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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 25 The
History of Life on Earth
1)
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
I. formation
of protobionts
II. synthesis
of organic monomers
III. synthesis
of organic polymers
IV. formation
of DNA-based genetic systems
A)
I, II, III, IV
B)
I, III, II, IV
C)
II, III, I, IV
D)
II, III, IV, I
2)
Which of the following is a defining characteristic that all protocells had in
common?
A)
the ability to synthesize enzymes
B)
a surrounding membrane or membrane-like structure
C)
RNA genes
D)
the ability to replicate RNA
3)
The first genetic material on Earth was probably _____.
A)
DNA produced by reverse transcriptase from abiotically produced RNA
B)
DNA molecules whose information was transcribed to RNA and later translated in
polypeptides
C)
self-replicating RNA molecules
D)
oligopeptides located within protobionts
4)
Several scientific laboratories across the globe are involved in research
concerning the origin of life on Earth. Which of these questions is currently
the most problematic and would have the greatest impact on our understanding if
we were able to answer it?
A)
How can amino acids, simple sugars, and nucleotides be synthesized abiotically?
B)
How did RNA sequences come to carry the code for amino acid sequences?
C)
How could polymers involving lipids and/or proteins form membranes in aqueous
environments?
D)
How can RNA molecules act as templates for the synthesis of complementary RNA
molecules?
5)
Which of the following steps has yet to be accomplished by scientists studying
the origin of life?
A)
synthesis of small RNA polymers by ribozymes
B)
abiotic synthesis of polypeptides
C)
formation of molecular aggregates with selectively permeable membranes
D)
formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino
acids
6)
How were conditions on the early Earth of more than three billion years ago
different from those on today's Earth? Unlike Earth today, early Earth _____.
A)
had an atmosphere rich in gases released from volcanic eruptions
B)
had an oxidizing atmosphere
C)
experienced little high energy radiation from the sun
D)
had an atmosphere with significant quantities of ozone
7)
Several scientific laboratories across the globe are performing research
concerning the origin of life on Earth. Which of the following are the most
likely results of abiotic experiments testing the potential for hydrogen
bonding between various nucleic acids and amino acids? Base your response on
our current understanding of Earth's first genetic systems.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The
questions below refer to the following description and figure.
The
figure below represents a cross section of the sea floor through a mid-ocean
rift valley, with alternating patches of black and white indicating sea floor
with reversed magnetic polarities. At the arrow labeled "I" (the rift
valley), the igneous rock of the sea floor is so young that it can be
accurately dated using carbon-14 dating. At the arrow labeled "III,"
however, the igneous rock is about one million years old, and potassium-40
dating is typically used to date such rocks. Note: The horizontal arrows
indicate the direction of sea-floor spreading, away from the rift valley.
8)
Which section of sea-floor crust should have the thickest layer of overlying
sediment, assuming a continuous rate of sediment deposition?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
D
D)
E
9)
If a particular marine organism is fossilized in the sediments immediately
overlying the igneous rock at the arrow labeled "II," at which other
location, labeled A-E, would a search be most likely to find more fossils of
this organism?
A)
B
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
10)
Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?
A)
a rare worm
B)
a common worm
C)
a rare squirrel
D)
a common squirrel
11)
Which of the following would be LEAST likely in the fossil record?
A)
burrowing species
B)
marine-dwelling species
C)
marsh-dwelling species
D)
desert-dwelling species
12)
If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5730 years, then a fossil that has
one-sixteenth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about
how many years old?
A)
2800
B)
11,200
C)
16,800
D)
22,900
13)
What is true of the fossil record of mammalian origins?
A)
It shows that mammals and birds evolved from the same kind of dinosaur.
B)
It includes transitional forms with progressively specialized teeth.
C)
It indicates that mammals and dinosaurs did not overlap in geologic time.
D)
It includes a series that shows the gradual change of scales into fur.
14)
If a fossil is encased in a stratum of sedimentary rock without any strata of
volcanic rock (for example, lava or ash) nearby, then it should be _____.
