT _____.

A) antennae

B) an open circulatory system

C) an exoskeleton of chitin

D) sex organs

55) Sarah observed that the mystery pond organisms never come up to the pond's surface. If she catches one of these organisms and observes closely, perhaps dissecting the organism, she should find _____.

A) gills

B) spiracles

C) tracheae

D) book lungs

56) As you are walking along a beach, you find an animal and believe that it belongs to the class Asteroidea. Which of the following characteristics would support your hypothesis that the animal is a sea star and not another type of echinoderm?

A) It is pentaradially symmetric.

B) It feeds on other animals.

C) It has a hydrostatic skeleton, formed from its water vascular system.

D) Its central region is not well-delineated from its appendages.

57) The water vascular system of echinoderms _____.

A) functions as a circulatory system that distributes nutrients to body cells

B) functions in locomotion and feeding

C) is bilateral in organization, even though the adult animal is not bilaterally symmetrical

D) is analogous to the gastrovascular cavity of flatworms

58) Which of the following combinations correctly matches a phylum to its description?

A) Echinodermata — bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system

B) Nematoda — segmented worms, closed circulatory system

C) Cnidaria — flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, acoelomate

D) Platyhelminthes — radial symmetry, polyp and medusa body forms

59) Which of the following animal groups is entirely aquatic?

A) Mollusca

B) Crustacea

C) Echinodermata

D) Nematoda

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

60) The bivalves started to die one by one; only the undamaged shells remained. To keep the remaining bivalves alive, the teacher would most likely need to remove the _____.

A) sea anemones

B) sea star

C) gastropods

D) ectoprocts

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 34 The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates

1) Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle?

A) jaws

B) post-anal tail

C) four-chambered heart

D) vertebrae

2) Why do adult urochordates (tunicates) lack notochords, even though larval urochordates have them? Larvae use notochords to _____.

A) aid in swimming; adults are sessile and thus no longer propel themselves.

B) stiffen their bodies; in adults, the notochord is replaced by a column of bone.

C) induce tissue differentiation; in adults, tissue is already differentiated.

D) organize their nervous systems; adults' nervous systems are fully developed and do not change.

3) If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble _____.

A) respiring

B) feeding

C) moving

D) respiring and feeding

4) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as _____.

A) the digestive system's opening

B) suspension-feeding devices

C) components of the jaw

D) sites of respiration

5) Which of the following statements would be LEAST acceptable to most zoologists?

A) The first fossils resembling lancelets appeared in the fossil record around 530 million years ago.

B) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the basal clade of chordates.

C) The extant lancelets are the immediate ancestors of the fishes.

D) Lancelets display the same method of swimming as do fishes.

6) Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in appearance?

A) lancelets

B) adult tunicates

C) amphibians

D) chondrichthyans

7) Vertebrates and tunicates share _____.

A) jaws adapted for feeding

B) a high degree of cephalization

C) the formation of structures from the neural crest

D) a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord

8) All chordates studied to date, except tunicates, share a set of _____.

A) 13 Hox genes

B) 5 Dlx genes

C) 9 Otx genes

D) 7 FOXP2 genes

9) Which of the following characteristics is shared by a hagfish and a lamprey?

A) a rasping tongue

B) paired fins

C) jaws

D) a well-developed notochord

10) A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics: external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will probably have which of the following characteristics?

A) legs

B) no jaws

C) an amniotic egg

D) endothermy

11) The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are associated with _____.

A) feeding

B) locomotion

C) defense

D) respiration

12) A team of researchers has developed a poison that has proven effective against lamprey larvae in freshwater cultures. The poison is ingested and causes paralysis by detaching segmental muscles from the skeletal elements. The team wants to test the poison's effectiveness in streams feeding Lake Michigan, but one critic worries about potential effects on lancelets, which are similar to lampreys in many ways. Why is this concern misplaced?

A) Lamprey larvae and lancelets have very different feeding mechanisms.

B) Lancelets do not have segmental muscles.

C) Lancelets live only in saltwater environments.

D) Lancelets and lamprey larvae eat different kinds of food.

13) To reproduce, many plants produce seeds–structures containing embryonic offspring along with nutrients inside a tough case. These offspring develop after being released by the parent plant. To which animal reproductive strategy is seed production most comparable?

A) oviparous reproduction

B) ovoviviparous reproduction

C) viviparous reproduction

14) Why do skates and rays have flattened bodies, while sharks are torpedo shaped?

A) Sharks are more closely related to the tubelike lampreys than skates and rays are.

B) Skates and rays need enlarged pectoral fins to help them stay level in turbulent water, while sharks do not.

C) Skates and rays exchange gases across their skin and thus require a high surface-area-to-volume ratio, while sharks use gills to respire.

D) Sharks are streamlined for active swimming off the bottom, while skates move about mostly on the ocean bed.

15) Which of these statements accurately describes a similarity between sharks and ray-finned fishes?

A) They are equally able to exchange gases with the environment while stationary.

B) They are highly maneuverable due to their flexibility.

C) They have a lateral line that is sensitive to vibrations.

D) A swim bladder helps control buoyancy.

Use the following figure and information to answer the question(s) below.

16) The presence of a swim bladder allows the typical ray-finned fish to stop swimming and still _____.

A) effectively circulate its blood

B) use its lateral line system

C) use its swim bladder as a respiratory organ

D) not sink

17) Which shark structure is closest in function to a swim bladder full of gas?

A) its lateral line system

B) its spiral valve

C) its liver

D) its gills

18) If a ray-finned fish is to both hover (remain stationary) in the water column and ventilate its gills effectively, then what other structure besides its swim bladder will it use?

A) its pectoral fins

B) its lateral line system

C) its caudal (tail) fin

D) its opercula

19) How did the evolution of the jaw contribute to diversification of early vertebrate lineages?

A) It allowed for smaller body size.

B) It was the first stage in the development of a bony skull.

C) It made additional food sources available.

D) It increased the surface area for respiration and feeding.

20) It is believed that the coelacanths and lungfish represent a crucial link between other fishes and tetrapods. What is the major feature in these fish in support of this hypothesis?

A) Like amphibians, they are tied to the water for reproduction.

B) Their fins have skeletal and muscular structures similar to amphibian limbs.

C) They have highly evolved nervous and circulatory systems.

D) They have lungs and are able to breathe air when water is scarce.

21) Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes?

A) lampreys

B) chondrichthyans

C) ray-finned fishes

D) placoderms

22) Which of these might have been observed in the common ancestor of chondrichthyans and osteichthyans?

A) a mineralized, bony skeleton

B) opercula

C) a spiral valve intestine

D) a swim bladder

23) Arrange these groups in order from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).

1. lobe-fins

2. amphibians

3. gnathostomes

4. osteichthyans

5. tetrapods

A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2

B) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1

C) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

D) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

24) Suppose, while out camping in a forest, you found a chordate with a long, slender, limbless body slithering across the ground near your tent. This critter could be _____.

A) a lampreys

B) a mammal

C) an amphibian

D) a skate

Use the following description to answer the question(s) below.

While on an intersession course in tropical ecology, Kris pulls a large, snakelike organism from a burrow (the class was granted a collecting permit). The 1-meter-long organism has smooth skin, which appears to be segmented. It has two tiny eyes that are hard to see because they seem to be covered by skin. Kris brings it back to the lab at the field station, where it is a source of puzzlement to the class. Kris says that it is a giant oligochaete worm; Shaun suggests it is a legless amphibian; Kelly proposes it belongs to a snake species that is purely fossorial (lives in a burrow).

25) The class decided to humanely euthanize the organism and subsequently dissect it. Having decided that it was probably not a reptile, two of their original hypotheses regarding its identity remained. Which of the following, if observed, should help them arrive at a conclusive answer?

A) presence of moist, highly vascularized skin

B) presence of lungs

C) presence of a nerve cord

D) presence of a digestive system with two openings

26) The organism was found to have two lungs, but the left lung was much smaller than the right lung. Kelly added that the herpetology instructor had said that in most snakes, the same condition exists. If the size difference between the lungs in this organism is not a shared ancestral characteristic with its occurrence in snakes, then its existence in this organism is explained as which of the following?

1. a result of convergent evolution

2. an example of homologous structures

3. a similar adaptation to a shared lifestyle or body plan

4. a result of having identical Hox genes

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 3 and 4

27) Which of the following could be considered the most recent common ancestor of living tetrapods?

A) a sturdy-finned, shallow-water lobe-fin whose appendages had skeletal supports similar to those of terrestrial vertebrates

B) an armored, jawed placoderm with two pairs of appendages

C) an early ray-finned fish that developed bony skeletal supports in its paired fins

D) a salamander that had legs supported by a bony skeleton but moved with the side-to-side bending typical of fishes

28) A trend first observed in the evolution of the earliest tetrapods was _____.

