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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 45 Hormones
and the Endocrine System
1)
You are dissecting a fish in your biology laboratory section. Your teaching
assistant points out a long oval structure and tells you it is an endocrine
gland. Which of the following would you then know is a true statement about
this structure?
A)
It secretes a product that is released through a series of ducts.
B)
The gland's product will only interact with receptors on the cell membrane.
C)
The gland's product is lipid soluble.
D)
The gland produces and secretes its product into the blood.
2)
In experiments where researchers suspect that a hormone may be responsible for
a certain physiological effect, they may cut the neurons leading to the organ
where the effect being studied occurs. What is the purpose of cutting these
neurons?
A)
to make sure that the effect is not occurring through actions in the nervous
system
B)
to make sure that the organ being affected cannot function unless the
researchers stimulate it with an external electrical probe
C)
to impair the normal functions of the organ so that the hormonal effect can be
more easily studied
D)
to numb the organ so that it can be probed without inducing pain in the lab
animal
3)
What is the only type of chemical signal that does not alter the physiology of
the animal producing that signal?
A)
neural
B)
paracrine
C)
neuroendocrine
D)
pheromones
4)
Testosterone is an example of a chemical signal that affects the very cells
that synthesize it, the neighboring cells in the testis, along with distant
cells outside the gonads. Thus, testosterone is an example of _____.
I) an
autocrine signal
II) a
paracrine signal
III) an
endocrine signal
A)
only I and II
B)
only II and III
C)
only I and III
D)
I, II, and III
5)
Prostaglandins are local regulators whose chemical structure is derived from
_____.
A)
oligosaccharides
B)
fatty acids
C)
steroids
D)
amino acids
6)
Aspirin and ibuprofen both _____.
A)
inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins
B)
inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator
C)
activate the paracrine signaling pathways that form blood clots
D)
stimulate vasoconstriction in the kidneys
7)
A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is
called that hormone's _____.
A)
secretory cell
B)
endocrine cell
C)
target cell
D)
regulatory cell
8)
The reason that the steroid hormone aldosterone affects only a small number of
cells in the body is that _____.
A)
only its target cells get exposed to aldosterone
B)
only its target cells contain aldosterone receptors
C)
it is unable to enter nontarget cells
D)
nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce any effect
9)
Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones
because _____.
A)
different target cells have different sets of genes
B)
a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal
transduction pathways
C)
the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones
to specific targets
D)
the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the
circulatory system
10)
Hormone X activates the cAMP second messenger system in its target cells. The
greatest response by a cell would come from _____.
A)
applying a molecule of hormone X to the extracellular fluid surrounding the
cell
B)
injecting a molecule of hormone X into the cytoplasm of the cell
C)
applying a molecule of cAMP to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell
D)
injecting a molecule of activated, cAMP-dependent protein kinase into the
cytoplasm of the cell
11)
When a steroid hormone and a peptide hormone exert similar effects on a
population of target cells, then _____.
A)
the steroid and peptide hormones must use the same biochemical mechanisms
B)
the steroid and peptide hormones must bind to the same receptor protein
C)
the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide
hormones activate effector proteins already present in the cell
D)
the steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell,
whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA
12)
Based on their effects, which pair below would NOT be expected to be active at
the same time and place?
A)
prostaglandin and nitric oxide
B)
endocrine and exocrine glands
C)
hormones and target cells
D)
neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters
13)
The steroid hormone that coordinates molting in arthropods is _____.
A)
ecdysteroid
B)
glucagon
C)
thyroxine
D)
growth hormone
14)
Growth factors are local regulators that _____.
A)
are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and cartilage growth
B)
are found on the surface of cancer cells and stimulate abnormal cell division
C)
bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target
cells
D)
convey messages between nerve cells
15)
Steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common _____.
A)
the building blocks from which they are synthesized
B)
their solubility in cell membranes
C)
their requirement for travel through the bloodstream
D)
their reliance on signal transduction in the cell
16)
A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce
surrounding cells to grow and divide is showing which type of cell-to-cell
signaling?
A)
autocrine
B)
paracrine
C)
endocrine
D)
neuroendocrine
17)
If a portion of the pancreas is surgically removed from a rat and the rat
subsequently loses its appetite, one explanation is that the removed portion
contains cells that secrete a chemical signal that somehow stimulates appetite.
Given this scenario, what type of chemical signaling is occurring?
A)
autocrine
B)
paracrine
C)
endocrine
D)
neuroendocrine
18)
If a biochemist discovers a new molecule, which of the following pieces of data
would allow her to draw the conclusion that the molecule is a steroid hormone?
I) The
molecule is lipid soluble.
II) The
molecule is derived from a series of steps beginning with cholesterol.
III) The
molecule acts at a target tissue some distance from where it is produced.
IV) The
molecule uses a carrier protein when in an aqueous solution such as blood.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III, and IV
19)
Which of the following are similar in structure to cholesterol?
A)
leptin and serotonin
B)
luteinizing hormone and insulin
C)
melanocyte-stimulating hormone and vasopressin
D)
testosterone, estradiol, and cortisol
20)
Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects?
I) autocrine
II) paracrine
III) endocrine
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and III
C)
only I and II
D)
I, II, and III
21)
What property of steroid hormones allows them to cross the phospholipid
bilayer?
A)
Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and easily cross the phospholipid bilayer.
B)
Steroid hormones can act in very small concentrations and very few molecules of
steroids need to cross the lipid bilayer.
C)
Steroid hormones act on cells close to where they were produced and very few
molecules are required to travel such a short distance to cross the lipid bilayer.
D)
Steroid hormones act on the same cells in which they are produced and,
therefore, are within the cell they are acting upon.
22)
Tadpoles must undergo a major metamorphosis to become frogs. This change
includes reabsorption of the tail, growth of limbs, calcification of the
skeleton, increase in rhodopsin in the eye, development of lungs, change in
hemoglobin structure, and reformation of the gut from the long gut of an
herbivore to the short gut of a carnivore. Amazingly, all of these changes are
induced by thyroxine. What is the most likely explanation for such a wide array
of effects of thyroxine?
A)
There are many different forms of thyroxine, each specific to a different
tissue.
B)
Different tissues have thyroxine receptors that activate different signal
transduction pathways.
C)
Some tissues have membrane receptors for thyroxine, while other tissues have
thyroxine receptors within the nucleus.
D)
Different releasing hormones release thyroxine to different tissues.
23)
When adenylyl cyclase is activated ________.
A)
cAMP is created
B)
cAMP is destroyed
C)
G proteins bind to cAMP
D)
steroid hormones pass through the lipid bilayer
24)
Insect hormones and their receptors _____.
A)
act independently of each other
B)
are a focus in pest control research
C)
utilize cell-surface receptors only
D)
are active independently of environmental cues
25)
During mammalian labor and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles is
enhanced by oxytocin. This is an example of _____.
A)
a negative feedback system
B)
a hormone that acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone
C)
a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop
D)
signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells
26)
Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine activity?
A)
the pituitary gland
B)
parathyroid glands
C)
salivary glands
D)
the pancreas
27)
Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for
twenty-four hours would be expected to reveal high levels of _____.
A)
insulin
B)
glucagon
C)
gastrin
D)
glucose
28)
When the beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood, _____.
A)
the skeletal muscles and the adipose cells take up glucose at a faster rate
B)
the liver catabolizes glycogen
C)
the alpha cells of the pancreas release glucose into the blood
D)
the kidneys begin gluconeogenesis
29)
The steroid hormone that coordinates molting in arthropods is _____.
A)
ecdysteroid
B)
glucagon
C)
thyroxine
D)
growth hormone
30)
Which of the following statements are correct?
I) Hormones
often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions.
II) Hormones
of the same chemical class usually have the same function.
III) Hormones
are secreted by specialized cells usually located in exocrine glands.
IV) Hormones
are often regulated through feedback loops.
A)
only II and III
B)
only I and III
C)
only III and IV
D)
only I and IV
31)
An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is _____.
A)
thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance
B)
insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism
C)
progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation
D)
epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses
32)
The relationship between the insect hormones ecdysteroid and PTTH is an example
of _____.
A)
an interaction of the endocrine and nervous systems
B)
competitive inhibition of a hormone receptor
C)
how peptide-derived hormones have more widespread effects than steroid hormones
D)
homeostasis maintained by antagonistic hormones
33)
Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the _____.
A)
cerebellum
B)
thalamus
C)
hypothalamus
D)
medulla oblongata
34)
Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt _____.
A)
short-term memory
B)
coordination during locomotion
C)
executive functions, such as decision making
D)
regulation of body temperature
35)
The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are
especially apparent in a _____.
A)
steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex
B)
neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus
C)
brain cell in the cerebral cortex
D)
cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes
36)
Portal blood vessels connect two capillary beds found in the _____.
A)
hypothalamus and thalamus
B)
anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary
C)
hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
D)
posterior pituitary and thyroid gland
37)
If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she
may die from dehydration. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can help reduce water loss
through its interaction with its target cells in the _____.
A)
anterior pituitary
B)
posterior pituitary
C)
bladder
D)
kidney
38)
A product of the anterior pituitary gland that causes color changes in its
target cells is _____.
A)
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
C)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D)
melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
39)
In a lactating mammal, the two hormones that promote milk synthesis and milk
release, respectively, are _____.
A)
prolactin and calcitonin
B)
prolactin and oxytocin
C)
follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
D)
luteinizing hormone and oxytocin
40)
Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are synthesized in the _____.
A)
hypothalamus
B)
adenohypophysis
C)
anterior pituitary
D)
posterior pituitary
41)
Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A)
dwarfism — the adrenal cortex
B)
gigantism — the anterior pituitary gland
C)
goiter — the adrenal medulla
D)
diabetes mellitus — the parathyroid glands
42)
The body's reaction to PTH (parathyroid hormone), raising plasma levels of
calcium, can be opposed by _____.
A)
thyroxine
B)
epinephrine
C)
growth hormone
D)
calcitonin
43)
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a
patient whose iodine level is normal?
A)
greater production of T3 than of T4
B)
hyposecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C)
hypersecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D)
a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin
44)
When a person drinks alcohol, the rate of urination increases. This suggests
that antidiuretic hormone (ADH) may be affected by alcohol consumption in some
way. Which of the following best accounts for the increase in urination?
A)
Alcohol stimulates the release of ADH.
B)
Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH.
C)
Alcohol inhibits the binding of ADH to receptors in the nephron.
D)
Alcohol could inhibit ADH release or the binding of ADH to receptors in the
nephron.
45)
Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect
on bodily functions of an adult human?
A)
adrenal glands
B)
pituitary gland
C)
thyroid gland
D)
ovaries (in female) or testes (in male)
46)
Glucocorticoids do which of the following?
A)
promote the immune response
B)
promote the release of fatty acids
C)
increase blood glucose levels
D)
increase insulin production
47)
Nitric oxide and epinephrine _____.
A)
both function as neurotransmitters
B)
both function as steroid hormones
C)
bind the same receptors
D)
both cause a reduction in the blood levels of glucose
48)
Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of the _____.
A)
parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
B)
anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function
C)
adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine
D)
pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration
49)
The amino acid tyrosine is a starting substrate for the synthesis of _____.
A)
epinephrine
B)
steroid hormones
C)
parathyroid hormone
D)
acetylcholine
50)
A disease that destroys the adrenal cortex should lead to an increase in the
plasma levels of _____.
A)
glucocorticoid hormones
B)
epinephrine
C)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
D)
acetylcholine
51)
During a stressful interval, _____.
A)
thyroid-stimulating hormaon (TSH) stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to
secrete acetylcholine
B)
the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of
the islets secrete glucagon
C)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons
of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla
D)
the calcium levels in the blood are increased due to actions of two
antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine
52)
In response to stress, the adrenal gland promotes the synthesis of glucose from
non-carbohydrate substrates via the action of the steroid hormone _____.
A)
glucagon
B)
cortisol
C)
thyroxine
D)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
53)
Melatonin is secreted by the_____.
A)
hypothalamus during the day
B)
pineal gland during the night
C)
autonomic nervous system during the winter
D)
posterior pituitary gland during the day
54)
DES is called an "endocrine disrupting chemical" because it
structurally resembles, and interferes with, the endocrine secretions of the
_____.
A)
thyroid gland
B)
adrenal medulla
C)
ovaries
D)
hypothalamus
55)
Epinephrine is an example of _____.
A)
an androgen
B)
an estrogen
C)
a catecholamine
D)
a glucocorticoid
|
|
Group 1
|
Group 2
|
|
Daily
injections of
progesterone
(milligrams)
|
0.25
|
20
|
|
Percentage
of rats that
carried
fetus to birth
|
0
|
100
|
56)
In an experiment, rats' ovaries were removed immediately after impregnation and
then the rats were divided into two groups. Treatments and results are
summarized in the table above. The results most likely occurred because
progesterone exerts an effect on the _____.