A)
easy to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because the radioisotopes in
the sediments will not have been "reset" by the heat of the igneous
rocks
B)
easy to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because the igneous rocks
will not have physically obstructed the deposition of sediment of a single age
next to the fossil
C)
difficult to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because the "marker
fossils" common to igneous rock will be absent
D)
difficult to determine the absolute age of the fossil, because radiometric
dating of sedimentary rock is less accurate than that of igneous rock
The
questions below refer to the following
paragraph.
A
sediment core is removed from the floor of an inland sea. The sea has been in
existence, off and on, throughout the entire time that terrestrial life has
existed. Researchers wish to locate and study the terrestrial organisms
fossilized in this core. The core is illustrated as a vertical column, with the
top of the column representing the most recent strata and the bottom
representing the time when land was first colonized by life.
15)
To assign absolute dates to fossils in this sediment core, it would be most
helpful if _____.
A)
we knew the order in which the fossils occurred
B)
the sediments had not been affected by underwater currents during their
deposition
C)
volcanic ash layers were regularly interspersed between the sedimentary strata
D)
fossils throughout the column were equally spaced apart
Refer
to the following information to answer the questions below.
Fossils
of Lystrosaurus, a dicynodont therapsid, are most common in parts of
modern-day South America, South Africa, Madagascar, India, South Australia, and
Antarctica. The animal apparently lived in arid regions, and was mostly
herbivorous. It originated during the mid-Permian period, survived the Permian
extinction, and dwindled by the late Triassic, though there is evidence of a
relict population in Australia during the Cretaceous period. Some dicynodonts
had two large tusks, extending down from their upper jaws. The tusks were not
used for food gathering, and in some species were limited to males. Food was
gathered using an otherwise toothless beak. Judging from the fossil record in
sedimentary rocks, these pig-sized organisms were the most common mammal-like
reptiles of the Permian.
16)
Anatomically, Lystrosaurus _____.
A)
would have had a lower jaw that consisted of a single pair of bones
B)
was a tetrapod
C)
had skin without scales, typical of modern amphibians
D)
would have had no temporal fenestra in its skull
17)
What is thought to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to
most recent, in the evolution of life on Earth?
1. origin
of mitochondria
2. origin
of multicellular eukaryotes
3. origin
of chloroplasts
4. origin
of cyanobacteria
5. origin
of fungal-plant symbioses
A)
4, 3, 2, 1, 5
B)
4, 1, 2, 3, 5
C)
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
D)
4, 3, 1, 5, 2
18)
Which of these observations gives the most support to the endosymbiotic theory
for the origin of eukaryotic cells?
A)
the existence of structural and molecular differences between the plasma
membranes of prokaryotes and the internal membranes of mitochondria and
chloroplasts
B)
the similarity in size between the cytosolic ribosomes of prokaryotes and the
ribosomes within mitochondria and chloroplasts
C)
the size disparity between most prokaryotic cells and most eukaryotic cells
D)
the observation that some eukaryotic cells lack mitochondria
19)
Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium?
A)
chloroplast
B)
mitochondrion
C)
flagella
D)
mitosome
20)
For many years scientists believed that almost all animal lineages burst into
being during the Cambrian era (just after the end of the Precambrian super
eon). However, there have been many recent findings of animal-like fossils and
"trace fossils" (fossils of an animal-like organisms movement) from
the late Precambrian. Which of the following best explains why it took so long
to realize there was animal-like life in the Precambrian?
A)
Animals from the late Precambrian had soft bodies.
B)
There were many hard-shelled animals in the Cambrian.
C)
The global climate was such that there was poor fossilization in the
Precambrian.
D)
There were very few animals during this period.
21)
Which of the following showed their greatest diversity during the Mesozoic era,
but were a small, less diverse group during the Paleozoic era?
A)
gymnosperms
B)
fungi
C)
flowering plants
D)
mammals
22)
Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order, from oldest to
most recent?