A) the appearance of jaws

B) feet with digits

C) the mineralization of the endoskeleton

D) the amniotic egg

29) Fossils of the earliest tetrapods should _____.

A) show evidence of internal fertilization

B) show evidence of having produced shelled eggs

C) indicate limited adaptation to life on land

D) feature the earliest indications of the appearance of jaws

Use the following information to asnwer the question(s) below.

Terry catches a ray-finned fish from the ocean and notices that attached to its flank is an equally long, snakelike organism. The attached organism has no external segmentation, no scales, a round mouth surrounded by a sucker, and two small eyes. Terry thinks it might be a marine leech, a hagfish, or a lamprey.

30) Terry saved some of the tooth-like objects within the hagfish's round mouth to analyze their composition in his mentor's biochemistry research lab. Terry will find that they are composed of the same protein found in tetrapod _____.

A) skin

B) teeth

C) bones

D) cartilage

31) What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg?

A) Tetrapods were no longer tied to the water for reproduction.

B) Tetrapods can now function with just lungs.

C) Newborns are much less dependent on their parents.

D) Embryos are protected from predators.

32) Which structure of the amniotic egg most closely surrounds the embryo?

A) the chorion

B) the yolk sac

C) the allantois

D) the amnion

33) The evolution of similar insulating skin coverings such as fur, hair, and feathers in mammals and birds is a result of _____.

A) shared ancestry

B) convergent evolution

C) homology

D) evolutionary divergence

34) Which of the following characteristics evolved independently in mammals and birds?

A) amniotic eggs

B) jaws

C) bone

D) endothermy

35) Suppose you traveled back in time and located the first animals to have evolved feathers. You found that these animals were tree-dwelling ectotherms, able to run quickly but unable to fly. You also noticed that only males had feathers. Which hypothesis of feather evolution would these data most support? Feathers initially evolved in a role associated with _____.

A) flight

B) insulation

C) sexual selection

D) gliding

36) Mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits shared by mammals and birds best explains this habit?

A) endothermy

B) ectothermy

C) amniotic egg

D) terrestrial

37) Which characteristic is common to all the modern representatives of all major reptilian lineages (turtles, lepidosaurs, crocodilians, and birds)?

A) presence of teeth

B) presence of four walking limbs

C) ectothermy

D) presence of a notochord

38) Which of these are amniotes?

A) amphibians

B) fishes

C) turtles

D) lungfish

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Due to its system of air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.

39) If the inner lining of the air sacs is neither thin nor highly vascularized, then what can be inferred about the air sacs?

A) They must not belong to the respiratory system.

B) They cannot be derived from endoderm.

C) They are not efficient sites of gas exchange between air and blood.

D) They cannot effectively moisturize the air before it reaches the lungs.

40) The one-way flow of air along parabronchi makes what type of gas exchange mechanism possible, at least theoretically?

A) the same as that occurring in fish gills

B) the same as that occurring in insect tracheae

C) the same as that occurring in mammalian lungs

D) the same as that occurring in echinoderm skin gills

41) Which of these characteristics added most to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments?

A) the shelled, amniotic egg

B) the ability to maintain a constant body temperature

C) two pairs of appendages

D) a four-chambered heart

42) Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs?

A) lizards

B) crocodiles

C) birds

D) tuataras

43) During chordate evolution, what is the sequence (from earliest to most recent) in which the following structures arose?

1. amniotic egg

2. paired fins

3. jaws

4. swim bladder

5. four-chambered heart

A) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

D) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4

44) Which clade does NOT include humans?

A) lobe-fins

B) diapsids

C) craniates

D) osteichthyans

45) Primate evolution and behavior, such as hunting skills, have been directed in part by the development of depth perception. What anatomical change made depth perception possible?

A) a larger brain

B) the formation of compound eyes

C) movement of the eyes to the front of the head

D) diurnal activity

46) What group of mammals have (a) embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples, (b) young that feed on milk, and (c) a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?

A) Eutheria

B) Marsupiala

C) Monotremata

47) Which of the following represents the strongest evidence that two of the three middle ear bones of mammals are homologous to certain reptilian jawbones?

A) They are similar in size to the reptilian jawbones.

B) They are similar in shape to the reptilian jawbones.

C) The mammalian jaw has fewer bones than does the reptilian jaw.

D) These bones can be observed to move from the evolving jaw to the evolving middle ear in mammalian embryos.

48) Which of the following is the most inclusive (most general) group in which all of the members have fully opposable thumbs?

A) apes

B) Homo

C) anthropoids

D) primates

49) Which of these would a paleontologist most likely do to determine if a fossil represents a reptile or a mammal?

A) Look for the presence of milk-producing glands.

B) Look for the mammalian characteristics of a four-chambered heart and a diaphragm.

C) Use molecular analysis to look for the protein keratin.

D) Examine the teeth.

50) Female birds lay their eggs, thereby facilitating flight by reducing weight. Which "strategy" seems most likely for female bats to use to achieve the same goal?

A) limit litters to a single embryo

B) refrain from flying throughout pregnancy (about six weeks long)

C) give birth to underdeveloped young, and subsequently carry them in a pouch that has teats

D) feed multiple embryos internally using placentas

51) Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials _____.

A) lack nipples

B) have some embryonic development outside the uterus

C) lay eggs

D) are found in Australia and Africa

52) On the back of your skull you can feel a small bump, below which is an opening where the spinal cord enters the skull. The location of this opening toward the bottom of the skull is significant in evolutionary biology for what reason?

A) It allowed for the hominin brain to grow much larger than other primates.

B) It provided greater protection for the spinal cord.

C) It occurred as a result of the change to a bipedal stance.

D) This change was necessary for the increase in size from prosimian forms to anthropoid forms.

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Brown et al. and Morwood et al. reported in 2004 that they had found skeletal remains of a previously unknown type of hominin, now dubbed Homo floresiensis, on the Indonesian island of Flores. These hominins were small (approximately 1 meter tall) with small braincases (approximately 380 cubic centimeters) as compared with other hominins. The remains of H. floresiensis were found alongside handmade stone tools and the remains of dwarf elephants that also inhabited the island, suggesting that H. floresiensis was able both to make tools and to coordinate the hunting of animals much larger than itself. H. floresiensis is estimated to have lived at the site where the remains were found from at least 38,000 years ago to 18,000 years ago.

53) Refer to the paragraph on Brown et al. and Morwood et al. Which would be the most feasible method of figuring out to which other hominin species H. floresiensis was most closely related?

A) Compare the type of prey hunted by H. floresiensis to that hunted by each of the other hominin species.

B) Compare the average body size of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

C) Compare the skeletal morphology of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

D) Compare the estimated life span of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

54) In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?

A) lack of a tail

B) eyes on the front of the face

C) bipedal posture

D) opposable thumbs

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

55)

Species	Location of Fossils	Estimated Average Braincase Volume (cm3)	Estimated Average Body Mass (kg)	Associated with Stone Tools?
Australopithecus afarensis	Africa	450	36	no
A. africanus	Africa	450	36	no
Paranthropus boisei	Africa	510	44	no?
Homo habilis	Africa	550	34	yes
H. ergaster	Africa	850	58	yes
H. erectus	Africa, Asia	1000	57	yes
H. heidelbergensis	Africa, Europe	1200	62	yes
H. neanderthalensis	Middle East, Europe, Asia	1500	76	yes
H. floresiensis	Asia	380	16-36	yes
H. sapiens	Middle East, Europe, Asia	1350	53	yes

The table above is a comparison of several characteristics of H. floresiensis to those of nine other hominin species (arranged roughly from oldest to most recent). What do these data suggest?

A) A large brain is not necessarily required for toolmaking.

B) Body mass and braincase volume are completely unrelated.

C) Hominins first evolved in and then radiated out from Asia.

D) Homo floresiensis is most closely related to Australopithecus afarensis or A. africanus.

56) Refer to the paragraph on Brown et al. and Morwood et al. It is speculated that H. floresiensis and H. sapiens may have lived on Flores concurrently. Suppose researchers obtained mitochondrial DNA samples from the H. floresiensis remains, amplified a 1000-base-pair sequence via PCR, and compared it to that of several currently living H. sapiens native to Indonesia, North Africa, and North America. Also suppose H. floresiensis were found to differ from the average Indonesian H. sapiens in 28 base pairs, from the average North African H. sapiens in 51 base pairs, and from the average North American H. sapiens in 53 base pairs, while two randomly selected H. sapiens differed from each other in an average of 21 base pairs. What would you surmise from these data?

A) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably did not live on Flores concurrently.

B) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently but did not interact.

C) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently, and H. sapiens killed and consumed H. floresiensis.

D) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently and interbred to some degree.

57) Arrange the following taxonomic terms in order from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).

1. apes

2. hominins

3. Homo

4 anthropoids

5. primates

A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3

B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3

C) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3

D) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3

58) Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the adoption of bipedalism?

A) enhanced depth perception

B) shortened hind limbs

C) opposable big toe

D) repositioning of foramen magnum

59) Which of the following statements about human evolution is correct?

A) Modern humans are the only human species to have evolved on Earth.

B) Human ancestors were virtually identical to extant chimpanzees.

C) Human evolution has occurred within an unbranched lineage.

D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved separately.

60) With which of the following statements would a biologist be most inclined to agree?

A) Humans and other apes represent divergent lines of evolution from a common ancestor.

B) Humans represent the pinnacle of evolution and have escaped from being affected by natural selection.

C) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.

D) Humans and other apes are the result of disruptive selection in a species of chimpanzee.

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 35 Plant Structure, Growth, and Development

1) Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?

A) root cap

B) root hairs

C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem

D) storage roots

2) What is the primary function of stems?

A) Facilitation of gas exchange

B) Water absorption and movement

C) Maximization of photosynthesis by leaves

D) Reproduction

3) When you eat Brussels sprouts, you are eating _____.

A) immature flowers

B) large axillary buds

C) petioles

D) storage leaves

4) Some of the largest leaves in the world can be found on plants near the forest floor of dense tropical rain forests. Which of the following precursors for photosynthesis is most likely limited in these large leaves?

A) oxygen

B) carbon dioxide

C) glucose

D) light

5) Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between _____.

A) light collection and carbon dioxide absorption

B) water retention and carbon dioxide absorption

C) water retention and oxygen absorption

D) light collection and oxygen absorption

6) One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that _____.

A) only leaves have phloem and only roots have xylem

B) root cells have cell walls and leaf cells do not

C) a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots

D) vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves

E) leaves have epidermal tissue but roots do not

7) Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants?

A) too much sunlight

B) a shortage of carbon dioxide

C) desiccation

D) animal predation

8) Trichomes _____.

A) absorb sunlight, increasing the temperature of leaves

B) open and close for gas exchange

C) repel or trap insects

D) increase water loss from leaves

9) Which structure is correctly paired with its tissue system?

A) root hair — vascular tissue

B) guard cell — vascular tissue

C) companion cell — ground tissue

D) tracheid — vascular tissue

10) The main source of water necessary for photosynthesis to occur in the leaf mesophyll is _____.

A) soil via the xylem

B) soil via the phloem

C) the atmosphere through the cuticle and stomata

D) all of the listed responses

11) The vascular bundle in the shape of a single central cylinder in a root is called the _____.

A) cortex

B) stele

C) periderm

D) pith

12) Which of the following cell types retains the ability to undergo cell division?

A) a parenchyma cell near the root tip

B) a functional sieve tube element

C) a tracheid

D) a stem fiber

13) Which of these is NOT an example of a parenchyma cell?

A) cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants

B) support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems

C) edible cells in fruits and vegetables

D) tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes

14) Which of the following have unevenly thickened primary walls that support young, growing parts of the plant?

A) parenchyma cells

B) collenchyma cells

C) sclerenchyma cells

D) tracheids and vessel elements

15) Which of the following is correctly paired with its structure and function?

A) sclerenchyma — supporting cells with thick secondary walls

B) ground meristem — protective coat of woody stems and roots

C) guard cells — waterproof ring of cells surrounding the central stele in roots

D) periderm — parenchyma cells functioning in photosynthesis in leaves

16) Which of the following occurs in vascular land plants but not charophytes (stoneworts)?

A) sporopollenin

B) lignin

C) chlorophyll a

D) cellulose

17) Which of the following are water-conducting cells that are dead at functional maturity?

A) parenchyma cells

B) collenchyma cells

C) tracheids and vessel elements

D) sieve-tube elements

18) Which of the following cells transport sugars over long distances?

A) parenchyma cells

B) sclerenchyma cells

C) tracheids and vessel elements

D) sieve-tube elements

19) Plant meristematic cells _____.

A) are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant

B) are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells

C) increase the surface area of dermal tissue by developing root hairs

D) subdivide into three distinct cell types named parenchyma, ground meristem, and procambium

20) Which of the following arise, directly or indirectly, from meristematic activity?

A) secondary xylem

B) leaves

C) dermal tissue

D) secondary xylem, leaves, dermal tissue, and tubers

21) Compared to most animals, the growth of most plant structure is best described as _____.

A) perennial

B) weedy

C) indeterminate

D) primary

22) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?

I) the region of cell division

II) immature buds and leaves

III) cells that will give rise to the protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium

A) only I

B) only II

C) only III

D) I, II, and III

23) Shoot elongation in a growing bud is due primarily to _____.

A) cell division at the shoot apical meristem

B) cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem

C) cell elongation localized in each internode

D) cell division at the shoot apical meristem and cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem

24) Apical meristems of dicots are at the tips of stems. Apical meristems of grasses are at ground level or slightly below, concealed by the leaves. The leaves also have an intercalary meristem at their bases. What does this mean when considering care of a lawn or soccer field?

A) If you mow right at ground level, the leaves can keep growing with no problem.

B) Grass mowed two inches above ground level grows at a slower rate compared to grass mowed three inches above the ground level.

C) If you mow two inches above ground level, most apical meristems will be cut down.

D) If you mow two inches above ground level, both the apical and intercalary meristems can keep producing new cells.

25) In a meristematic region, the cell plate during mitosis is perpendicular to the side of the stem. In what direction will the stem grow?

A) laterally in width

B) vertically in height

C) at a 45-degree angle from the ground

D) away from the sun

26) Which of the following cells or tissues arise from lateral meristem activity?

A) secondary xylem

B) leaves

C) trichomes

D) tubers

27) Cells produced by lateral meristems are known as _____.

A) dermal and ground tissue

B) lateral tissues

C) pith

D) secondary tissues

28) Which of the following can be used to determine a twig’s age?

A) Number of apical bud scar rings

B) Number of leaf scars

C) Number and arrangement of axillary buds

D) Length of internodes

29) A plant that grows one year, dies back, and then grows again the following year, produces flowers and then dies would be considered _____.

A) annual

B) biennial

C) perennial

D) not very fit

30) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the zones in the primary growth of a root, moving from the root cap inward?

A) zone of cell division, zone of elongation, zone of differentiation

B) zone of differentiation, zone of elongation, zone of cell division

C) zone of elongation, zone of cell division, zone of differentiation

D) zone of cell division, zone of differentiation, zone of elongation

31) The driving force that pushes the root tip through the soil is primarily _____.

A) continuous cell division in the root cap at the tip of the root

B) continuous cell division just behind the root cap in the center of the apical meristem

C) elongation of cells behind the root apical meristem

D) continuous cell division of root cap cells

32) Mitotic activity by the apical meristem of a root makes which of the following more possible?

A) increased delivery of water to the aboveground stem

B) decreased absorption of mineral nutrients

C) increased absorption of carbon dioxide.

D) effective lateral growth of the stem

33) Which of the following root tissues gives rise to lateral roots?

A) endodermis

B) phloem

C) epidermis

D) pericycle

34) As a youngster, you drive a nail in the trunk of a young tree that is 3 meters tall. The nail is about 1.5 meters from the ground. Fifteen years later, you return and discover that the tree has grown to a height of 30 meters. About how many meters above the ground is the nail?

A) 0.5

B) 1.5

C) 3.0

D) 15.0

35) You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section. What do you conclude about the plant?

A) It is probably an herbaceous eudicot.

B) It will probably get annual rings of wood.

C) It is probably a monocot.

D) It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot.

36) Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem. This means that monocots _____.

A) are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars

B) have very thin stems

C) do not produce wood in annual rings

D) cannot produce lateral shoots

The following questions are based on the drawings of root or stem cross sections shown in the figure.

37) Refer to the figure above. A monocot stem is represented by _____.

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) IV only

38) Refer to the figure above. A woody eudicot is represented by _____.

A) II only

B) III only

C) IV only

D) I and III

39) Refer to the figure above. A plant that is at least three years old is represented by _____.

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) IV only

40) Canada thistle is a dicot that spreads via growth from lateral roots. You want to use a root miner insect for weed control. What would you need to observe in the underground growth to verify that this weed spreads via lateral roots and not by underground stems?

A) an epidermis at the periphery

B) vascular bundles in a ring around the outside of a cross section

C) a vascular bundle in the center surrounded by parenchyma tissue

D) meristematic tissue at the tips of the branches

41) A student examining leaf cross sections under a microscope finds many loosely packed cells with relatively thin cell walls. The cells have numerous chloroplasts. What type of cells are they?