A)
general health of the rat
B)
metabolism of the uterus
C)
gestation period of rats
D)
number of eggs fertilized
57)
People with type II diabetes mellitus have defective insulin receptors that
cannot respond to insulin properly. Relative to normal individuals, what would
be the effect on blood glucose levels under conditions of chronic stress that
kept blood cortisol levels high? There would be _____.
A)
a greater increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes
mellitus than in normal individuals
B)
less increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes
mellitus than in normal individuals
C)
be a greater decrease in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II
diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals
D)
less decrease in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes
mellitus than in normal individuals
58)
Osteoporosis is a condition in which the density of bones is decreased so much
that the individual is at a higher risk of fractures. The more calcium in the
bones, the better the bone density. Which of the following would produce the
greatest increase in bone calcium levels?
A)
calcitonin injection
B)
calcitonin receptor blocker
C)
parathyroid hormone injection
D)
glucagon receptor blocker
59)
Predict the effects of a drug that increases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
synthesis.
A)
increase in glucocorticoid production
B)
increase in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C)
decrease in cortisol release
D)
decrease in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
60)
Of the following types of molecules, which can function as both
neurotransmitters and hormones?
A)
glucocorticoids
B)
second messengers
C)
catecholamines
D)
adipocytes
61)
Correct and appropriate signal transduction processes are generally under
strong selective pressure and are determined by the properties of the molecules
involved, the concentrations of signal and receptor molecules, and the binding
affinities between signal and receptor. Therefore, a hormone action is very
specific in a species at any one point in time. However, there are examples of
very diverse functions of a specific hormone between groups of organisms. For
example, thyroxin, which is produced in all vertebrates and many invertebrates,
can trigger growth, differentiation, metamorphosis, maturation, reproduction,
behavior, temperature tolerance, osmoregulation, or seasonal adaptation
depending on the organism in which it is produced. What is the most logical
explanation for such different responses triggered by thyroxin in organisms?
A)
The concentration of thyroxin varies in different organisms. Invertebrate
organisms do not have as much thyroxin as vertebrate organisms.
B)
Thyroxin and its receptor molecules have a different binding affinity in
different organisms.
C)
Receptor molecules for thyroxin are located on different tissues in different
organisms.
D)
The structure of thyroxin is substantially different in different organisms.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 46 Animal
Reproduction
1)
Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows _____.
A)
all types of asexual reproduction
B)
fission
C)
fragmentation
D)
parthenogenesis
2)
Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to
their parent. What type of cell process occurs to generate this type of
offspring?
A)
mitosis
B)
meiosis
C)
cell fusion
3)
What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their
parents?
A)
genetic recombination during meiosis
B)
genetic recombination during mitosis
C)
crossing over during mitosis
D)
Sexual reproduction does not produce genetically different offspring.
4)
Which of the following aspects of eukaryotic reproduction are found only among
invertebrate animals?
A)
sexual and asexual reproduction
B)
external and internal fertilization
C)
hermaphroditism and parthenogenesis
D)
fission and budding
5)
On a submarine expedition to the ocean bottom, you discover a population of
fish that are only female. What type of reproduction does this fish most likely
use?
A)
sexual
B)
budding
C)
cloning
D)
parthenogenesis
6)
Which of the following is most true of sexual reproduction?
A)
Only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females.
B)
Asexual reproduction produces offspring of greater genetic variety.
C)
Sexual reproduction is completed more rapidly than asexual reproduction.
D)
Asexual reproduction is better suited to environments with extremely varying
conditions.
7)
Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by
_____.
A)
increasing the body temperature
B)
providing access to water for external fertilization
C)
increasing ambient temperature most favorable for sex
D)
direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms
8)
Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually
reproducing ancestors includes _____.
A)
the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners
will ovulate
B)
the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation
C)
the observation that all of the offspring are haploid
D)
the persistence of a vestigial penis among some of the females
9)
In an animal that switches between sexual and asexual reproduction, when is
sexual reproduction more likely to occur?
A)
when conditions for survival are favorable
B)
when conditions for survival are unfavorable
C)
when males and females find each other
D)
What conditions favor sexual over asexual remains a complete mystery.
10)
Genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary
change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because _____.
A)
asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass
all mutations on to their offspring
B)
sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time than
can asexually reproducing organisms
C)
more genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually than is
present in those that reproduce sexually
D)
asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that
reproduce sexually
11)
Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual
reproduction when _____.
A)
pathogens are rapidly diversifying
B)
there is some potential for rapid overpopulation
C)
a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings
D)
a species is in stable and favorable environments
12)
Sexual reproduction _____.
A)
allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal
conditions
B)
can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a
changing environment
C)
enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly
colonizing habitats
D)
guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring
13)
For water fleas of the genus Daphnia, switching from a pattern of
asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with _____.
A)
environmental conditions becoming more favorable for offspring
B)
greater abundance of food resources for offspring
C)
periods of temperature or food stresses on adults
D)
exhaustion of an individual's supply of eggs
14)
Among non-mammalian vertebrates, the cloaca is an anatomical structure that
functions as _____.
A)
a specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males
B)
a shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems
C)
a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes
D)
a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening
15)
Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes
shed by their mating partners in _____.
A)
their nests
B)
the abdominal tract
C)
the uterus
D)
the spermatheca
16)
Animals that have external fertilization are most likely to reproduce in which
of the following areas?
A)
sand dune
B)
polar ice sheet
C)
shallow lake
D)
tallgrass prairie
17)
In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than
does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization typically offers
the advantage that _____.
A)
it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction
B)
the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of
parental investment
C)
it permits the most rapid population increase
D)
it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability
18)
You decide to study two species of birds, both of which form monogamous pairs
(one male and one female). In species 1, you find that the eggs in a pair's
nest are in fact almost always the offspring of that pair. In species 2, you
are surprised to find that many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by
males of neighboring pairs. Apparently, mating outside of monogamous pairings
is widespread in species 2. Given this information, what would be the logical
prediction to make before comparing testes size of males of the two species?
A)
Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2.
B)
Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
C)
There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes.
19)
Which of the following is a challenge to the hypothesis that bats, which
produce an unusually large number of sperm, increase the probability of
conception when females engage in multiple matings?
I) Female
bats can eject the sperm of certain males after mating.
II) A
female can actively choose which male mates with her last, thus increasing the
odds of conception with that male's sperm.
A)
Only I is correct.
B)
Only II is correct.
C)
Both I and II are correct.
20)
Which of the following structures in females is analogous in function to the
vas deferens in males?
A)
urethra
B)
oviduct
C)
uterus
D)
vagina
21)
In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following
ovulation become _____.
A)
the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses
B)
a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum
C)
the thickened portion of the uterine wall
D)
the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus
22)
At the time of fertilization, the maturation of the human oogonium has resulted
in _____.
A)
one secondary oocyte
B)
two primary oocytes
C)
four secondary oocytes
D)
four zygotes
23)
In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that _____.
A)
oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis
begins during embryonic development
B)
oogenesis produces four functional haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis
produces only one functional spermatozoon
C)
cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis
D)
oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth
24)
Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they _____.
A)
both have the same number of chromosomes
B)
are approximately the same size
C)
each have a flagellum that provides motility
D)
are produced from puberty until death
25)
Which of the following correctly describes a difference between spermatogenesis
and oogenesis?
A)
Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in
one mature egg cell.
B)
Spermatogenesis results in one mature sperm cell, while oogenesis results in
four mature egg cells.
C)
In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis,
mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.
D)
Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in
one mature egg cell. In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once,
while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.
26)
Among mammals, the male and female genital structures that consist mostly of
erectile tissue include the _____.
A)
penis and clitoris
B)
vas deferens and oviduct
C)
testes and ovaries
D)
prostate and ovaries
27)
Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the _____.
A)
vas deferens
B)
seminal vesicle
C)
urethra
D)
ureter
28)
Human sperm cells first arise in the _____.
A)
prostate gland
B)
vas deferens
C)
seminiferous tubules
D)
epididymis
29)
The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely _____.
A)
cause sterility because sperm would not be produced
B)
cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body
C)
greatly reduce the volume of semen
D)
cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity
30)
Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum by 2°C (that is, near the
normal body core temperature) and holding it there would most likely_____.
A)
reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid
hormones
B)
reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis
C)
reduce the man's sexual interest
D)
increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of
steroidogenesis
Refer
to the following figure, which diagrams the reproductive anatomy of the human
female, to answer the question(s) below.
31)
In the above figure, which letter points to the corpus luteum?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
32)
In the above figure, which letter points to the cervix?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
Refer
to the following figure, which diagrams the reproductive anatomy of the human
male, to answer the question(s) below.
33)
In the above figure, which letter points to the prostate gland?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
34)
In the above figure, which letter points to the vas deferens?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
35)
For which of the following is the number the same in spermatogenesis and
oogenesis?
A)
timing of meiotic divisions
B)
functional gametes produced by meiosis
C)
meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete
D)
different cell types produced by meiosis
36)
Which statement about human reproduction is correct?
A)
Fertilization occurs in the uterus.
B)
In humans, spermatogenesis and oogenesis function best at normal, core body
temperatures.
C)
A human oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it.
D)
The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the
seminiferous tubules.
37)
A physician finds that a nine-year-old male patient is entering puberty much earlier
than is usual. Such a condition is most likely the result of a tumor in the
_____.
A)
hypothalamus, producing elevated levels of testosterone
B)
anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of testosterone
C)
testes, producing elevated levels of estrogen
D)
anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating
hormone
38)
A male's "primary" sex characteristics include _____.
A)
deepening of the voice at puberty
B)
development of the seminal vesicles and associated ducts
C)
elongation of the skeleton prior to puberty
D)
onset of growth of facial hair at puberty
39)
The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that _____.
A)
the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed with
no extensive fluid flow out of the body, whereas the shed endometrium of
menstrual cycles is excreted from the body
B)
behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of
menstrual cycles
C)
season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do
on menstrual cycles
D)
copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual
cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation
40)
In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are
_____.
A)
follicular → luteal → secretory
B)
menstrual → proliferative → secretory
C)
follicular → ovulation → luteal
D)
proliferative → luteal → ovulation
41)
In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are
_____.
A)
follicular → luteal → secretory
B)
menstrual → proliferative → secretory
C)
follicular → ovulation → luteal
D)
proliferative → luteal → ovulation
42)
An inactivating mutation in the progesterone receptor gene would likely result
in _____.
A)
the absence of secondary sex characteristics
B)
the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy
C)
enlarged and hyperactive uterine endometrium
D)
the absence of mammary gland development
43)
A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of
luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of _____.
A)
inhibin
B)
testosterone
C)
oxytocin
D)
progesterone
44)
A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in the brain
is _____.
A)
estradiol
B)
progesterone
C)
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D)
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
45)
The primary function of the corpus luteum is to _____.
A)
nourish and protect the egg cell
B)
maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred
C)
stimulate the development of the mammary glands
D)
support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters
46)
Menopause is characterized by _____.
A)
the loss of responsiveness by the ovaries to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
and luteinizing hormone (LH)
B)
a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary
gland
C)
wearing away of the uterine endometrium
D)
a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain
Use the following
information to answer the question(s) below.
For
your internship at the local zoo, you have been assigned to help with the new
orangutan-breeding program. Little is known about orangutan reproductive
hormones, but hormone feedback cycles are often the same in closely related
animals. You have been asked to use your knowledge of the interactions of human
reproductive hormones to recommend injections to promote ovulation in a female
orangutan when a visiting male arrives for a brief breeding visit.
47)
Refer to the paragraph on the orangutan breeding program. Which of the
following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation right away?
A)
estradiol (estrogen)
B)
progesterone
C)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
48)
Refer to the paragraph on the orangutan breeding program. Which of the
following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation in a few days?
A)
estradiol (estrogen)
B)
progesterone
C)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
49)
Labor contractions can be increased by the medical use of a synthetic drug that
mimics the action of _____.
A)
inhibin
B)
luteinizing hormone
C)
oxytocin
D)
prolactin
50)
In excreted urine, a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated
is _____.
A)
progesterone
B)
estrogen
C)
follicle-stimulating hormone
D)
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
51)
Two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible and which block the
gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur are _____.
A)
the male condom and female condom
B)
the male condom and oral contraceptives
C)
vasectomy and tubal ligation
D)
the diaphragm and subcutaneous progesterone implant
52)
Tubal ligation _____.
A)
reduces the incidence of ovulation
B)
prevents fertilization by preventing sperm from entering the uterus
C)
prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra
D)
prevents oocytes from entering the uterus
53)
A vasectomy _____.