A) parenchyma

B) endodermis

C) collenchyma

D) sclerenchyma

42) The veins of leaves are _____.

I) composed of xylem and phloem

II) continuous with vascular bundles in the stem and roots

III) finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cells

A) only I

B) only II

C) only III

D) I, II, and III

The following diagram is of a cross section of a plant leaf. Use the diagram to answer the question(s) below.

43) The main function associated with structure X is _____.

A) absorption of carbon dioxide

B) retention of water

C) collection of light

D) release of carbon dioxide

44) The main function associated with structure Y is _____.

A) absorption of carbon dioxide

B) retention of water

C) collection of light

D) release of carbon dioxide

45) Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of a leaf when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline is most analogous to a human _____.

A) breathing faster as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase

B) putting more red blood cells into circulation when atmospheric oxygen levels decline

C) removing red blood cells from circulation when atmospheric oxygen levels increase

D) increasing the volume of its lungs when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase

46) Where is primary growth occurring in an old tree?

A) Nowhere; trees more than a year old have only secondary growth.

B) closest to ground level at the base of the tree

C) in young branches where leaves are forming

D) where the vascular cambium and cork cambium are located

47) What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?

A) primary xylem

B) secondary xylem

C) secondary phloem

D) vascular cambium

48) A plant has the following characteristics: a taproot system, several growth rings evident in a cross section of the stem, and a layer of bark around the outside. Which of the following best describes the plant?

A) herbaceous eudicot

B) woody eudicot

C) woody monocot

D) herbaceous monocot

49) If you were able to walk into an opening cut into the center of a large redwood tree, when you exited from the middle of the trunk (stem) outward, you would cross, in order, _____.

A) the annual rings, new xylem, vascular cambium, phloem, and bark

B) the secondary xylem, cork cambium, phloem, and periderm

C) the vascular cambium, oldest xylem, and newest xylem

D) the secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and vascular cambium

50) Heartwood and sapwood consist of _____.

A) periderm

B) secondary xylem

C) secondary phloem

D) cork

51) Two examples of lateral meristems in plants are _____.

A) vascular cambium, producing cork; cork cambium, producing secondary phloem

B) vascular cambium, producing secondary xylem; cork cambium, producing secondary phloem

C) vascular cambium, producing secondary xylem; cork cambium, producing cork

D) vascular cambium, producing secondary phloem; cork cambium, producing secondary xylem

52) Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?

A) vascular cambium

B) apical meristem

C) endodermis

D) xylem

53) Girdling is a procedure to kill unwanted tress by cutting a groove into the bark of the tree. The groove must completely encircle the trunk and should penetrate into the wood to a depth of at least

-inch on small trees, and 1-

inches on larger trees. Why does this procedure cause tree death?

A) No water can be transported from the roots to the leaves.

B) No water can be transported from the leaves to the roots.

C) No sugars can be transported from the leaves to the roots.

D) Both water and sugars are prevented from being transported.

54) Where are the youngest wood and the youngest bark in a tree trunk?

A) Youngest wood is in the center of a tree; youngest bark is the outside of the bark.

B) Youngest wood is in the center of a tree; youngest bark is the inner part, next to the vascular cambium.

C) Youngest wood is toward the outside, near the vascular cambium; youngest bark is the outside of the bark.

D) Youngest wood is toward the outside, near the vascular cambium; youngest bark is the inner part, next to the vascular cambium.

55) The polarity of a plant is established when _____.

A) cotyledons form at the shoot end of the embryo

B) the shoot-root axis is established in the embryo

C) the primary root breaks through the seed coat

D) the shoot first breaks through the soil into the light as the seed germinates

56) Growth and development of plant parts involves _____.

I) cell division to produce new cells

II) enlargement and elongation of cells

III) specialization of cells into tissues

A) only I

B) only II

C) only III

D) I, II, and III

57) Totipotency is a term used to describe a cell's ability to give rise to a complete new organism. In plants, this means that _____.

A) plant development is not under genetic control

B) the cells of shoots and the cells of roots have different genes

C) cell differentiation depends largely on the control of gene expression

D) a cell's environment has no effect on its differentiation

58) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A band of ribosomes determines where a cell plate will form in a dividing plant cell.

B) The way in which a plant cell differentiates is determined by the position of the nucleus in the developing plant cell.

C) Homeotic genes often control morphogenesis.

D) Plant cells differentiate because the cytoskeleton determines which genes will be turned "on" and "off."

59) The phase change of an apical meristem from the juvenile to the mature vegetative phase is often revealed by _____.

A) a change in the morphology of the leaves produced

B) the initiation of secondary growth

C) a change in the orientation of preprophase bands and cytoplasmic microtubules in lateral meristems

D) the activation of floral meristem identity genes

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 36 Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants

1) Given that early land plants most likely share a common ancestor with green algae, the earliest land plants were most likely _____.

A) nonvascular plants that grew leafless, photosynthetic shoots

B) species that did not exhibit alternation of generations

C) vascular plants with well-defined root systems

D) plants with well-developed leaves

2) A fellow student brought in a leaf to be examined. The leaf was dark green, thin, had stoma on the lower surface only, and had a total surface area of ten square meters. Where is the most likely environment where this leaf was growing?

A) a large, still pond

B) a tropical rain forest

C) an oasis within a grassland

D) the floor of a deciduous forest

3) Why do most angiosperms have alternate phyllotaxy, with leaf emergence at an angle of 137.5° compared to leaves above and below?

A) To allow maximum exposure to light

B) To promote a leaf area index above 8

C) To reduce shading of lower leaves

D) To allow maximum exposure to light and to reduce shading of lower leaves

4) A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most probable cause of the deficiency?

A) Mineral receptor proteins in the plant membrane were not functioning.

B) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.

C) Active transport of minerals was inhibited.

D) The genes for the synthesis of transport proteins were destroyed.

5) Which structure or compartment is separate from the apoplastic route?

A) the lumen of a xylem vessel

B) the lumen of a sieve tube

C) the cell wall of a mesophyll cell

D) the cell wall of a root hair

6) The _____ is the most efficient route of water movement in plants, while the _____ is the most select.

A) apoplast: symplast

B) apoplast: transmembrane

C) symplast apoplast

D) transmembrane: symplast

7) Active transport of amino acids in plants at the cellular level requires _____.

A) NADP and channel proteins

B) xylem membranes and channel proteins

C) sodium/potassium pumps and xylem membranes

D) ATP, transport proteins, and a proton gradient

8) What is the function of proton pumps localized in the plant plasma membrane?

A) to transfer phosphorus groups from ATP to proteins

B) to transfer metal ions across the plasma membrane

C) to transfer anions across the plasma membrane

D) to create a membrane potential

9) Which of the following would be LEAST likely to affect osmosis in plants?

A) a difference in solute concentrations

B) receptor proteins in the membrane

C) aquaporins

D) a difference in water potential

10) The movement of water across biological membranes can best be predicted by _____.

A) prevailing weather conditions

B) aquaporins

C) level of active transport

D) water potentials

11) If isolated plant cells with a water potential averaging -0.5 MPa are placed into a solution with a water potential of -0.3 MPa, which of the following would be the most likely outcome?

A) The pressure potential of the cells would increase.

B) Water would move out of the cells.

C) The cell walls would rupture, killing the cells.

D) Solutes would move out of the cells.

12) The value for Ψ in root tissue was found to be -0.15 MPa. If you take the root tissue and place it in a 0.1 M solution of sucrose (Ψ = -0.23 MPa), the net water flow would _____.

A) be from the tissue into the sucrose solution

B) be from the sucrose solution into the tissue

C) be in both directions and the concentration of water would remain equal

D) be impossible to determine from the values given here

13) When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does not happen to plant cells, because _____.

A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water

B) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis

C) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water

D) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell

14) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?

A) A flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.

B) A flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.

C) A flaccid cell has higher solute potential.

D) A flaccid cell has lower solute potential.

15) Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will _____.

A) have a faster rate of osmosis

B) have a lower water potential

C) have a higher water potential

D) have a faster rate of active transport

16) Which of the following statements about bulk flow are correct?

I) Bulk flow is driven primarily by pressure potential.

II) Bulk flow depends on a difference in pressure potential at the source and sink.

III) Bulk flow depends on the force of gravity on a column of water.

IV) Bulk flow may be the result of either positive or negative pressure potential.

A) I and III

B) II and III

C) I, II, and IV

D) I, II, III, and IV

17) Which of the following are important components of the long-distance transport process in plants?

I) the cohesion of water molecules

II) a negative water potential

III) the root parenchyma

IV) the active transport of solutes

V) bulk flow from source to sink

A) II, III, IV, and V

B) I, III, IV, and V

C) I, II, IV, and V

D) I, II, III, and V

18) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called _____.