A)
eliminates spermatogenesis
B)
eliminates testosterone synthesis
C)
prevents implantation of an embryo
D)
prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra
54)
Imagine that a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives
her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant
woman would _____.
A)
stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta
B)
undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles
C)
increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone
D)
be prevented from lactation
55)
A pregnant woman comes into the hospital past her due date. The doctor decides
it is time for the baby to be delivered. Before performing a cesarean section,
the doctor wants to try to induce labor. Which of the following would she most
likely inject?
A)
progesterone
B)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
C)
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D)
oxytocin
56)
Based on the figure above, showing fetal (A) and adult (B) oxygen-hemoglobin
saturation curves, which of the following conclusions is true?
A)
The mother binds oxygen with greater affinity than the fetus.
B)
Adult saturation occurs at lower partial pressures of oxygen than fetal
saturation does.
C)
At 50 percent saturation, fetal blood will have a higher affinity for oxygen
than adult blood will.
D)
As the partial pressure of oxygen increases, adult hemoglobin approaches
saturation faster than fetal hemoglobin does.
57)
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants somewhere other than
in the lining of the uterus. Usually it implants in the oviduct. Which of the
following would be the most likely explanation for such a pregnancy being
unsuccessful?
A)
The orientation of the baby would be sideways.
B)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) cannot be produced in the oviduct.
C)
The lining of the oviduct is unable to support the developing fetus.
D)
The necessary hormones cannot reach the developing fetus in the oviduct.
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Estrogens
found in the environment have raised concerns about effects on reproductive
health of animals. Researchers studied the effects that estrogens in the water
have on sexual differentiation in zebrafish. They exposed embryo-larval (0-21
days post-hatching), juvenile (21-42 days post-hatching), and adult (over 200
days post-hatching) fish to three concentrations of 17β-estradiol (5, 25, and
100 nanograms/liter) that are within the range of concentrations found in water
leaving sewage treatment plants in different countries. They then examined the
proportion of males and females when the fish exposed at embryo-larval and
juvenile stages reached adulthood. Embryo-larval stage fish that had been
exposed to 100 ng/l 17β-estradiol resulted in adult populations that had
substantially more females than males compared to control groups. Embryo-larval
fish that had been exposed to 5 and 25 ng/l of 17β-estradiol did not show a
statistically significant shift in the proportion of females. (Brion, F., C. R.
Tyler, X. Palazzi, B. Laillet, J. M. Porcher, J. Garric, and P. Flammarion.
2004. Impacts of 17β-estradiol, including environmentally relevant
concentrations, on reproduction after exposure during embryo-larval-,
juvenile-, and adult-life stages in zebrafish (Danio rerio). Aquatic
Toxicology 68:193-217.)
58)
Refer to the paragraph on the effects of estrogens in the environment. What is
the significance of using the concentrations of 5, 25, and 100 ng/l of
17β-estradiol for the dose in this experiment?
A)
These concentrations are similar to those found in many animals.
B)
These concentrations are found in the environment.
C)
These concentrations are effective, yet not lethal to the fish.
D)
These concentrations are standard in toxicology assays.
59)
Refer to the paragraph on the effects of estrogens in the environment. You are
assigned to write the report to the Environmental Protection Agency, which
needs to decide what level of 17β-estradiol to permit in sewage output. You do
not want to make the level any lower than necessary, because it requires
substantial additional money for the extra treatment of sewage. Given the data
presented above, what level of 17β-estradiol would you suggest is safe to
prevent feminization of fish?
A)
2.5 ng/l
B)
12.5 ng/l
C)
25 ng/l
D)
100 ng/l
60)
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the lack of a filter
blocking the passage of alcohol between the maternal and fetal circulations in
humans?
A)
There has not been enough time to evolve such a barrier.
B)
Such a barrier would probably also block important molecules that need to be
passed to the fetus.
C)
The maternal and fetal blood mix directly together in an area with many villi,
so a barrier is impossible.
D)
Alcohol has some positive effects on the fetus, so evolution has resulted in an
intermediate level of filtering that blocks all but the worst abuses of
alcohol.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 47 Animal
Development
1)
Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially
activated by _____.
A)
abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol
B)
abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen
C)
injection of calcium ions into the cytosol
D)
depletion of its ATP supplies
2)
The formation of the fertilization envelope requires an increase in the
availability of _____.
A)
calcium ions
B)
hydrogen ions
C)
potassium ions
D)
sodium ions
3)
Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to
undergo a brief _____.
A)
mitosis
B)
membrane depolarization
C)
vitellogenesis
D)
acrosomal reaction
4)
The plasma membrane of the sea urchin egg _____.
A)
is outside of the fertilization membrane
B)
releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction
C)
has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins
D)
is a mesh of proteins crossing through the cytosol of the egg
5)
Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like _____.
A)
placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine
B)
resting during halftime of a basketball game
C)
preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven
D)
walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch
6)
A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is _____.
A)
the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in
humans is completed after fertilization
B)
sea urchin eggs and sperm are of equal size, but human eggs are much bigger
than human sperm
C)
sea urchins, but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy, because only in
sea urchins can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize the eggs
D)
sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm, but human zygotes get
their mitochondria from the egg
7)
During fertilization, the acrosomal contents _____.
A)
block polyspermy
B)
help propel more sperm toward the egg
C)
digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg
D)
trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm
8)
In a newly fertilized egg, the vitelline layer _____.
A)
lifts away from the egg and hardens to form a fertilization envelope
B)
secretes hormones that enhance steroidogenesis by the ovary
C)
reduces the loss of water from the egg and prevents desiccation
D)
provides most of the nutrients used by the zygote
9)
In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer lasting "slow
block" to polyspermy, respectively, are _____.
A)
the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white
B)
the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein
C)
the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane
D)
membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction
10)
In an egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions,
the _____.
A)
acrosomal reaction would be blocked
B)
fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked
C)
fast block to polyspermy would not occur
D)
fertilization envelope would not be formed
11)
In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the _____.
A)
fertilization membrane
B)
egg plasma membrane
C)
cytosol of the egg
D)
mitochondria of the egg
12)
A human blastomere is _____.
A)
an embryonic cell that is smaller than the ovum
B)
an embryonic structure that includes a fluid-filled cavity
C)
that part of the acrosome that opens the egg's membrane
D)
a cell that contains a (degenerating) second polar body
13)
At the moment of sperm penetration, human eggs _____.
A)
have used flagellar propulsion to move from the ovary to the oviduct
B)
are still located within the ovary
C)
have a paper-thin cell of calcium carbonate that prevents desiccation
D)
are still surrounded by follicular cells
14)
In a developing frog embryo, most of the yolk is _____.
A)
located near the animal pole
B)
located near the vegetal pole
C)
found within the cleavage furrow
D)
distributed equally throughout the embryo
15)
Among these choices, the largest cell involved in frog reproduction is _____.
A)
an egg
B)
a blastomere in the vegetal pole
C)
a blastomere in the animal pole
D)
one of the products of the first cleavage
16)
The pattern of embryonic development in which only the cells lacking yolk
subsequently undergo cleavage is called _____.
A)
holoblastic development, which is typical of marsupial mammals
B)
meroblastic development, which is typical of humans
C)
holoblastic development, which is typical of amphibians
D)
meroblastic development, which is typical of birds
17)
As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the blastomeres
_____.
A)
increases as the number of the blastomeres decreases
B)
increases as the number of the blastomeres increases
C)
decreases as the number of the blastomeres increases
D)
decreases as the number of the blastomeres decreases
18)
The vegetal pole of a frog zygote differs from the animal pole in that _____.
A)
the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk
B)
the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole
C)
the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis, but not cytokinesis
D)
the polar bodies bud from this region
19)
Meroblastic cleavage occurs in _____.
A)
sea urchins, but not in humans or birds
B)
humans, but not in sea urchins or birds
C)
birds, but not in sea urchins or humans
D)
both sea urchins and birds, but not in humans
20)
Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental
milestones?
A)
blastula → gastrula → cleavage
B)
cleavage → gastrula → blastula
C)
cleavage → blastula → gastrula
D)
gastrula → blastula → cleavage
21)
The first cavity formed during frog development is the _____.
A)
blastopore
B)
mouth
C)
blastocoel
D)
anus
22)
In some rare salamander species, all individuals are females. Reproduction
relies on those females having access to sperm from males of another species.
However, the resulting embryos receive no genetic contribution from the males.
In this case, the sperm appear to be used only for _____.
A)
morphogenesis
B)
egg activation
C)
cell differentiation
D)
the creation of a diploid cell
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
23)
The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in _____.
A)
the formation of a fertilization envelope
B)
the production of a fast block to polyspermy
C)
the release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm
D)
the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg
24)
The structure of the Drosophila gene, called Tinman, is similar to a
gene in humans that also _____.
A)
promotes ear development
B)
specifies the location of the heart
C)
determines structures in the eyes
D)
specifies limb elongation points
25)
From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in
which of the following sequences?
A)
first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction →
cortical reaction
B)
cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction →
first cell division
C)
cortical reaction → acrosomal reaction → first cell division → synthesis of
embryo's DNA begins
D)
acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins →
first cell division
26)
An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a primitive
streak must be that of _____.
A)
an insect
B)
an amphibian
C)
a bird
D)
a sea urchin
27)
Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ-tissue
layers during _____.
A)
determination
B)
cleavage
C)
induction
D)
gastrulation
28)
The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate
embryo is _____.
A)
endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm
B)
mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm
C)
ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm
D)
ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm
29)
If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then _____.
A)
cleavage would not occur in the zygote
B)
embryonic germ layers would not form
C)
the blastula would not be formed
D)
the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole
30)
The archenteron of the developing sea urchin eventually develops into the
_____.
A)
blastocoel
B)
heart and lungs
C)
digestive tract
D)
brain and spinal cord
31)
In a frog embryo, gastrulation _____.
A)
produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere
B)
occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere
C)
proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore
D)
occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk
32)
Which of the following is a correct description of the fate of the germ layers?
A)
The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)
The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)
The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)
The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
33)
The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of _____.
A)
the lip of the blastopore in the frog
B)
the archenteron in a frog
C)
the notochord in a mammal
D)
neural crest cells in a mammal
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
34)
In all vertebrate animals, development requires _____.
A)
a large supply of yolk
B)
an aqueous environment
C)
extraembryonic membranes
D)
a primitive streak
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
35)
The least amount of yolk would be found in the egg of a _____.
A)
bird
B)
frog
C)
eutherian mammal
D)
reptile
36)
At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a _____.
A)
blastocyst
B)
gastrula
C)
fetus
D)
zygote
37)
Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated
by the _____.
A)
inner cell mass
B)
endoderm
C)
mesoderm
D)
trophoblast
38)
Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy, was used in the
early 1960s by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these
women gave birth to children with arm and leg deformities, suggesting that the
drug most likely influenced _____.
A)
early cleavage divisions
B)
differentiation of bone tissue
C)
morphogenesis
D)
organogenesis
39)
The migratory neural crest cells _____.
A)
form most of the central nervous system
B)
form the spinal cord in the frog
C)
form a variety of neural and non-neural structures
D)
form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract
40)
From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in
which of the following sequences?
A)
gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage
B)
cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis
C)
gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation
D)
preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation
41)
Changes in cell position occur extensively during _____.
A)
organogenesis, but not during gastrulation or cleavage
B)
cleavage, but not during gastrulation or organogenesis
C)
gastrulation and cleavage
D)
gastrulation
42)
Changes in the shape of a cell usually involve a reorganization of the _____.
A)
nucleus
B)
cytoskeleton
C)
extracellular matrix
D)
transport proteins
43)
When we compare animal development to plant development, we find that _____.
A)
plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis
B)
animal cells, but not plant cells, migrate during morphogenesis
C)
plant cells and animal cells migrate extensively during morphogenesis
D)
neither plant cells nor animal cells migrate during morphogenesis
44)
Select the choice that correctly associates the organ with its embryonic
sources.
A)
anterior pituitary gland — mesoderm and endoderm
B)
thyroid gland — mesoderm and ectoderm
C)
adrenal gland — ectoderm and mesoderm
D)
skin — endoderm and mesoderm
45)
The embryonic precursor to the human spinal cord is the _____.
A)
notochord
B)
neural tube
C)
mesoderm
D)
archenteron
46)
During metamorphosis, a tadpoles tail is reduced in size by the process of
_____.
A)
regeneration
B)
apoptosis
C)
oxidative phosphorylation
D)
re-differentiation
47)
The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells extend themselves,
making the mass of the cells narrower and wider, is _____.
A)
convergent extension
B)
induction
C)
elongational streaming
D)
bi-axial elongation
48)
Which of the following is common to the development of birds and mammals?