A) dehydration

B) respiration

C) gas exchange

D) transpiration

19) Which of the following contribute to the surface area available for water absorption from the soil by a plant root system?

I) root hairs

II) endodermis

III) mycorrhizae

IV) fibrous arrangement of the roots

A) II and III

B) I, III, and IV

C) I, II, and IV

D) I, II, III, and IV

20) What is the overall charge on the cytoplamsic side of a plant cell plasma membrane?

A) positive

B) negative

C) neutral

21) A water molecule could move all the way through a plant from soil to root to leaf to air and pass through a living cell only once. This living cell would be a part of which structure?

A) a guard cell

B) the root epidermis

C) the endodermis

D) the root cortex

22) In plant roots, the Casparian strip _____.

A) aids in the uptake of nutrients

B) provides energy for the active transport of minerals into the stele from the cortex

C) ensures that all minerals are absorbed from the soil in equal amounts

D) ensures that all water and dissolved substances must pass through a cell membrane before entering the stele

23) Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence against root pressure being the principal mechanism of water transport in the xylem?

A) Not all soils have high concentrations of ions.

B) Root pressure requires movement of water into the xylem from surrounding cells in the roots.

C) Over long distances, the force of root pressure is not enough to overcome the force of gravity.

D) There is no water potential gradient between roots and shoots.

24) One is most likely to see guttation in small plants when the _____.

A) transpiration rates are high

B) root pressure exceeds transpiration pull

C) the preceding evening was hot, windy, and dry

D) roots are not absorbing minerals from the soil

25) Most of the water taken up by a plant is _____.

A) used as a solvent

B) used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis

C) lost during transpiration

D) used to keep cells turgid

26) Transpiration in plants requires _____.

I) adhesion of water molecules to cellulose

II) cohesion between water molecules

III) evaporation of water molecules

IV) active transport through xylem cells

V) transport through tracheids

A) I, III, IV, and V

B) I, II, IV, and V

C) I, II, III, and V

D) I, II, III, and IV

27) What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree?

A) active transport of ions into the stele

B) evaporation of water through stoma

C) the force of root pressure

D) osmosis in the root

28) Water potential is generally most negative in which of the following parts of a plant?

A) mesophyll cells of the leaf

B) xylem vessels in leaves

C) xylem vessels in roots

D) cells of the root cortex

29) As an undergraduate research assistant, your duties involve measuring water potential in experimental soil-plant-atmosphere systems. Assume you make a series of measurements in a system under normal daylight conditions, with stomata open and photosynthesis occurring. Which of the following correctly depicts the trend your measurement data should follow if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating?

A) ψsoil < ψroots = ψleaves < ψatmosphere

B) ψatmosphere < ψleaves = ψroots < ψsoil

C) ψsoil < ψroots < ψleaves < ψatmosphere

D) ψatmosphere < ψleaves < ψroots < ψsoil

30) Formation of menisci, such as occurs in a tube filled with water, is an important factor in plant water movement. A meniscus is created by _____.

A) the upward pull of gravity on the water column in the tube

B) downward pressure from the atmosphere on the topmost layer of water molecules

C) the water molecules being pulled upward by adhesion to the air

D) the topmost layer of water molecules being pulled downward by the hydrogen bonds to the water molecules below

31) Which mechanism of water transport in xylem can contribute to recovery from cavitation?

A) cohesion-tension

B) capillarity

C) pressure flow

D) root pressure

32) Which of the following primarily enters a plant somewhere other than through the roots?

A) carbon dioxide

B) nitrogen

C) potassium

D) water

33) The opening of stomata is thought to involve _____.

A) an increase in the solute concentration of the guard cells

B) active transport of water out of the guard cells

C) decreased turgor pressure in guard cells

D) movement of K+ from the guard cells

34) Ignoring all other factors, what kind of day would result in the fastest delivery of water and minerals to the leaves of an oak tree?

A) cool, dry day

B) very hot, dry, windy day

C) warm, humid day

D) cool, humid day

35) Photosynthesis ceases when leaves wilt, mainly because _____.

A) the chlorophyll in wilting leaves is degraded

B) flaccid mesophyll cells are incapable of photosynthesis

C) stomata close, preventing carbon dioxide from entering the leaf

D) accumulation of carbon dioxide in the leaf inhibits enzymes

36) The water lost during transpiration is a side effect of the plant's exchange of gases. However, the plant derives some benefit from this water loss in the form of _____.

A) increased turgor and increased growth

B) mineral transport and increased growth

C) evaporative cooling and increased turgor

D) evaporative cooling and mineral transport

37) Which of the following experimental procedures would most likely reduce transpiration while allowing the normal growth of a plant?

A) subjecting the leaves of the plant to a partial vacuum

B) increasing the level of carbon dioxide around the plant

C) putting the plant in drier soil

D) decreasing the relative humidity around the plant

38) Several tomato plants are growing in a small garden plot. If soil water potential were to drop significantly on a hot, summer afternoon, which of the following would most likely occur?

A) Size of stomatal openings would decrease.

B) Transpiration would increase.

C) The leaves would become more turgid.

D) The uptake of carbon dioxide would be enhanced.

39) What is the advantage of having small, needlelike leaves?

A) increased transpiration rate

B) decreased transpiration rate

C) increased efficiency of light capture

D) decreased efficiency of light capture

40) Which of the following is a net sugar source for a deciduous angiosperm tree?

A) new leaves in early spring

B) fruits in summer

C) roots in early spring

D) roots in early autumn

41) Phloem transport is described as being from source to sink. Which of the following would most accurately complete this statement about phloem transport as applied to most plants in the late spring?

Phloem transports ________ from the ________ source to the ________ sink.

A) amino acids; root; mycorrhizae

B) sugars; leaf; apical meristem

C) proteins; root; leaf

D) sugars; woody stem; root

42) Arrange the following five events in an order that explains the mass flow of materials in the phloem.

1. Water diffuses into the sieve tubes.

2. Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis.

3. Solutes are actively transported into sieve tubes.

4. Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf.

5. Sugar moves down the stem.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

C) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

D) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

43) Water flows into the source end of a sieve tube because _____.

A) sucrose has been actively transported into the sieve tube, making it hypertonic

B) water pressure outside the sieve tube forces in water

C) the companion cell of a sieve tube actively pumps in water

D) sucrose has been transported out of the sieve tube by active transport

44) Which of the following supports the finding that sugar translocation in phloem is an active (energy-requiring) process?

A) Sucrose occurs in higher concentrations in companion cells than in the mesophyll cells where it is produced.

B) Movement of water occurs from xylem to phloem and back again.

C) Strong pH differences exist between the cytoplasm of the companion cell and the mesophyll cell.

D) ATPases are abundant in the plasma membranes of the mesophyll cells.

45) Which one of the following statements about transport of nutrients in phloem is correct?

A) Solute particles are actively transported from phloem at the source.

B) Companion cells control the rate and direction of movement of phloem sap.

C) Differences in osmotic concentration at the source and sink cause a hydrostatic pressure gradient to be formed.

D) A sink is the part of a plant where a particular solute is produced.

46) In the pressure-flow mechanism, loading of sucrose from companion cells to sieve-tube elements takes place through _____.

A) plasmodesmata

B) facilitated diffusion

C) sucrose-H+ symporters

D) sucrose-H+ antiporters

47) Which of the following is a correct statement about sugar movement in phloem?

A) Diffusion can account for the observed rates of transport.

B) Movement can occur both upward and downward in the plant.

C) Sugar is translocated from sinks to sources.

D) Only phloem cells with nuclei can perform sugar movement.

48) Plants do not have a circulatory system like that of some animals. If a water molecule in a plant did "circulate" (that is, go from one point in a plant to another and back in the same day), it would require the activity of _____.

A) only the xylem

B) only the phloem

C) only the endodermis

D) both the xylem and the phloem

49) As an undergraduate research assistant, you are assisting with a radioisotope tracer experiment. You expose a mature leaf on one side of the lower shoot of a sugar beet plant to 14CO2 and then track the movement of the 14C atoms by radiography. Where are you LEAST likely to detect 14C?

A) the treated leaf

B) the shoot apical meristem

C) the roots

D) a mature upper leaf on the opposite side of the plant from the treated leaf

50) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?

A) Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.

B) Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.

C) Transpiration is required for both processes.

D) Bulk flow of water is involved.

51) Some botanists argue that the entire plant should be considered as a single unit rather than a composite of many individual cells. Which of the following cellular structures best supports this view?

A) cell wall

B) cell membrane

C) vacuole

D) plasmodesmata

52) Plasmodesmata can change in number, and when dilated can provide a passageway for _____.

A) macromolecules such as ribonucleic acid (RNA) and proteins

B) ribosomes

C) chloroplasts

D) mitochondria

53) The symplastic route can transport _____.

A) sugars, mRNA, and mitochondria

B) mRNA, mitochondria, and proteins

C) mitochondria, mRNA, and viruses

D) viruses, sugars, and mRNA

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 37 Soil and Plant Nutrition

1) What soil composition would be best for availability of nutrients, water, and root development?

A) equal amounts of sand, clay, and humus

B) higher proportion of humus, lower amounts of clay and sand

C) higher proportion of clay, lower amounts of humus and sand

D) higher proportion of sand, lower amount of humus and clay

2) The highest amount of oxygen will be found in soils containing large amounts of _____.

A) clay

B) sand

C) gravel

D) silt

3) A group of ten tomato plants are germinated and maintained in a large tray with no drainage. After several weeks they all begin to wilt and die despite repeated watering and fertilization. The most likely cause of this die-off is _____.

A) competition for resources

B) a lack of oxygen for the roots

C) organic nutrient depletion

D) no room left for root growth

4) There are several properties that are characteristic of a soil in which typical plants would grow well. Of the following, which would be the least conducive to plant growth?

A) abundant humus

B) numerous soil organisms

C) compacted soil

D) high cation exchange capacity

5) Clay in soils represents a trade-off in nutrient availability, such that _____.

A) anions are less likely to leach out of soil and are difficult for plants to extract

B) cations are less likely to leach out of soil and are difficult for plants to extract

C) nitrogen levels are exceptionally high, but much of the nitrogen leaches away

D) oxygen levels are exceptionally high, but much of the nitrogen leaches away

6) Which of the following soil minerals is most likely leached away during a hard rain?

A) Na+

B) K+

C) Ca++

D) NO3-

7) Which of the following are problems associated with intensive irrigation?

I) mineral runoff

II) over fertilization

III) aquifer depletion

IV) soil salinization

A) only I and II

B) only I, III, and IV

C) only III and IV

D) I, II, III, and IV

8) A young farmer purchases some land in a relatively arid area and is interested in earning a reasonable profit for many years. Which of the following strategies would best allow the farmer to achieve such a goal?

A) establishing an extensive irrigation system

B) using plenty of the best fertilizers

C) finding a way to sell all parts of crop plants

D) selecting crops adapted to arid areas

9) The NPK percentages on a package of fertilizer refer to the _____.

A) percentages of manure collected from different types of animals

B) relative percentages of organic and inorganic nutrients in the fertilizer

C) percentages of three important mineral nutrients

D) proportions of three different nitrogen sources

10) Which of the following would inhibit the growth of most plants?

A) abundant humus

B) air spaces

C) good drainage

D) a pH above 10.0

11) Which of the following contributed to the dust bowl in the American southwest during the 1930s?

I) overgrazing by cattle

II) clear-cutting of forest trees

III) plowing of native grasses

IV) lack of soil moisture

A) I and II

B) II, III, and IV

C) I, III, and IV

D) I, II, III, IV

12) Why does planting a cover crop help conserve soil?

I) controls weed populations

II) reduces soil loss due to wind and water erosion

III) increases soil nutrients when plowed under and allowed to decompose

A) only I

B) I and II

C) II and III

D) I, II, and III

13) Which of the following would be the most effective strategy to remove toxic heavy metals from a soil?

A) heavy irrigation to leach out the heavy metals

B) application of sulfur to lower the soil pH and precipitate the heavy metals

C) adding plant species that have the ability to take up and accumulate heavy metals

D) inoculating soil with mycorrhizae to avoid heavy-metal uptake

14) When comparing root systems of corn plants growing on a square foot in a cornfield with the root systems of natural prairie plants growing in a meadow, what result do you expect to see?

A) The overall mass of roots will be identical in a cornfield and on a meadow.

B) The mass and length of roots in a cornfield will be higher because soil is fertilized.

C) The mass and length of roots on a meadow will be higher because soil is poorer and there is higher diversity of plants.

D) The overall mass of roots on a meadow will be lower, but the length will be higher since roots need to grow deeper to reach nutrients.

15) Most of the dry mass of a plant is the result of uptake of _____.

A) water and minerals through root hairs

B) water and minerals through mycorrhizae

C) carbon dioxide through stoma

D) carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata in leaves

16) How would you expect the root system of a plant grown by hydroponics to compare to the root system of a plant grown in soil? The root system of a plant grown by hydroponics would be _____.

A) more developed

B) less developed

C) about the same

D) absent

17) Which of the following statements about essential nutrients are true? Essential nutrients _____.

I) are necessary for plant growth and reproduction

II) are required for a specific structure or metabolic function

III) cannot be synthesized by a plant

IV) are produced by symbiotic bacteria

A) I and IV

B) II, III, and IV

C) I, II, and III

D) I, II, III, and IV

18) Which of the following experiments is the best way to determine if an element is essential for plant growth?

A) Measure the amount of the element stored in plant tissues.

B) Measure the amount of the element in the soil after plant growth.

C) Measure the weight of the plant and soil before and after plant growth.

D) Grow a plant using hydroponics with and without the element.

19) Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?

A) molecular weight of the element or compound

B) the quantities of each required by plants

C) how they are used in metabolism

D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth

20) Which elements are most often the limiting nutrients for plant growth?

A) nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus

B) nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen

C) carbon, sodium, chlorine

D) carbon, nitrogen, oxygen

21) Synthesis of which of the following compounds in a mature leaf would be least impacted by a temporary soil nitrogen deficiency?

A) DNA

B) RNA

C) amino acids

D) cellulose

22) A major function of magnesium in plants is to be _____.

A) required to regenerate phosphoenolpyruvate in C4 and CAM plants

B) a component of DNA and RNA

C) a component of chlorophyll

D) active in amino acid formation

23) Micronutrients are needed in very small amounts because _____.

A) most of them are mobile in the plant

B) most serve mainly as cofactors of enzymes

C) they play only a minor role in the growth and health of the plant

D) only the most actively growing regions of the plants require micronutrients

24) Two groups of tomatoes were grown under laboratory conditions, one with humus added to the soil and one a control without humus. The leaves of the plants grown without humus were yellowish (less green) compared with those of the plants grown in the humus-enriched soil. The best explanation for this difference is that _____.

A) the healthy plants used the food in the decomposing leaves of the humus for energy to make chlorophyll

B) the humus made the soil more loosely packed, so water penetrated more easily to the roots

C) the humus contained minerals such as magnesium and iron, needed for the synthesis of chlorophyll

D) the heat released by the decomposing leaves of the humus caused more rapid growth and chlorophyll synthesis

25) Soil leaching can cause nutrient deficiencies in the soil. Which of the following are symptoms of nutrient deficiency in plants?

I) chlorosis

II) death of meristems

III) excess storage of chlorophyll

IV) small internodes

A) I, II, and III

B) II, III, and IV

C) I, II, and IV

D) I, II, III, and IV

26) If an African violet has chlorosis, which of the following elements might be a useful addition to the soil?

A) molybdenum

B) copper

C) iodine

D) magnesium

27) Which of the following are characteristic of both rhizobia and mycorrhizae?

I) They both benefit by receiving sugars from the plant.

II) They both become parasitic in nutrient-rich environments.

III) They both enhance the growth of most plants.

IV) They both are found in most ecosystems of the world.

A) only I and II

B) only I, III, and IV

C) only III and IV

D) I, II, III, and IV

28) Which of the following are functions of rhizobacteria?

I) produce hormones that stimulate plant growth

II) produce antibiotics that protect roots from disease

III) absorb toxic metals

IV) carry out nitrogen fixation

A) only II and IV

B) only I, II, and III

C) only III and IV

D) I, II, III, and IV

29) Nitrogen fixation is a process that _____.

A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials

B) converts ammonia to ammonium

C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate

D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia

30) Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?

A) Nitrogen fixation can only be done by certain prokaryotes.

B) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

C) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.

D) Nitrogen fixers are sometimes symbiotic with legumes.

31) You are weeding your garden when you accidentally expose some roots of your pea plants. You notice swellings (root nodules) on the roots and there is a reddish tinge to the ones you accidentally damaged. Most likely your peas plants _____.

A) suffer from a mineral deficiency

B) are infected with a parasite

C) are benefiting from a mutualistic bacterium

D) are developing offshoots from the root

32) The specific relationship between a legume and its mutualistic Rhizobium strain probably depends on _____.

A) each legume having a chemical dialogue with a fungus

B) each Rhizobium strain having a form of nitrogenase that works only in the appropriate legume host

C) each legume being found where the soil has only the Rhizobium specific to that legume

D) specific recognition between the chemical signals and signal receptors of the Rhizobium strain and legume species

33) Rhizobia, actinomycetes, and cyanobacteria all share the common feature that they can _____.