A)
the formation of an embryonic epiblast and hypoblast
B)
the formation of an embryonic trophoblast
C)
the formation of an embryonic yolk plug
D)
the formation of an embryonic gray crescent
49)
The archenteron of a frog develops into the _____.
A)
blastocoel
B)
endoderm
C)
placenta
D)
lumen of the digestive tract
50)
What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid
environments rather than in water?
A)
amnion
B)
yolk
C)
gastrulation
D)
development of the brain from ectoderm
51)
If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to
divide the gray crescent, then _____.
A)
the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die
B)
both daughter cells will develop normally, because amphibians are totipotent at
this stage
C)
only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally
D)
both daughter cells will develop abnormally
52)
Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the organizer in amphibian
embryos while studying the _____.
A)
medial cells between the optic cups
B)
anterior terminus of the notochord
C)
lateral margins of the neural tube
D)
dorsal lip of the blastopore
53)
Which of the following is an adult organism that has fewer than 1,000 cells?
A)
chickens, Gallus domesticus
B)
African clawed frogs, Xenopus laevis
C)
fruit flies, Drosophila melanogaster
D)
nematodes, Caenorhabditis elegans
54)
The developmental precursors to the gonadal tissues of Caenorhabditis
elegans uniquely contain _____.
A)
proteins of maternal origin
B)
high concentrations of potassium ions
C)
T tubules for the propagation of action potentials
D)
P granules of mRNA and protein
55)
Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos
are _____.
A)
light and temperature
B)
salt gradients and membrane potentials
C)
gravity and pH
D)
moisture and mucus
56)
The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in 3-D
space defines _____.
A)
pattern formation
B)
differentiation
C)
determination
D)
organogenesis
57)
If the apical ectodermal ridge is surgically removed from an embryo, it will
lose _____.
A)
positional information for limb-bud pattern formation
B)
guidance signals needed for correct gastrulation
C)
unequal cytokinesis of blastomeres
D)
the developmental substrate for the kidneys
58)
The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans _____.
A)
is composed of about 1000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell
has been mapped
B)
has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced
C)
has about 1000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced
D)
uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during normal
development
59)
In humans, identical twins are possible because _____.
A)
cytoplasmic determinants are distributed unevenly in unfertilized eggs
B)
extraembryonic cells interact with the zygote nucleus
C)
early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated
D)
the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells
60)
Cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of
another embryo develop into nervous system tissues. This result indicates that
the transplanted cells were _____.
A)
totipotent
B)
determined
C)
differentiated
D)
mesenchymal
61)
Embryonic induction, the influence of one group of cells on another group of
cells, plays a critical role in embryonic development. In 1924, Hans Spemann
and Hilde Mangold transplanted a piece of tissue that influences the formation
of the notochord and neural tube, from the dorsal lip of an amphibian embryo to
the ventral side of another amphibian embryo. If embryonic induction occurred,
which of the following observations justifies the claim of embryonic induction?
A)
The transplanted tissue induced multiple limbs to develop on the ventral side
of the recipient embryo.
B)
The transplanted tissue inhibited normal cell division on the dorsal side of
the recipient embryo that lead to its death.
C)
The transplanted tissue had no effect on either the ventral or dorsal side of
the recipient embryo so it continued to develop normally.
D)
The transplanted tissue induced the formation of a second notochord and neural
tube on the ventral side of the developing embryo.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 48 Neurons,
Synapses, and Signaling
1)
A simple nervous system _____.
A)
must include chemical senses, mechanoreception, and vision
B)
includes a minimum of twelve effector neurons
C)
has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center
D)
includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors
2)
Most of the neurons in the human brain are _____.
A)
sensory neurons
B)
motor neurons
C)
interneurons
D)
peripheral neurons
3)
The motor (somatic nervous) system can alter the activities of its targets, the
skeletal muscle fibers, because _____.
A)
it is electrically coupled by gap junctions to the muscles
B)
its signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles
C)
its signals reach the muscles via the blood
D)
it is connected to the internal neural network of the muscles
4)
The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the _____.
A)
axon hillock
B)
dendrite
C)
synapse
D)
cell body
5)
In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by _____.
A)
the presynaptic membrane
B)
axon hillocks
C)
cell bodies
D)
ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
6)
In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by _____.
A)
the postsynaptic membrane
B)
the presynaptic membrane
C)
axon hillocks
D)
cell bodies
7)
Although the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to
potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium
potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also _____.
A)
slightly permeable to sodium ions
B)
fully permeable to calcium ions
C)
impermeable to sodium ions
D)
highly permeable to chloride ions
8)
The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves _____.
A)
sodium and potassium ions into the cell
B)
sodium and potassium ions out of the cell
C)
sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell
D)
sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell
9)
In a resting potential, an example of a cation that is more abundant as a
solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside
the neuron is _____.
A)
Cl-
B)
Ca++
C)
Na+
D)
K+
10)
The membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion across the
membrane is called the _____.
A)
graded potential
B)
threshold potential
C)
equilibrium potential
D)
action potential
11)
Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a "resting" neuron
are that the channels _____.
A)
are always open, but the concentration gradients of ions frequently change
B)
are always closed, but ions move closer to the channels during excitation
C)
open and close depending on stimuli, and are specific as to which ion can
traverse them
D)
open in response to stimuli, and then close simultaneously, in unison
Refer
to the following graph of an action potential to answer the question(s) below.
12)
The membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at
label _____.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
13)
The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label _____.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
14)
The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium
and potassium channels is indicated by the label _____.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
D
D)
E
15)
The cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in progress, as the
sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened
at label _____.
A)
B
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
16)
The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label _____.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
D
D)
E
17)
If you experimentally increase the concentration of Na+ outside a cell while maintaining other ion
concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane
potential?
A)
The membrane potential would decrease.
B)
The membrane potential would increase.
C)
The membrane potential would be unaffected.
D)
The answer depends on the thermodynamic potential.
18)
The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell
due to _____.
A)
osmosis
B)
diffusion
C)
sodium-potassium pumps
D)
symports and antiports
19)
Which of the following ions is most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a
resting neuron?
A)
K+
B)
Na+
C)
Ca2+
D)
Cl-
20)
The Nernst equation specifies the equilibrium potential for a particular ion. This
equilibrium potential is a function of _____.
A)
hydrostatic pressure
B)
ion concentration gradient
C)
osmotic gradient
D)
temperature (thermal) gradient
21)
For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the
movement of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the
_____.
A)
depolarization of the neuron
B)
hyperpolarization of the neuron
C)
replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions
D)
replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions
22)
Opening all of the sodium channels on an otherwise typical neuron, with all
other ion channels closed (which is an admittedly artificial setting), should
move its membrane potential to _____.
A)
-90 mV
B)
0 mV
C)
+30 mV
D)
+62 mV
23)
A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by _____.
A)
increasing its membrane's permeability to Na+
B)
decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl-
C)
increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca++
D)
increasing its membrane's permeability to K+
24)
Self-propagation and refractory periods (states) are typical of _____.
A)
action potentials
B)
graded hyperpolarizations
C)
excitatory postsynaptic potentials
D)
threshold potentials
25)
The "threshold" potential of a membrane is the _____.
A)
lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce
B)
minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials
C)
minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium
channels
D)
peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential
26)
Action potentials move along axons _____.
A)
more slowly in axons of large than in small diameter
B)
by activating the sodium-potassium "pump" at each point along the
axonal membrane
C)
more rapidly in myelinated than in non-myelinated axons
D)
by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions
27)
A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would
be expected to _____.
A)
prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential
B)
prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential
C)
prevent graded potentials
D)
increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules
28)
After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is
restored by _____.
A)
the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium
channels
B)
a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions
C)
a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump
D)
the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels
29)
The "undershoot" phase of after-hyperpolarization is due to _____.
A)
slow opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
B)
sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
C)
rapid opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
D)
slow restorative actions of the sodium-potassium ATPase
30)
The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in
_____.
A)
thin, non-myelinated neurons
B)
thin, myelinated neurons
C)
thick, non-myelinated neurons
D)
thick, myelinated neurons
31)
Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon
hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle
of the axon to threshold, using an electronic probe, then _____.
A)
no action potential will be initiated
B)
an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction
toward the axon terminal
C)
an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon
hillock
D)
two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and
one going back toward the hillock
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
32)
Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
A)
The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.
B)
The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C)
The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the
axon.
D)
Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.
33)
If you experimentally increase the concentration of K+ inside a cell while maintaining other ion
concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane
potential?
A)
The membrane potential would become more negative.
B)
The membrane potential would become less negative.
C)
The membrane potential would remain the same.
34)
Which of the following statements about action potentials is correct?
A)
Action potentials for a given neuron vary in magnitude.
B)
Action potentials for a given neuron vary in duration.
C)
Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.
D)
Movement of ions during the action potential occurs mostly through the sodium
pump.
35)
Why do Na+ ions enter the cell when voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened in neurons?
A)
because the Na+ concentration is much lower outside the cell
than it is inside
B)
because the Na+ ions are actively transported by the
sodium-potassium pump into the cell
C)
because the Na+ concentration is much higher outside the cell
than it is inside, and the Na+ ions are
attracted to the negatively charged interior
D)
because the Na+ concentration is much higher outside the cell
than it is inside, and the Na+ ions are
actively transported by the sodium-potassium pump into the cell
36)
What would probably happen if a long neuron had one continuous myelin sheath
down the length of the axon with no nodes of Ranvier?
A)
The action potential would be propagated nearly instantaneously to the synapse.
B)
There could be no action potential generated at the axon hillock.
C)
The signal would fade because it is not renewed by the opening of more sodium
channels.
37)
A neurophysiologist is investigating nerve reflexes in two different animals: a
crab and a fish. Action potentials are found to pass more rapidly along the
fish's neurons. What is the most likely explanation?
A)
The fish's axons are smaller in diameter; small axons transmit action
potentials faster than large axons do.
B)
Unlike the crab, the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin.
C)
There are more ion channels in the axons of the crab compared with fish axons.
D)
Unlike the crab, the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin, and the fish's axons
are smaller in diameter; small axons transmit action potentials faster than
large axons do.
38)
Tetrodotoxin blocks voltage-gated sodium channels and ouabain blocks
sodium-potassium pumps. If you added both tetrodotoxin and ouabain to a
solution containing neural tissue, what responses would you expect?
A)
immediate loss of resting potential
B)
immediate loss of action potential with gradual loss of resting potential
C)
slow decrease of resting potential and action potential amplitudes
D)
No effect; the substances counteract each other.
39)
Which of the following will increase the speed of an action potential moving
down an axon?
I) Action
potentials move faster in larger diameter axons.
II) Action
potentials move faster in axons lacking potassium ion channels.
III) Action
potentials move faster in myelinated axons.
A)
only I and II
B)
only II and III
C)
only I and III
D)
I, II, and III
40)
In multiple sclerosis the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and
spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results. How does this disease
manifest at the level of the action potential?
I) Action
potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon.
II) Action
potentials move more slowly along the axon.
III) No
action potentials are transmitted.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
41)
Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via _____.
A)
osmosis
B)
active transport
C)
diffusion
D)
exocytosis
42)
Acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal
muscle binds to a sodium channel and opens it. This is an example of _____.
A)
a voltage-gated potassium channel
B)
a ligand-gated sodium channel
C)
a second-messenger-gated sodium channel
D)
a chemical that inhibits action potentials
43)
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more
permeable to _____.
A)
potassium ions
B)
sodium ions
C)
ATP
D)
all neurotransmitter molecules
44)
The following steps refer to various stages in transmission at a chemical
synapse.
1. Neurotransmitter
binds with receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane.
2. Calcium
ions rush into neuron's cytoplasm.
3. An
action potential depolarizes the membrane of the presynaptic axon terminal.
4. The
ligand-gated ion channels open.
5. The
synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.
Which
sequence of events is correct?
A)
1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
B)
2 → 3 → 5 → 4 → 1
C)
3 → 2 → 5 → 1 → 4
D)
4 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 5
45)
The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by its_____.
A)
diffusion across the presynaptic membrane
B)
active transport across the postsynaptic membrane
C)
diffusion across the postsynaptic membrane
D)
degradation on the postsynaptic membrane
46)
Ionotropic receptors found at synapses are operated via _____.
A)
ligand-gated ion channels
B)
electrical synapses
C)
inhibitory, but not excitatory, synapses
D)
excitatory, but not inhibitory, synapses
47)
An example of ligand-gated ion channels is _____.
A)
the spreading of action potentials in the heart
B)
acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
C)
cAMP-dependent protein kinases
D)
action potentials on the axon
48)
Neurotransmitters categorized as inhibitory are expected to _____.
A)
act independently of their receptor proteins
B)
close potassium channels
C)
open sodium channels
D)
hyperpolarize the membrane
49)
Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) produced nearly simultaneously by
different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron can also add together,
creating _____.