A) increase water uptake in plants

B) kill parasites in the soil

C) exist in extreme environments

D) fix atmospheric nitrogen

34) The earliest vascular plants on land had underground stems (rhizomes) but no roots. Water and mineral nutrients were most likely obtained by _____.

A) diffusion through stomata

B) absorption by mycorrhizae

C) osmosis through the root hairs

D) diffusion across the cuticle of the rhizome

35) What major benefits do plants and mycorrhizal fungi receive from their symbiotic relationship?

A) Plants receive enzymes, and fungi receive nitrogen and phosphorus.

B) Plants receive increased root surface area, and fungi receive digestive enzymes.

C) Fungi receive photosynthetic products in exchange for living in plant root nodules.

D) Plants receive nitrogen and phosphorus, and fungi receive photosynthetic products.

36) Hyphae form a covering over roots. These hyphae create a large surface area that helps to do which of the following?

A) aid in absorbing minerals and ions

B) maintain cell shape

C) increase cellular respiration

D) anchor a plant

37) A plant developed a mineral deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most probable cause of the deficiency?

A) Mineral receptor proteins in the plant membrane were not functioning.

B) Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.

C) Active transport of minerals was inhibited.

D) Proton pumps reversed the membrane potential.

38) We would expect the greatest difference in plant health between two groups of plants of the same species, one group with mycorrhizae and one group without mycorrhizae, in an environment _____.

A) where nitrogen-fixing bacteria are abundant

B) that has soil with poor drainage

C) in which the soil is relatively deficient in mineral nutrients

D) that is near a body of water, such as a pond or river

39) Which of the following is a primary difference between ectomycorrhizae and endomycorrhizae?

A) Endomycorrhizae have thicker, shorter hyphae than ectomycorrhizae.

B) Ectomycorrhizae do not penetrate root cells, whereas endomycorrhizae grow into invaginations of the root cell membranes.

C) Endomycorrhizae are more common than ectomycorrhizae.

D) There are no significant differences between ectomycorrhizae and endomycorrhizae.

40) Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of _____.

A) energy

B) carbohydrates

C) lipids and steroids

D) nitrogen and other minerals

41) Epiphytes are _____.

A) aerial vines common in tropical regions

B) plants that live in poor soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen

C) plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts

D) plants that have a symbiotic relationship with fungi

42) While hiking in a forest, you notice an unusual plant growing on the branches of a tree. What will help you to determine if this plant is epiphytic or parasitic?

A) If the plant is green, it is epiphytic; if not, then it is parasitic.

B) The root of an epiphytic plant will be in the soil, but a parasitic plant will grow from the trunk of a tree.

C) The roots of a parasitic plant will penetrate under the bark into the tree xylem, and the roots of epiphytic plant will not.

D) The epiphytic plant will have large water collecting leaves, and the parasitic plant will not.

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 38 Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology

1) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a complete flower?

A) petals → sepals → stamens → carpels

B) sepals → stamens → petals → carpels

C) spores → gametes → zygote → embryo

D) sepals → petals → stamens → carpels

2) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest, assuming that they belong to two generations of the same angiosperm.

1. ovary

2. ovule

3. egg

4. carpel

5. embryo sac

A) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

B) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

C) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3

D) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

3) A summer occupation in the Corn Belt states is de-tasseling the corn: removing unwanted male flowers so that female flowers on the same plant are pollinated by the desired pollen for the hybrid corn. What does this tell you about corn? The flowers are _____.

A) perfect and the plant is dioecious

B) perfect and the plant is monoecious

C) imperfect and the plant is dioecious

D) imperfect and the plant is monoecious

4) During the alternation of generations in plants, _____.

A) meiosis produces gametes

B) mitosis produces gametes

C) fertilization produces spores

D) fertilization produces gametes

5) Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution?

A) the trend toward smaller size

B) the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle

C) the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle

D) the trend toward larger gametophytes

6) Retaining the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants _____.

A) protects the zygote from herbivores

B) evolved concurrently with pollen

C) helps in dispersal of the zygote

D) allows it to be nourished by the parent plant

7) Sperm cells are formed in plants by _____.

A) meiosis in pollen grains

B) meiosis in anthers

C) mitosis in male gametophyte

D) mitosis in the micropyle

8) A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then rinses away the excess stain, what should occur?

A) The pollen grains will be pure red.

B) The pollen grains will be pure blue.

C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.

D) The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors.

9) In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent?

A) ovule — egg

B) embryo sac — female gametophyte

C) seed — zygote

D) microspore — pollen grain

10) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells?

A) mitosis

B) meiosis

C) mitosis without subsequent cytokinesis

D) meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis

11) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is correct?

A) The gametophyte is the dominant generation.

B) Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.

C) Pollination is the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel.

D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains one polar nucleus and two sperm nuclei.

12) In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube on its way to the egg?

1. micropyle

2. style

3. ovary

4. stigma

A) 4 →? 2 → 3 → 1

B) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1

C) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2

D) 3 → 2 → 4 → 1

13) If an ovary contains 50 ovules, what is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land to form 50 mature seeds?

A) 25

B) 50

C) 100

D) 500

14) Double fertilization means that _____.

A) flowers must be pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds

B) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei

C) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid

D) every sperm has two nuclei

15) What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms?

A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue.

B) A triploid zygote is formed.

C) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.

D) Two embryos develop in every seed.

16) Suppose that 100 pollen grains land on a stigma, and 50 mature seeds are formed in the fruit. What does this indicate about the pollination process and success?

A) 50% success: 100 pollen grains grew to 50 ovules, and double fertilization occurred.

B) 50% success: evidently, only 50 sperm pollinated 50 anthers.

C) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 50 polar nuclei.

D) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei.

17) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?

A) ovule

B) ovary

C) stamen

D) carpel

18) The vast number and variety of flower species is probably related to various kinds of _____.

A) seed dispersal agents

B) pollinators

C) herbivores

D) climatic conditions

19) It is estimated that animal-pollinated or insect-pollinated plants produce 1000 pollen grains for each ovule; wind-pollinated plants produce 1,000,000 pollen grains for each ovule. What does that indicate about pollination systems?

A) Wind-pollinated plants rarely produce seeds.

B) Wind pollination is more efficient than animal-assisted pollination.

C) Wind pollination is less efficient than animal-assisted pollination.

D) Wind pollination is costlier to the plant than animal-assisted pollination.

20) Cottonwood, aspen, and willow trees have beige flowers, with no petals, that appear before the tree's leaves are out in the spring; and they are dioecious. What does this indicate about these trees?

A) Their insect pollinators are specialists.

B) Early emerging insects are probably the pollinators.

C) Their pollen is dispersed by wind.

D) The trees are self-pollinating.

21) Which of the following occur during the formation of an embryo from a zygote in angiosperms?

I) The root and shoot systems emerge from the seed.

II) Basal cells form a connection between the parent plant and the developing embryo.

III) Meiosis produces a mass of cells that become the young embryo.

IV) Cells differentiate to form the basic plant tissue types.

V) The early root-shoot axis is formed.

A) I, II, and III

B) II, IV, and V

C) II, III, IV, and V

D) III, IV, and V

22) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12). What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?

A) The sperm has 6 chromosomes.

B) The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.

C) The zygote has 12 chromosomes.

D) The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.

23) What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means?

1. The exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks.

2. The seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the animal's mouth.

3. The seed coat should be able to withstand low pHs.

4. The seed coat, upon its complete digestion, should provide vitamins or nutrients to animals.

5. The seed coat should be resistant to the animals' digestive enzymes.

A) 4 only

B) 1 and 2

C) 3 and 5

D) 3, 4, and 5

24) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?

A) Cell division occurs in the embryo and growth starts.

B) Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.

C) Water is taken up.

D) Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.

25) Before plowing a field, a farmer thought the bare field looked weed-free. Three days after plowing and turning over the soil, he was amazed to see thousands of tiny seedlings. What is the most likely reason for the mass germination of seeds?

A) large seeds that needed soil disturbance to germinate

B) small seeds that need light to germinate

C) small seeds that were scarified by exposure to plow

D) large seeds that needed exposure to higher levels of oxygen to germinate

26) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

A) wind pollination

B) dominant gametophytes

C) fruits enclosing seeds

D) sperm cells without flagella

27) Which of the following flower parts develops into the pulp of a fleshy fruit?

A) stigma

B) style

C) ovule

D) ovary

28) The black dots that cover strawberries are actually individual fruits. The fleshy and tasty portion of a strawberry derives from the receptacle of a flower with many separate carpels. Therefore, a strawberry is _____.