A)
a temporal summation
B)
a spatial summation
C)
a tetanus
D)
the refractory state
50)
When two excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) occur at a single synapse
so rapidly in succession that the postsynaptic neuron's membrane potential has
not returned to the resting potential before the second EPSP arrives, the EPSPs
add together producing _____.
A)
temporal summation
B)
spatial summation
C)
tetanus
D)
the refractory state
51)
Receptors for neurotransmitters are of primary functional importance in
assuring one-way synaptic transmission because they are mostly found on the
_____.
A)
axonal membrane
B)
axon hillock
C)
postsynaptic membrane
D)
presynaptic membrane
52)
Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by _____.
I) initiating
signal transduction pathways in the cells
II) causing
molecular changes in the cells
III) affecting
ion-channel proteins
IV) altering
the permeability of the cells
A)
I and III
B)
II and IV
C)
III and IV
D)
I, II, III, and IV
53)
The amino acid that operates at most inhibitory synapses in the brain is _____.
A)
acetylcholine
B)
endorphin
C)
nitric oxide
D)
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
54)
The botulinum toxin, which causes botulism, reduces the synaptic release of
_____.
A)
acetylcholine
B)
endorphin
C)
nitric oxide
D)
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
55)
The heart rate decreases in response to the arrival of _____.
A)
acetylcholine
B)
endorphin
C)
nitric oxide
D)
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
56)
A chemical that affects neuronal function but is not stored in presynaptic
vesicles is _____.
A)
acetylcholine
B)
epinephrine
C)
nitric oxide
D)
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
57)
Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the
presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
A)
Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.
B)
Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane.
C)
The postsynaptic cell produces an action potential.
D)
Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic
cleft.
58)
How could you increase the magnitude of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
(IPSPs) generated at a synapse?
A)
increase sodium-potassium pump activity
B)
increase K+ permeability
C)
increase the influx of calcium
D)
All of the listed responses are correct.
59)
What happens if twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) as
excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in
close proximity?
A)
A stronger action potential results.
B)
A weaker action potential results.
C)
No action potential results.
60)
Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) and
acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist
applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced
by the mollusc Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect
to happen?
A)
paralysis of muscle tissue
B)
convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
C)
decrease in the frequency of action potentials
D)
no effect
61)
The myelin sheath plays an important role in neuron structure and function.
However, when the myelin sheath is missing or not fully intact, there are
consequences. There are many conditions that cause demyelination of neurons,
some are autoimmune disorders, such as multiple schlerosis, and others are
hereditary. The symptoms of these conditions vary, but often include speech
impairment and difficulty coordinating movement. Which of the following
correctly connects the symptoms of demyelination with the process of nerve
impulse transmission?
A)
Demyelination prevents the formation of an action potential in sensory neurons
that transmit signals from the environment to the central nervous system.
B)
Demyelination slows nerve impulse transmission.
C)
Demyelination prevents the uptake of neurotransmitters needed to propagate a
message to the next neuron.
D)
Demyelination targets the central nervous system.
62)
What happens if a neuron is stimulated enough midway in an axon to trigger an
action potential?
A)
The nerve impulse would go both directions from the stimulus point, but only
the axon end could transfer the message trough neurotransmitters to another
neuron.
B)
Since neuron transmission is one-way, the nerve impulse would only be
transmitted to the end of the axon and then through neurotransmitters to the
next neuron.
C)
The nerve impulse could not be transmitted because it must be initiated at the
dendrite end of a neuron.
D)
The nerve impulse would go both directions and the dendrite end would be
stimulated to send a second message through this neuron.
63)
C.elegans is a model organism and was the first eukaryotic organism to
have its genome sequenced. The free-living nematode is often used in
laboratories investigating reproduction, particularly egg-laying. There are 16
muscles, 2 types of neurons, and multiple receptors involved in the process of
laying eggs in C.elegans, and there are mutations in all of those
structures for the study of the process. One particular mutation that prevents
the laying of eggs by the worm is rescued by the neurotransmitter, serotonin.
That rescue suggests that this mutation is most likely in which of the
following?
A)
a post-synaptic neuron involved in egg-laying
B)
a pre-synaptic neuron involved in egg-laying
C)
a receptor for serotonin on cells needed for egg-laying
D)
one of the muscles needed for egg-laying
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 49 Nervous
Systems
1)
An organism that lacks integration centers _____.
A)
cannot receive stimuli
B)
will not have a nervous system
C)
will not be able to interpret stimuli
D)
can be expected to lack myelinated neurons
2)
In the human knee-jerk reflex of a seated individual, as the calf is raised
from a vertical position to a horizontal position, the muscles of the
quadriceps (on the front of the thighs) and the muscles of the hamstring (on
the back side of the thighs) are _____.
A)
both excited and contracting
B)
both inhibited and relaxed
C)
excited and inhibited, respectively
D)
inhibited and excited, respectively
3)
The stretch sensors of the sensory neurons in the human knee-jerk reflex are
located in the _____.
A)
cartilage of the knee
B)
quadriceps muscles on the front side of the thighs
C)
hamstring muscles on the back side of the thighs
D)
brain, the sensorimotor relay
4)
Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
A)
astrocytes — metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B)
oligodendrocytes — produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the
peripheral nervous system
C)
radial glia — the source of immunoprotection against pathogens
D)
Schwann cells — provide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons
5)
The cerebrospinal fluid is _____.
A)
a filtrate of the blood
B)
a secretion of glial cells
C)
cytosol secreted from ependymal cells
D)
secreted by the hypothalamus
6)
The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact _____.
A)
spinal cord
B)
corpus callosum
C)
cerebellum
D)
medulla
7)
Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in the _____.
A)
gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord
B)
white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord
C)
gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord
D)
white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord
8)
Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as which of the following?
I) functioning
in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain
II) a
product of the filtration of blood in the brain
III) functioning
to cushion the brain
IV) filling
spaces between glial cells and neurons in the gray matter
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and III
D)
only II, III, and IV
9)
The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing,
actions are _____.
A)
motor and sensory systems
B)
sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
C)
presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes
D)
central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
10)
Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the _____
nervous system
A)
sympathetic
B)
somatic
C)
central
D)
parasympathetic
11)
Exercise and emergency reactions include _____.
A)
increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system
B)
increased activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the
parasympathetic divisions
C)
decreased activity in the sympathetic, and increased activity in the
parasympathetic divisions
D)
increased activity in the enteric nervous system
12)
Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to _____.
A)
decreased heart rate
B)
increased secretion by the pancreas
C)
increased contractions of the stomach
D)
relaxation of the airways in the lungs
13)
The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is
associated with _____.
A)
resting and digesting
B)
release of epinephrine into the blood
C)
increased metabolic rate
D)
intensive aerobic exercise
14)
In a cephalized invertebrate, the system that transmits "efferent"
impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the _____.
A)
central nervous system
B)
peripheral nervous system
C)
autonomic nervous system
D)
parasympathetic nervous system
15)
Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be
described as a state with _____.
A)
increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous
systems
B)
decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous
systems
C)
decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in
the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems
D)
increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in
the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems
16)
If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack of
response occurs, what are potential regions where pathology might exist?
I) the
brain
II) the
knee
III) the
spinal cord
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
17)
Upon witnessing a robber hold up a convenience store at gunpoint, which of the
following reactions would your nervous system initiate?
A)
increased heartbeat
B)
constriction of airways
C)
constriction of pupils
D)
decreased heartbeat
18)
After eating a large meal, which nerves are most active in your digestive
system?
I) parasympathetic
nerves
II) somatic
(motor) nerves
III) sympathetic
nerves
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
19)
The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have _____.
A)
a complete gut
B)
bilateral symmetry
C)
radial symmetry
D)
a closed circulatory system
20)
Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part
of the animal, is apparent in _____.
A)
cnidarians
B)
Planaria
C)
sea stars
D)
invertebrate animals with radial symmetry
21)
Which of the following structures or regions is correctly paired with its
function?
A)
limbic system — motor control of speech
B)
medulla oblongata — emotional memory
C)
cerebellum — homeostatic control
D)
corpus callosum — communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
22)
Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with
increased activity in the _____.
A)
hypothalamus
B)
cerebrum
C)
cerebellum
D)
spinal cord
23)
Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and
behavior reside in the _____.
A)
pituitary gland
B)
hypothalamus
C)
cerebrum
D)
thalamus
24)
Biological rhythms in animals isolated from light and dark cues _____.
A)
continue to have cycles of exactly twenty-four hours' duration
B)
continue to have cycles of approximately twenty-four hours duration; some more
rapid, some slower
C)
synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them
D)
cease having any rhythms
25)
Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean because _____.
A)
they sleep for only thirty minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval
they can cease breathing
B)
they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface
of the water while they sleep
C)
they move to shallow water to sleep, so they do not need to swim to keep their
blowholes above the surface of the water
D)
they alternate which half of their brain is asleep and which half is awake
26)
The limbic system in the central nervous system sustains many vegetative
functions in mammals and is closely associated with structures that process
cues about _____.
A)
olfaction
B)
vision
C)
audition
D)
mechanosensation
27)
Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity
of the _____.
A)
medulla oblongata
B)
thalamus
C)
pituitary
D)
cerebellum
28)
The unconscious control of respiration and circulation are associated with the
_____.
A)
thalamus
B)
cerebellum
C)
medulla oblongata
D)
cerebrum
29)
Which of the following structures are correctly paired?
A)
forebrain — cerebellum
B)
midbrain — cerebrum
C)
hindbrain — cerebellum
D)
brainstem — anterior pituitary gland
30)
Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the _____.
A)
cerebrum
B)
cerebellum
C)
thalamus
D)
hypothalamus
31)
The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the
_____.
A)
cerebrum
B)
cerebellum
C)
thalamus
D)
medulla oblongata
32)
The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the _____.
A)
cerebrum
B)
cerebellum
C)
thalamus
D)
hypothalamus
33)
The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in
the _____.
A)
cerebrum
B)
cerebellum
C)
thalamus
D)
medulla oblongata
34)
Food and water appetites are under the regulatory influence of the _____.
A)
cerebrum
B)
thalamus
C)
hypothalamus
D)
medulla oblongata
35)
The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the _____.
A)
hypothalamus
B)
epithalamus
C)
amygdala
D)
Broca's area
36)
Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the
_____.
A)
basal nuclei
B)
cerebral cortex
C)
brainstem
D)
limbic system
37)
If a patient has an injury in the brain stem, which of the following would be
observed?
A)
auditory hallucinations
B)
visual hallucinations
C)
an inability to regulate body temperature
D)
an inability to regulate heart function
38)
The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal _____.
A)
divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon
B)
develops from the midbrain
C)
is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates
D)
gives rise to the cerebrum
39)
The motor cortex is part of the _____.
A)
cerebrum
B)
cerebellum
C)
spinal cord
D)
medulla oblongata
40)
In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very
convoluted neocortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because
they have _____.
A)
a more advanced cerebellum
B)
a cerebellum with several flat layers
C)
a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei
D)
microvilli to increase the brain's surface area
41)
Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect _____.
A)
olfaction
B)
vision
C)
speech
D)
hearing
42)
Which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its
primary functions?
A)
frontal lobe — decision making
B)
occipital lobe — control of skeletal muscles
C)
temporal lobe — visual processing
D)
occipital lobe — speech production
43)
If you were writing an essay, the part(s) of your brain that would be actively
involved in this task is/are the _____.
A)
frontal lobes
B)
parietal lobe
C)
Broca's area
D)
occipital lobe
44)
Wernicke's area _____.
A)
is active when speech is heard and comprehended
B)
is active during the generation of speech
C)
coordinates the response to olfactory sensation
D)
is found on the left side of the brain
45)
When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, or when someone
had a frontal lobotomy, they would _____.
A)
lose their sense of balance
B)
lose all short-term memory
C)
have greatly altered emotional responses
D)
have greatly increased long-term memory
46)
Patients with damage to Wernicke's area have difficulty _____.
A)
generating speech
B)
recognizing faces
C)
understanding language
D)
experiencing emotion
47)
After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him,
but pays attention only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to
describe these objects, he has difficulty judging their size and distance. What
part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke?
A)
the left frontal lobe
B)
the right frontal lobe
C)
the left parietal lobe
D)
the right parietal lobe
48)
An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the _____.
A)
primary visual cortex
B)
thalamus
C)
sense of taste
D)
sense of touch
49)
Short-term and long-term memory are related but have important differences.
Short-term memory _____.
A)
involves temporary links formed in the cerebral cortex while long-term memory
involves permanent connections within the hippocampus
B)
and long-term memory store information in the cerebellum but use different
neurotransmitters
C)
is essential for acquiring and retaining long-term memories
D)
is essential for acquiring new long-term memories but not for maintaining them
50)
One of the fundamental processes by which memories are stored and learning
takes place _____.
A)
is related to changes in the degree of myelination of axons
B)
results in an increase in the diameter of axons
C)
results in a shift from aerobic to anaerobic respiration in neurons
D)
involves two types of glutamate receptors
51)
The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the _____.
A)
axon hillock
B)
dendrite
C)
synapse
D)
glia
52)
Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the _____.
A)
brainstem
B)
medulla
C)
hypothalamus
D)
hippocampus
53)
Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the
_____.
A)
thalamus
B)
cerebral cortex
C)
somatosensory cortex
D)
primary motor cortex
54)
In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by _____.
A)
the dendritic membrane
B)
the presynaptic membrane
C)
axon hillocks
D)
cell bodies
55)
In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by _____.
A)
the postsynaptic membrane
B)
the presynaptic membrane
C)
axon hillocks
D)
cell bodies
56)
Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries
involving the _____.
A)
degree of convolutions in the brain's surface
B)
sequence of developmental specialization
C)
chemicals involved in brain communications
D)
nature of the blood-brain barrier
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
57)
Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that _____.
A)
schizophrenia typically involves hallucinations
B)
schizophrenia typically involves manic and depressive states
C)
bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment
D)
bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines
58)
One of the complications of Alzheimer's disease is an interference with
learning and memory. This disease would most likely involve _____.
A)
changes in the concentration of ions in the extracellular fluid surrounding
neurons
B)
changes in myelination of axons
C)
molecular and structural changes at synapses
D)
structural changes to ion channels in axons
59)
Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson's disease. Researchers
are hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's
disease by _____.
A)
preventing temporal lobe seizures
B)
repairing sites of traumatic brain injury
C)
replenishing missing ion channels
D)
secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine
60)
The brain reward system _____.
A)
represents an emergent brain property that has arisen independent of natural
selection
B)
is a reflex of the peripheral nervous primarily under autonomic control
C)
is housed in the thalamus and primarily regulates the enteric division of the
autonomic nervous system
D)
utilizes the neurotransmitter dopamine and is affected by drug addiction
61)
C.elegans is a model organism and was the first eukaryotic organism to
have its genome sequenced. The free-living nematode is often used in
laboratories investigating nervous system development with all 302 of its
neurons and their effectors categorized. Interesting control mechanisms have
been investigated with reproduction, particularly with egg-laying in the nematode.
There are 16 muscles, 2 types of neurons, and multiple receptors involved in
the process of laying eggs in C.elegans, and there are mutations in all
of those structures for the study of the process. One particular mutation that
prevents the laying of eggs by the worm is rescued by the neurotransmitter,
serotonin. That rescue suggests that the mutation is most likely in which of
the following?
A)
a post-synaptic neuron involved in egg-laying
B)
a pre-synaptic neuron involved in egg-laying
C)
a receptor for serotonin on cells needed for egg-laying
D)
one of the muscles needed for egg-laying
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 50 Sensory
and Motor Mechanisms
1)
When the mammalian brain compares the actual temperature of the body to the
preferred temperature of the body, which general component is being used?
A)
sensor
B)
effector
C)
integrator
2)
A behavioral physiologist is studying the homeostatic control of blood pH. In a
trial, a lizard runs on a treadmill for a set amount of time and the blood pH
is measured. The blood pH drops as carbon dioxide is released into the
bloodstream. Which component of the homeostatic feedback system is responsible
for deciding if the blood pH is far enough from normal that a response is
necessary?
A)
effector
B)
sensor
C)
integrator
D)
assimilator
3)
The eleven pairs of appendages projecting from the rostral area of star-nosed
moles are _____.
A)
chemosensory structures
B)
tactile structures
C)
olfactory structures
D)
gustatory structures
4)
The correct sequence of sensory processing is _____.
A)
sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory
perception
B)
stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory
adaptation
C)
sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation
D)
stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory
transduction
5)
Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons
would likely produce the sensation of _____.
A)
cold temperature
B)
hot temperature
C)
tactile stimulus
D)
deep pressure
6)
Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's menthol-sensitive neurons would
likely produce the sensation of _____.
A)
cold temperature
B)
hot temperature
C)
odor of pepper
D)
deep pressure
7)
Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells and generate action
potentials via _____.
A)
integration
B)
transmission
C)
transduction
D)
amplification
8)
Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this
perception soon fades due to _____.
A)
sensory adaptation
B)
accommodation
C)
reduced motor unit recruitment
D)
reduced receptor amplification
9)
A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times
more energy because the signal strength is amplified by _____.
A)
the receptor
B)
a G protein
C)
a signal transduction pathway
D)
triggering several receptors at once
10)
Although some sharks close their eyes just before they bite, their bites are on
target. Researchers have noted that sharks often misdirect their bites at metal
objects and that they can find batteries buried under sand. This evidence
suggests that sharks keep track of their prey during the split second before
they bite in the same way that a _____.
A)
rattlesnake finds a mouse in its burrow
B)
male silkworm moth locates a mate
C)
bat finds moths in the dark
D)
platypus locates its prey in a muddy river
11)
Which type of receptor would you expect to be most abundant in the antennae of
a moth?
A)
thermoreceptors
B)
mechanoreceptors
C)
chemoreceptors
D)
electroreceptors
12)
The middle ear converts _____.
A)
air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves
B)
fluid pressure waves to air pressure waves
C)
air pressure waves to nerve impulses
D)
fluid pressure waves to nerve impulses
13)
Statocysts contain cells that are _____.
A)
mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity
B)
chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes
C)
photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms
D)
thermoreceptors used in prey detection
14)
During an auditory transduction, ion flow varies across the _____.
A)
tectorial membrane
B)
round-window membrane
C)
hair cell membrane
D)
basilar membrane
15)
Dizziness is a perceived sensation that can occur when _____.
A)
the hair cells in the cochlea move more than their normal limits
B)
moving fluid in the semicircular canals encounters a stationary cupula
C)
rods and cones provide information that does not correspond with information
received by cochlear hair cells
D)
the basilar membrane makes physical contact with the tectorial membrane
16)
The structure diagrammed in the figure is the _____.
A)
neuromast
B)
statocyst
C)
ommatidium
D)
olfactory bulb
17)
A person able to hear only high-frequency sounds would probably have which of
the following structural problems in the ear?
A)
The tympanum is damaged because of chronic ear infections.
B)
The basilar membrane is stiffened along its entire length.
C)
The ear ossicles are abnormally thickened.
D)
All of these problems could result in inability to detect low-frequency sound.
18)
Partial or complete loss of hearing (deafness) can be caused by damage to the
_____.
I) axons
of the neurons associated with each hair cell that carry information to the
brain
II) hair
cells (the sensory receptors) in the cochlea
III) tympanic
membrane, or eardrum
A)
only II
B)
only III
C)
only I and II
D)
I, II, and III
19)
The cochlea _____.
I) amplifies
sound vibrations
II) collects
sound pressure waves
III) detects
the frequency of sounds
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
20)
Elephants hear sounds that are too low for humans to hear. This sensitivity is
primarily due to the differences in the _____.
A)
arrangement and shape of the ossicles
B)
flexibility of the basilar membrane in the cochlea
C)
size and flexibility of the tympanic membrane (eardrum)
D)
size and shape of the outer ear
21)
Hair cells in the vertebrate ear are responsible for transducing sound pressure
waves. Ion channels in the hair cell membrane open when _____.
A)
a chemical ligand binds to the ion channel
B)
light is absorbed by a molecule in the membrane
C)
the cell membrane reaches a threshold voltage
D)
the membrane is distorted mechanically
22)
If you experimentally reduce the concentration of K+ in the extracellular fluid surrounding hair
cells in the inner ear, the result would be like which of the following?
A)
decreasing the volume of sound reaching the hair cells
B)
increasing the volume of sound reaching the hair cells
C)
decreasing the frequency of sound reaching the hair cells
D)
increasing the frequency of sound reaching the hair cells
23)
It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to
catch it because grasshoppers have _____.
A)
excellent hearing for detecting predators
B)
compound eyes with multiple ommatidia
C)
eyes with multiple fovea
D)
a camera-like eye with multiple fovea
24)
Compared to viewing a distant object, a human viewing an object held within
five centimeters of the eye requires a lens that _____.
A)
has been flattened, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles
B)
has been made more spherical, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles
C)
has been flattened, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles
D)
has been made more spherical, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles
25)
Sensory transduction of light in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by
_____.
A)
ganglion cells
B)
amacrine cells
C)
bipolar cells
D)
rods and cones
26)
Lateral inhibition via amacrine cells in the mammalian retina _____.
A)
underlies habituation of vision
B)
enhances visual contrast
C)
prevents bleaching in bright light
D)
recycles neurotransmitter molecules
27)
The blind spot in the human retina is the location that has the collected axons
of _____.
A)
ganglion cells
B)
bipolar cells
C)
primary visual cortex
D)
lateral geniculate nuclei
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
28)
Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to change the shape of the cornea
and improve vision. This surgery is beneficial because it _____.
A)
improves the circulation of nutrients to the eye
B)
improves the focusing of light onto the retina
C)
decreases the amount of light entering the eye
D)
increases the sensitivity of the photoreceptors
29)
Rods exposed to light will _____.
A)
depolarize due to the opening of sodium channels
B)
hyperpolarize due to the closing of sodium channels
C)
depolarize due to the opening of potassium channels
D)
hyperpolarize due to the closing of potassium channels
30)
What structures would neurobiologists look for if they are interested in
determining if an animal can see in color?
A)
opsins
B)
electroreceptors
C)
pupil
D)
lens
31)
How could you genetically modify an animal so that it would distinguish more
shades of green?
A)
Induce genes to produce a greater number of cone cells in the fovea.
B)
Introduce genes for different opsins that respond in the green region of the
spectrum.
C)
Introduce genes to produce green fluid in the eyeball, because green fluids
will not absorb green light.
D)
Induce increased production of cGMP to increase opening of cGMP-gated sodium
channels.
32)
Which sensory distinction is NOT encoded by a difference in neuron identity?
A)
red and green
B)
loud and faint
C)
salty and sweet
D)
spicy and cool
33)
Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that
_____.
A)
neural projections from taste receptors reach different parts of the brain than
the neural projections from olfactory receptors
B)
the single area of the cerebral cortex that receives smell and taste signals
can distinguish tastes and smells by the pattern of action potentials received
C)
tastant molecules are airborne, whereas odorant molecules are dissolved in
fluids
D)
distinguishing tastant molecules requires learning, whereas smell
discrimination is an innate process
34)
Most of the chemosensory neurons arising in the nasal cavity have axonal
projections that terminate in the _____.
A)
gustatory complex
B)
olfactory bulb
C)
occipital lobe
D)
posterior pituitary gland
35)
Umami perception would be stimulated by _____.
A)
chocolate milk
B)
a slice or roast beef
C)
acidic orange juice
D)
salt water
36)
The olfactory bulbs are located in the _____.
A)
nasal cavity
B)
anterior pituitary gland
C)
brain
D)
brainstem
37)
Which of the following sensory receptors is correctly paired with its category?
A)
hair cell — mechanoreceptor
B)
muscle spindle — electromagnetic receptor
C)
taste receptor — mechanoreceptor
D)
rod — chemoreceptor
38)
The umami receptor in the sense of taste detects _____.
A)
glucose
B)
potassium ions
C)
hydrogen ions
D)
monosodium glutamate
39)
Experiments with genetically altered mice showed that the mice would consume
abnormally high amounts of bitter-tasting compounds in water after their _____.
A)
hormone receptors for digestive hormones were reduced or eliminated, showing
that bitter tastes are reinforced by digestive responses
B)
salt-taste cells were altered to express receptors for bitter tastants,
suggesting that animals have unregulated salt appetites
C)
visual sense was reduced or eliminated, suggesting that mice learn visual cues
about bitter tastes
D)
sweet-taste cells were altered to express receptors for bitter tastants,
suggesting that the sensation of taste depends only on which taste cell is
stimulated
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
40)
Two students studying physiology taste a known "bitter" substance,
and both report sensing bitterness. They then sample another substance. Student
A reports sensing both a bitter taste and a salty taste, but student B reports
only a salty taste. What is the most logical explanation?
A)
Student A had an allergic reaction to the food, causing him to perceive the
food as being bitter.
B)
Student A has normal "bitter" taste buds; student B has defective
"bitter" taste buds that result in lower sensitivity to bitterness.
C)
Student A has a protein receptor capable of detecting a bitter molecule found
in that substance, whereas student B lacks that particular protein receptor.
D)
Student A has normal saliva, whereas student B's saliva is more alkaline than
normal.
41)
Which of the following are present in high densities in both smooth and
skeletal muscle cells?