A) both a multiple fruit and an aggregate fruit

B) both a multiple fruit and an accessory fruit

C) both an aggregate fruit and an accessory fruit

D) a simple fruit with many seeds

29) Among plants known as legumes (beans, peas, alfalfa, clover, for example) the seeds are contained in a fruit that is itself called a legume, better known as a pod. Upon opening such pods, it is commonly observed that some ovules have become mature seeds, whereas other ovules have not. Thus, which of the following statements is (are) true?

1. The flowers that gave rise to such pods were not pollinated.

2. Pollen tubes did not enter all of the ovules in such pods.

3. There was apparently not enough endosperm to distribute to all of the ovules in such pods.

4. The ovules that failed to develop into seeds were derived from sterile floral parts.

5. Fruit can develop, even if all ovules within have not been fertilized.

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 5

C) 2 and 5

D) 3 and 5

30) Unripe fruits protect seeds from predation and early germination. What is the major function of ripe fruits?

A) attracting pollinators

B) dispersing seed

C) releasing nutrients to seeds

D) keeping the seed hydrated before germination

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate.

31) If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with nectar in her stomach, and if she visits another flower on a different Brazil nut tree, what is the sequence in which the following events should occur?

1. double fertilization

2. pollen tube emerges from pollen grain

3. pollen tube enters micropyle

4. pollination

A) 4, 2, 3, 1

B) 4, 3, 2, 1

C) 2, 4, 3, 1

D) 2, 4, 1, 3

32) Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees.

A) breezes

B) rain droplets

C) seed-eating birds

D) squirrels

33) Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from plantations grown in Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees in South American plantations also failed. In both cases, the trees grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers in profusion, but set no fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the problem?

A) poor sporophyte fertility

B) failure to produce fertile ovules

C) failure to produce pollen

D) pollination failure

34) The same bees that pollinate the flowers of the Brazil nut trees also pollinate orchids, which are epiphytes (in other words, plants that grow on other plants); however, orchids cannot grow on Brazil nut trees. These observations explain _____.

A) the coevolution of Brazil nut trees and orchids

B) why Brazil nut trees do not set fruit in monoculture plantations

C) why male orchid bees do not pollinate Brazil nut tree flowers

D) why male orchid bees are smaller than female orchid bees

35) The agouti is most directly involved with the Brazil nut tree's dispersal of _____.

A) male gametophytes

B) female gametophytes

C) sporophyte embryos

D) sporophyte megaspores

36) Animals that consume Brazil nuts derive nutrition mostly from tissue whose nuclei have how many chromosomes?

A) 17

B) 34

C) 51

D) 68

37) Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary advantage of asexual reproduction in plants?

A) increased success of progeny in a stable environment.

B) increased agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment.

C) maintenance and expansion of a large genome.

D) increased ability to adapt to a change in the environment.

38) Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually than sexually. Yet most plants reproduce sexually in nature. What is the probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual reproduction? Sexual reproduction _____.

A) is more energy efficient than asexual reproduction

B) ensures genetic continuity from parents to offspring

C) mixes up alleles contributing to variation in a species

D) is not dependent on other agents of pollination

39) Which of the following is a true statement about asexual reproduction in plants?

A) Clones of plants do not occur naturally.

B) Cloning, although achieved in animals, has not been demonstrated in plants.

C) Making cuttings of ornamental plants is a form of fragmentation.

D) Reproduction of plants by cloning may be either sexual or asexual.

40) While looking at a flower in your garden, you notice that it has carpels with very long styles, and stamens with very short filaments. This plant is most likely to reproduce by _____.

A) cross-pollination

B) selfing

C) asexual reproduction

41) Which of the following types of plants are incapable of self-pollination?

A) dioecious

B) monoecious

C) wind-pollinated

D) insect-pollinated

42) Which of the following is a potential advantage of introducing apomixis into hybrid crop species?

A) Cultivars would be better able to cope with a rapidly changing environment.

B) They would have a larger potential genome than inbred crops.

C) All of the desirable traits of the cultivar would be passed on to offspring.

D) They would benefit from positive mutations in their DNA.

43) Pollen from a plant with the S1S2 genotype is recognized and allowed to germinate on the stigma of the same plant with the S1S2 genotype. According to the S-system hypothesis, this indicates that the plant is _____.

A) self-compatible and can self-pollinate.

B) self-compatible and must cross-pollinate.

C) self-incompatible and can self-pollinate.

D) self-incompatible and must cross-pollinate.

44) Over human history, which process has been most important in improving the features of plants that have long been used by humans as staple foods?

A) genetic engineering

B) artificial selection

C) sexual selection

D) pesticide and herbicide application

45) Which of these activities is part of the development of crop plants from wild relatives?

I) people planting seeds of the plants with the characteristic wanted

II) people making observations of desired plant characteristics

III) people eating products from only the plants with desired characteristics

IV) people developing several varieties of crops from a wild relative

A) I and II

B) I and IV

C) I, III, and IV

D) I, II, and IV

46) Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located, for the winery to produce a Burgundy, it must use varietal grapes that originated in Burgundy, France. The most effective way for a new California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to _____.

A) plant seeds obtained from French varietal Burgundy grapes

B) transplant varietal Burgundy plants from France

C) acquire a tissue culture of varietal Burgundy grapes from France

D) graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian) root stocks

47) The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include _____.

I) creating crops that can grow on land previously unsuitable for agriculture

II) creating crops with better potential for biofuel production

III) creating crops with better nutritional attributes

IV) increasing crop yield

V) decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes

A) only II, III, and IV

B) only I, II, III, and IV

C) only III, IV, and V

D) I, II, III, IV, and V

48) "Golden Rice" _____.

A) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those herbicides

B) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests

C) produces larger, golden grains that increase crop yields

D) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content

49) Which of the following is a scientific concern related to creating genetically modified crops?

A) Herbicide resistance may spread to weedy species.

B) Genetically modified crops cannot survive without the addition of great amounts of fertilizer to the soil.

C) The monetary costs of growing genetically modified plants are significantly greater than traditional breeding techniques.

D) Genetically modified plants are less stable and may revert back to parental genotypes.

50) Which of the following would be the most problematic for the natural environment in the development of genetically engineered crops?

A) the introduction of male sterility into crops

B) the creation of transgenic crops with apomictic seeds

C) the creation of crops with flowers that develop normally, but fail to open

D) the creation of transgenic crops that hybridize more easily

51) Fruit ripening represents an example of positive feedback. Which one of the following statements accurately justifies why the process of fruit ripening involves positive feedback?

A) Once seeds have reached maturity, chemical signals increase enzymatic activity in fruit to convert sugars into starches, thicken pulp, and maintain color in the fruit.

B) Once seeds have reached maturity, chemical signals block enzymatic steps that normally convert sugars into starches and sugars accumulate from photosynthetic activity within the fruit.

C) Chemical signals initiate a process that triggers enzymatic activity, which involves converting starches into sugars, softening of pulp, and color change of fruit.

D) Chemical signals shut down enzymatic activity within the fruit, which results in breakdown of starches into sugars, softening of pulp, and color change of fruit.

52) In order for an ovule (egg cell) in a flower to be fertilized and form a viable seed, pollination must occur. In this process, a sperm cell is delivered to the ovule when the pollen grain lands on the stigma and grows a tube, which enters the ovary and discharges the sperm cell to form a diploid zygote when it fuses with the egg cell. Although it only takes one pollen grain to successfully deliver sperm to the egg, numerous pollen grains are generally transferred to the stigma during insect pollination of flowering plants. Which phenotypic traits of pollen would you predict to be selected upon to promote survival and fitness within an insect-pollinated flowering plant?

A) High pollen tube growth rate and ability to detect chemicals from cells surrounding the egg.

B) Ability to produce the most cells during mitotic growth of the pollen tube.

C) Elaborate and striking UV "nectary guides" on the petals to guide an insect to the stigma.

D) Larger pollen in order to carry the tube that is necessary for delivery of the sperm cells.

53) Many flowering plants coevolve with specific pollinators. The Madagascar orchid has a 12-inch floral tube and is a reliable nectar source for the hawkmoth, which has a correspondingly long proboscis (tongue). Which statement most accurately describes how coevolution might have occurred for the hawkmoth and Madagascar orchid shown here?

A) The hawkmoths that expended the most effort to reach the nectar would be the most fit, and pass the longer tongue phenotype to their offspring.

B) Natural selection would favor orchids with nectar tubes just long enough to for an insect with pollen to make contact. Hawkmoths whose tongue could reach the deep tubes would be more fit.

C) Hawkmoths whose tongue was just long enough to obtain nectar, but not able to pick up pollen would become the most fit in the population.

D) It is most likely that mutations that resulted in both the length of the orchid floral tube and the length of the hawkmoth tongue occurred abruptly and simultaneously.

Kenn999

Monday, 23 January 2017

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