I) cilia
II) mitochondria
III) nuclei
IV) endoplasmic
reticulum
A)
only I and II
B)
only II and IV
C)
only III and IV
D)
only I, II, and III
42)
The contraction of skeletal muscles is based on _____.
A)
myosin filaments coiling up to become shorter
B)
actin and myosin filaments both coiling up to become shorter
C)
actin cross-bridges binding to myosin and transitioning from a high-energy to a
low-energy state
D)
myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and transitioning from a high-energy to a
low-energy state
43)
Compared to oxidative skeletal muscle fibers, those classified as glycolytic
typically have _____.
A)
a higher concentration of myoglobin
B)
a higher density of mitochondria
C)
a smaller diameter
D)
less resistance to fatigue
44)
Myasthenia gravis is a form of muscle paralysis in which _____.
A)
motor neurons lose their myelination and the ability to rapidly fire action
potentials
B)
acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by an overactive immune system
C)
ATP production becomes uncoupled from mitochondrial electron transport
D)
troponin molecules become unable to bind calcium ions
45)
A skeletal muscle deprived of adequate ATP supplies will _____.
A)
immediately relax
B)
enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate
C)
fire many more action potentials than usual and enter a state of
"rigor"
D)
sequester all free calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
46)
Most of the ATP supplies for a skeletal muscle undergoing one hour of sustained
exercise come from _____.
A)
creatine phosphate
B)
glycolysis
C)
substrate phosphorylation
D)
oxidative phosphorylation
47)
The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to _____.
A)
one actin binding site and its myosin partner
B)
one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments
C)
one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres
D)
one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses
48)
The muscles of a recently deceased human can remain in a contracted state,
termed rigor mortis, for several hours, due to the lack of _____.
A)
ATP needed to break actin-myosin bonds
B)
calcium ions needed to bind to troponin
C)
oxygen supplies needed for myoglobin
D)
sodium ions needed to fire action potentials
49)
Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the excitation
and contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber?
1. Tropomyosin
shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites.
2. Calcium
is released and binds to the troponin complex.
3. Transverse
tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The
thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the
myosin molecules using energy from ATP.
5. An
action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine,
which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane.
A)
1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
B)
2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4
C)
2 → 3 → 4 → 1 → 5
D)
5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4
50)
Action potentials in the heart move from one contractile cell to the next via
_____.
A)
chemical synapses using acetylcholine
B)
chemical synapses using norepinephrine
C)
electrical synapses using gap junctions
D)
non-myelinated motor neurons
51)
What would happen to people exposed to a chemical warfare agent that blocked
acetylcholine from binding to muscle receptors?
A)
Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle
contractions.
B)
Muscle contractions would be prevented, causing paralysis.
C)
Muscle contractions could still occur, but relaxation of the muscle would be
impaired.
D)
Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle
contractions;
muscle contractions would then be prevented, causing paralysis.
52)
When an action potential from a motor neuron arrives at the neuromuscular
junction (NMJ), a series of events occurs that leads to muscle contraction. Which
of the following events will occur last (that is, after all of the others)?
A)
acetylcholine (ACh) release
B)
conformational change in troponin
C)
depolarization of the muscle cell
D)
release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
53)
A patient is hospitalized with muscle spasms caused by failure of back muscles
to relax after contraction. Which of the following would be most likely to
help?
A)
Inject calcium into the muscle cell, because it is not being released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)
Induce tropomycin and troponin to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin.
C)
Increase the amount of acetylcholine at the synapses between motor neurons and
muscle cells.
D)
Depolarize the motor neurons to send an action potential to the muscle cells.
Use the following
information to answer the question(s) below.
"Marine
cone snails from the genus Conus are estimated to consist of up to 700
species. These predatory molluscs have devised an efficient venom apparatus
that allows them to successfully capture polychaete worms, other molluscs, or
in some cases fish as their primary food sources. … conotoxins from Australian
species of Conus … have the capacity to inhibit specifically the
nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in higher animals." (B. G. Livett, K. R.
Gayler, and Z. Khalil. 2004. Drugs from the sea: Conopeptides as potential
therapeutics. Current Medicinal Chemistry 11:1715-23.)
54)
Refer to the paragraph above on the venom of marine core snails. This
particular conotoxin inhibits acetylcholine receptors that are located _____.
A)
along the motor neuron axon
B)
on motor neuron dendrites
C)
on the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction
D)
on the postsynaptic membrane, on the muscle cell
55)
Refer to the paragraph above on the venom of marine core snails. What is the
adaptive value of this toxin?
I) It
would cause muscle spasms in the prey.
II) It
would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle of the prey.
III) It
would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting of
the prey.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only I and II
56)
An endoskeleton is the primary body support for the _____.
A)
annelids, including earthworms
B)
insects, including beetles
C)
cartilaginous fishes, including sharks
D)
bivalves, including clams
57)
A ball-and-socket joint connects _____.
A)
the radius to the ulna
B)
the radius to the humerus
C)
the ulna to the humerus
D)
the humerus to the scapula
58)
Among these choices, the most energetically efficient locomotion per unit mass
is likely _____.
A)
running by a 50-gram rodent
B)
running by a 40-kilogram ungulate
C)
flying by a 100-gram bird
D)
swimming by a 100-kilogram tuna (bony fish)
59)
The hydrostatic skeleton of the earthworm allows it to move around in its
environment by _____.
A)
walking on its limbs
B)
swimming with its setae
C)
using peristaltic contractions of its circular and longitudinal muscles
D)
alternating contractions and relaxations of its flagella
60)
Chitin is a major component of the _____.
A)
skeleton of mammals
B)
hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms
C)
exoskeleton of insects
D)
body hairs of mammals
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 51 Animal
Behavior
1)
What type of signal is long-lasting and works at night?
A)
olfactory
B)
visual
C)
auditory
D)
electrical
2)
What type of signal is brief and can work among obstructions at night?
A)
olfactory
B)
visual
C)
auditory
D)
magnetic
3)
What type of signal is fast and requires daylight with no obstructions?
A)
olfactory
B)
visual
C)
auditory
D)
tactile
4)
Circannual rhythms in birds are influenced by _____.
A)
periods of food availability
B)
periods of daylight and darkness
C)
magnetic fields
D)
lunar cycles
5)
Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other worker
bees the presence of a nearby food source it has discovered by _____.
A)
vibrating its wings at varying frequencies
B)
performing a round dance
C)
performing a waggle dance
D)
visual cues
6)
Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually _____.
A)
visual and auditory
B)
tactile and visual
C)
olfactory and auditory
D)
visual and olfactory
7)
A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through
which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly
to the earphone and go through all of the steps of copulation. What is the best
explanation for this behavior?
A)
Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign
stimulus that initiates it.
B)
The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to
attempt to sting it.
C)
The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females,
they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female
characteristic.
D)
Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the
inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of
copulation.
8)
A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red
coloring. What animal behavior idea is manifested by this observation?
A)
sign stimulus
B)
cognition
C)
imprinting
D)
classical conditioning
9)
Which of the following experiments best addresses the hypothesis that moths
stop flying in response to high-intensity bat sounds?
A)
Isolate and characterize the neurons that control flight muscle.
B)
Play prerecorded high-intensity bat sounds to flying moths.
C)
Observe responses of moths to bats in nature.
D)
Put bats and moths in an enclosure and make detailed observations of
predator-prey interactions.
10)
A lizard's bobbing dewlap (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis
lizard's throat) is an example of a(n) _____.
A)
stimulus
B)
reflex
C)
signal
D)
innate releasing mechanism
11)
What was the main reason the honeybees switched from the "round
dance" to the "waggle dance"?
A)
The waggle dance communicates the presence of nectar.
B)
The preferred food source was farther away.
C) The round dance uses too much energy.
D)
The round dance did not communicate the quality of the food.
12)
From the figure above, what can we determine about the location of the food
source?
A) The waggle dance in the top figure indicates
that the food is directly under the hive.
B) The waggle dance in the bottom figure
indicates that the food is to the west of the hive.
C) The waggle dance in the top figure
indicates that the food is close to the hive.
D) The waggle dance in the bottom figure
indicates that the food is 90 degrees to the right of the Sun.
13)
If the figure above shows the dances of bees in a hive at twelve noon on March
21 in the northern hemisphere, which dance is communicating that the food is to
the south of the hive?
A)
dance A
B)
dance B
C)
dance C
D) It is not possible to tell if any of
the dances indicate the food is to the south of the hive.
14) Scientists believe that the
direction birds go when migrating is guided in part by _____.
I) the
stars in the night sky
II) the
Sun during the day
III) the
magnetic field of the Earth
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
15)
Which of the following examples describes a behavioral pattern that results
from a proximate cause?
A)
A cat kills a mouse to obtain nutrition.
B)
A male sheep fights with another male because it helps to improve its social
position.
C)
A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing
slightly each day.
D)
A goose squats and freezes motionless to escape a predator.
16)
The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but
behavior is ultimately shaped by _____.
A)
hormones
B)
evolution
C)
pheromones
D)
the nervous system
17)
During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The
moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The
instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that
sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the
contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior
might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?
A)
The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect.
B)
The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers
to ultimate causation.
C)
The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the
second is not.
D)
Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.
18)
Which of the following is required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural
selection?
A)
The behavior is determined entirely by genes.
B)
The behavior is the same in all individuals in the population.
C)
An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is
performed.
D)
The behavior is not genetically inherited.
19)
In testing a hypothesis that "territorial defense in European robins is a
fixed action pattern that is released by the sight of orange feathers,"
researchers found that robins defended their territory by attacking anything
that was of similar size and had an orange patch. What experiment would you
perform next to determine that the color initiated the defense response?
A)
Repeat the experiment using a blue patch instead of an orange patch.
B)
Repeat the experiment by removing the patch completely.
C)
Repeat the experiment by using a model of a robin that was twice the size of a
normal robin but with a small orange patch.
D)
Repeat the experiment by using a model of a robin that had an orange patch that
was twice the size of a normal patch.
Listed
below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Choose the letter of
the correct term (A-E) that matches each example in the following question(s).
A. operant
conditioning
B. agonistic
behavior
C. innate
behavior
D. imprinting
E. altruistic
behavior
20)
Through trial and error, a rat learns to run a maze without mistakes to receive
a food reward.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
21)
A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the
presence of the nipple of its mother's breast.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
22)
A mother goat can recognize its own kid by smell.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
23)
Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical
fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank
when he entered the room. This is an example of _____.
A)
cognition
B)
imprinting
C)
classical conditioning
D)
operant conditioning
24)
Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets
attention. Which of the following might you use to describe this behavior?
A)
The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.
B)
The dog is trying to protect its territory.
C)
The dog has been classically conditioned.
D)
The dog's behavior is a result of operant conditioning.
25)
Scientists have tried raising endangered whooping cranes in captivity by using
sandhill cranes as foster parents. This strategy is no longer used because
_____.
A)
the fostered whooping cranes' critical period was variable such that different
chicks imprinted on different "mothers"
B)
sandhill crane parents rejected their fostered whooping crane chicks soon after
incubation
C)
none of the fostered whooping cranes formed a mating pair-bond with another
whooping crane
D)
sandhill crane parents did not properly incubate whooping crane eggs
26)
White-crowned sparrows can only learn the "crystallized" song for
their species by _____.
A)
listening to adult sparrow songs during a sensitive period as a fledgling,
followed by a practice period until the juvenile matches its melody to its
memorized fledgling song
B)
listening to the song of its own species during a critical period so that it
will imprint to its own species song and not the songs of other songbird
species
C)
performing the crystallized song as adults when they become sexually mature, as
the song is programmed into the innate behavior for the species
D)
observing and practicing after receiving social confirmation from other adults
at a critical period during their first episode of courtship behavior
27)
One way to understand how early environment influences behaviors in similar
species is through the "cross-fostering" experimental technique.
Suppose that the curly-whiskered mud rat differs from the bald mud rat in
several ways, including being much more aggressive. How would you set up a
cross-fostering experiment to determine if environment plays a role in the
curly-whiskered mud rat's aggression?
A)
You would cross curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats and hand-rear the
offspring to see if any grew up to be aggressive.
B)
You would place newborn curly-whiskered mud rats with bald mud rat parents and
place newborn bald mud rats with curly-whiskered mud rat parents. Finally, let
some mud rats of both species be raised by their own species. Then you would
compare the outcomes.
C)
You would remove the offspring of curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats
from their parents, raise them in the same environment but without parents, and
then compare the outcomes.
D)
You would replace normal newborn mud rats with deformed newborn mud rats to see
if it triggered an altruistic response.
28)
Which of the following is true of innate behaviors? Innate behaviors _____.
A)
are only weakly influenced by genes
B)
occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals
C)
are limited to invertebrate animals
D)
are expressed in most individuals in a population
29)
A region of the canary forebrain shrinks during the nonbreeding season and
enlarges when breeding season begins. This change is probably associated with
the annual _____.
A)
addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire
B)
crystallization of subsong into adult songs
C)
renewal of mating and nest-building behaviors
D)
elimination of the memorized template for songs sung the previous year
30)
Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts,
members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely
explanation is that _____.
A)
the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations
B)
members of different populations have different nutritional requirements
C)
the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some
populations
D)
members of different populations differ in learning ability
31)
You observe a species of bird that, upon hatching, has contact with its parents
only while being fed. You also never hear the parents sing during the feeding
process. What would you propose about song learning in this species of bird?
A)
Song learning in this species is most likely learned.
B)
The period of imprinting is likely later in the bird's life.
C)
The males will learn song when they congregate with other males of their
species during the winter.
D)
Song learning in this species is most likely innate.
32)
Learning has the most influence on behavior when _____.
A)
making mistakes does not result in death
B)
animals reproduce asexually
C)
animals have enormous cognitive ability
D)
making mistakes result in death
33)
You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise
with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons. What would
best explain this observation?
A)
Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison.
B)
Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to
avoid them.
C)
Rats are taught by their parents to test small bits of food first and then
return later if the food seems safe.
D)
Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison.
34)
You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual
only pretends to hide food. What kind of experiment could you perform to test
whether this behavior was random or in response to another signal?
A)
Observe more of these behaviors in the wild and try to determine if the
behavior is random.
B)
Hypothesize a set of signals that could produce this behavior and try to match
the behaviors with the signals.
C)
Attempt to reproduce the behavior in captivity by using bird models and a
computer simulation.
35)
You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual
only pretends to hide food. Your experiments associate the presence of other
individuals with the frequency of pretending to cache food. A colleague shows
you animals of the same species that do not perform this pretend caching. How
does this information affect your conclusions about this behavior?
A)
It suggests that this behavior might be learned.
B)
It prevents you from making conclusions.
C)
It suggests that your experimental design is flawed.
D)
It does not change your initial conclusions.
36)
You discover a rare new bird species, but you are unable to observe its mating
behavior. You see that the male is large and ornamental compared with the
female. On this basis, you can probably conclude that the species is _____.
A)
polygamous
B)
monogamous
C)
polyandrous
D)
agonistic
37)
Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one another. Fred
is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to
advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. Joe
then rolls on the ground on his back, gets up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral
pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most
specific behavior described by this example.
A)
agonistic behavior
B)
territorial behavior
C)
learned behavior
D)
fixed action pattern
38)
Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating and egg
laying, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may
be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain,
forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms
best describes this behavior?
A)
monogamy
B)
polygyny
C)
polyandry
D)
promiscuity
39)
Feeding behavior with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called
_____.
A)
autotrophy
B)
heterotrophy
C)
search scavenging
D)
optimal foraging
40)
Which of the following might affect the foraging behavior of an animal in the
context of optimal foraging?
I) risk
of predation
II) prey
size
III) prey
defenses
IV) prey
density
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and III
D)
I, II, III, and IV
41)
Which of the following is most likely associated with the evolution of mating
systems?
A)
population density
B)
territoriality
C)
certainty of paternity
D)
sexual dimorphism
42)
Females are typically larger and more ornamented than males where _____ occurs.
A)
monogamy
B)
polyandry
C)
polygamy
D)
polygyny
43)
Which of the following statements is true about certainty of paternity?
A)
Certainty of paternity is high in most species with internal fertilization
because the acts of mating and birth are separated by time.
B)
Certainty of paternity is low when males guard females they have mated.
C)
Certainty of paternity is low when egg laying and mating occur together, as in
external fertilization.
D)
Paternal behavior exists because it has been reinforced over generations by
natural selection.
44)
Which of the following best describes "game theory" as it applies to
animal behavior?
A)
The fitness of a particular behavior is influenced by other behavioral
phenotypes in a population.
B)
The total of all of the behavioral displays, both male and female, is related
to courtship.
C)
The play behavior performed by juveniles allows them to perfect adult behaviors
that are needed for survival, such as hunting, courtship, and so on.
D)
The evolutionary "game" is played between predator and prey. The prey
evolve a behavior in response to the nature of the predatory behavior.
45)
The color of throats of males in a population of side-blotched lizards is
determined by _____.
A)
ambient temperature: blue = cold; orange = normal; yellow = hot
B)
stage of development/maturity
C)
their receptiveness to mate
D)
the success of the mating behavior of each of the throat color phenotypes
46)
In the figure above, which of the following conclusions is most logical based
on the data?
A)
Females produce more eggs more quickly when exposed to breeding males.
B)
Females produce eggs more quickly when exposed to many males than females
paired with a male.
C)
All non-isolated females do just as well as isolated females.
D)
After four weeks together, females with males produce mature follicles to the
same extent as females without males.
Listed
below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Choose the letter of
the correct term (A-E) that matches each example in the following question(s).
A. operant
conditioning
B. agonistic
behavior
C. innate
behavior
D. imprinting
E. altruistic
behavior
47)
Upon observing a golden eagle flying overhead, a sentry prairie dog gives a
warning call to other foraging members of the prairie dog community.
A)
B
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
48)
The fru gene in fruit flies _____.
I) controls
sex-specific development in the fruit fly
II) is
a master regulatory gene that directs expression of many other genes
III) can
be genetically manipulated in females so that they will perform male sex
behaviors
IV) programs
males for appropriate courtship behaviors
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III, and IV
49)
Pair-bonding in a population of prairie voles can be prevented by _____.
A)
the ensuing confusion caused by introducing meadow voles
B)
administering a drug that inhibits the brain receptor for vasopressin in the
central nervous system (CNS) of males
C)
dying the coat color from brown to blond in either male or female prairie voles
D)
allowing the population size to reach critically low levels
50)
Which of the following statements about evolution of behavior is correct?
A)
Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction.
B)
An animal may show behavior that minimizes reproductive fitness.
C)
If a behavior is less than optimal, it will eventually become optimal through
natural selection.
D)
Innate behaviors cannot be altered by natural selection.
51)
How do altruistic behaviors arise through natural selection?
A)
By his/her actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of its
genes will be passed on to the next generation.
B)
The altruist is appreciated by other members of the population because its survivability
has been enhanced by virtue of its risky behavior.
C)
Animals that perform altruistic acts are allowed by their population to breed
more, thereby passing on their behavior genes to future generations.
D)
Altruistic behaviors lower stress in populations, which increases the
survivability of all the members of the population.
52)
Which of the following has a coefficient of relatedness of 0.25?
A)
a father to his daughter
B)
an uncle to his nephew
C)
a brother to his brother
D)
a sister to her brother
53)
Animals that help other animals of the same species _____.
A)
have excess energy reserves
B)
are bigger and stronger than the other animals
C)
are usually related to the other animals helped
D)
are always male
54)
The presence of altruistic behavior is most likely due to kin selection, a
theory maintaining that _____.
A)
genes enhance survival of copies of themselves by directing organisms to assist
others who share those genes
B)
companionship is advantageous to animals because in the future they can help
each other
C)
critical thinking abilities are normal traits for animals and they have arisen,
like other traits, through natural selection
D)
natural selection has generally favored the evolution of exaggerated aggressive
and submissive behaviors to resolve conflict without grave harm to participants
55) If a prairie dog had the opportunity
to perform an altruistic act (that is, give an alarm call) to help its
relatives, which combination of the following relatives would the prairie dog be
most likely to help (base your answer solely on the genetic relationships)?
A)
two nieces, two cousins, and one half-brother
B)
two half-sisters and two nieces
C)
one son, one niece, and one half-sister
D)
The prairie dog would be equally likely to act altruistically to each of the
combinations described.
56)
How would you classify the genetic basis for most behavioral traits in the
animal kingdom?
A)
One gene typically codes for one behavior.
B)
One gene typically codes for many behaviors.
C)
Many genes typically code for one behavior.
D)
Behaviors are learned, not coded by genes.
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
following are an abstract and figure from a paper that explores the
evolutionary relationship between a protein kinase and behavior (M. Fitzpatrick
and M. Sokolowski. 2004. In search of food: Exploring the evolutionary link
between cGMP-dependent protein kinase (PKG) and behavior. Integrative and
Comparative Biology 44:28-36).
Abstract:
Despite
an immense amount of variation in organisms throughout the animal kingdom, many
of their genes show substantial conservation in DNA sequence and protein
function. Here we explore the potential for a conserved evolutionary
relationship between genes and their behavioral phenotypes. We investigate the
evolutionary history of cGMP-dependent protein kinase (PKG) and its possible
conserved function in food-related behaviors. First identified for its role in
the foraging behavior of fruit flies, the PKG encoded by the foraging gene
had since been associated with the maturation of behavior (from nurse to
forager) in honey bees and the roaming and dwelling food-related locomotion in
nematodes. These parallels encouraged us to construct protein phylogenies using
32 PKG sequences that include 19 species. Our analyses suggest five possible
evolutionary histories that can explain the apparent conserved link between PKG
and behavior in fruit flies, honey bees, and nematodes. Three of these raise
the hypothesis that PKG influences the food-related behaviors of a wide variety
of animals including vertebrates. Moreover it appears that the PKG gene was
duplicated some time between the evolution of nematodes and a common ancestor
of vertebrates and insects whereby current evidence suggest only the for-like
PKG might be associated with food-related behavior.
Neighbor joining trees depicting the
evolutionary relationships of 32 PKG kinase domain and C-terminal amino acid
sequences spanning 19 species of protozoans and metazoans. Values at the nodes
represent the results of 5000 bootstrap replications. Lineages with known
behavioral links with PKG are indicated by gray branches.
57)
Look at the evolutionary relationship of protein kinases in the figure above.
Knowing that there is evidence that this particular protein kinase is linked to
food-related behaviors in the animals studied, what conclusions can you draw?
A)
There is enormous variation in amino acid sequences between taxa.
B)
There is likely a conserved evolutionary relationship between these genes and
their behavioral phenotype.
C)
PKG influences food-related behaviors in a wide variety of animals, and
there is enormous variation in amino acid sequences between taxa.
D)
PKG influences food-related behaviors in a wide variety of animals, and
there is likely a conserved evolutionary relationship between these genes and
their behavioral phenotype.
58)
Using the figure above and the accompanying paragraph, and knowing that the PKG
encoded by the foraging gene has recently been associated with the
maturation of out-of-nest behavior in honeybees, what would be a logical
explanation for this relationship? As animals mature, they _____.
A)
require more food; therefore, PKG levels must increase.
B)
are more likely to forage; therefore, PKG levels must increase.
C)
respond to pheromones from the queen, which increases PKG levels.
D)
are able to fly, an activity that is connected to the increase in PKG levels.
59)
What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to
banana slug prey?
A)
Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had
increased fitness. No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were
absent.
B)
Banana slugs are camouflaged, and inland snakes, which have poorer vision than
coastal snakes, are less able to see them.
C)
Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes
have fewer types of prey because they are less social.
D)
Inland banana slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them.
Coastal banana slugs are palatable to garter snakes.
60)
Behaviors are diverse and important for survival and reproduction. Some
behaviors are learned, such as the species-specific song of a yellow warbler
which is different from the song of a blue-winged warbler. Other behaviors are
innate, such as a female cat in heat urinating more often and in many places to
attract a mate or honeybees do a "dance" that indicates the distance
and direction of a food source when they return to their hive. Which of the
following statements supports the idea that behaviors are important in survival
and therefore affect natural selection?
A)
Learned behaviors may not necessarily increase fitness. Baby warblers can learn
the song of another species.
B)
Innate behaviors are the result of selection for individual survival and
reproductive success.
C)
All behaviors are survival mechanisms that increase reproductive fitness by
increasing mutation rates.
D)
Both innate and learned behaviors are entirely based on genes inherited from
parents.
61)
The graph indicates that males leave the area where they were born while
females stay in the area. What is the most likely reason for the evolution of
this behavior?
A)
Movement of males out of the territory reduces competition for food among the
males.
B)
The females are not as strong as the male ground squirrels and therefore stay
closer to their birthplace.
C)
Females reproduce by parthenogenesis, which means they produce offspring from
unfertilized eggs so the males are not needed.
D)
Within the ground squirrel population, males leave the area of their birth and
are replaced by new males, thus maintaining genetic diversity in the
population.
62)
A male stickleback fish will attack other male sticklebacks that invade its
nesting territory. It will only attack male fish, which display the red belly
characteristic of the species. Why has natural selection favored this behavior?
A)
The behavior reduces interspecific competition, which gives the male
stickleback access to more food.
B)
The behavior allows the male stickleback to attract females with its aggressive
display.
C)
The behavior allows the male to establish a defined space for breeding with
female sticklebacks.
D)
The behavior is a mechanism to reduce predation and resource competition.
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