A)
Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous
B)
Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, Cretaceous
C)
Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, Cretaceous
D)
Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, Devonian
23)
You are the lucky student of a wacky professor who develops a time machine. He
asks if you will test it with him. You get in and there is an immediate
glitch–the date readout fails so that when you land you are not sure what era
you are in. Your professor begins to panic, but you see something that tells
you are in the Cenozoic era. Which of the following could it be?
A)
a rabbit eating a daisy
B)
a water lily floating in a pond
C)
masses of green ferns with dragonflies hovering above them
D)
a bee pollinating a flower
24)
You are the lucky student of a wacky professor who develops a time machine. He
asks if you will test it with him. You get in and there is an immediate
glitch–the date readout fails so that when you land you are not sure what era
you are in. As your time machine lands, you see an unusual landscape before
you. As you open the door you realize you cannot breathe. You quickly shut the
door, realizing you are in the _____.
A)
Archaean eon
B)
Cambrian period
C)
Cenozoic era
D)
Mesozoic era
25)
An early consequence of the release of oxygen gas by plant and bacterial
photosynthesis was to _____.
A)
change the atmosphere from oxidizing to reducing
B)
make it easier to maintain reduced molecules
C)
cause iron in ocean water and terrestrial rocks to rust (oxidize)
D)
prevent the formation of an ozone layer
26)
What is true of the Cambrian explosion?
A)
There are fossils of animals in geological strata that are older than the
Cambrian explosion.
B)
Only the fossils of microorganisms are found in geological strata older than
the Cambrian explosion.
C)
The Cambrian explosion is evidence for the instantaneous creation of life on
Earth.
D)
The Cambrian explosion marks the appearance of filter-feeding animals in the
fossil record.
27)
Which of the following characteristics are expected in the first animals to
have colonized land?
1. were
probably herbivores (ate photosynthesizers)
2. had
four appendages
3. had
the ability to resist dehydration
4. had
lobe-finned fishes as ancestors
5. were
invertebrates
A)
3 only
B)
3 and 5
C)
1, 3, and 5
D)
1, 2, 3, and 4
The
questions below refer to the following
paragraph.
A
sediment core is removed from the floor of an inland sea. The sea has been in
existence, off and on, throughout the entire time that terrestrial life has
existed. Researchers wish to locate and study the terrestrial organisms
fossilized in this core. The core is illustrated as a vertical column, with the
top of the column representing the most recent strata and the bottom
representing the time when land was first colonized by life.
28)
If arrows indicate locations in the column where fossils of a particular type
(see key above) first appear, then which core in the figure above has the most
accurate arrangement of fossils?
A)
core A
B)
core B
C)
core C
D)
core D
29)
Which factor most likely caused animals and plants in India to differ greatly
from species in nearby southeast Asia?
A)
The climates of the two regions are similar.
B)
India is in the process of separating from the rest of Asia.
C)
Life in India was wiped out by ancient volcanic eruptions.
D)
India was a separate continent until forty-five million years ago.
The
following questions refer to the description below.
All
animals with eyes or eyespots that have been studied so far share a gene in
common. When mutated, the gene Pax-6 causes lack of eyes in fruit
flies, tiny eyes in mice, and missing irises (and other eye parts) in humans.
The sequence of Pax-6 in humans and mice is identical. There are so few
sequence differences with fruit fly Pax-6 that the human/mouse version
can cause eye formation in eyeless fruit flies, even though vertebrates and
invertebrates last shared a common ancestor more than five hundred million
years ago.
30)
The appearance of Pax-6 in all animals with eyes can be explained in
multiple ways. Based on the information above, which explanation is most
likely?
A)
Pax-6 in all of these animals is not homologous; it arose independently
in many different animal phyla due to intense selective pressure favoring
vision.
B)
The Pax-6 gene is really not one gene. It is many different genes that,
over evolutionary time and due to convergence, have come to have a similar
nucleotide sequence and function.
C)
The Pax-6 gene was an innovation of an ancestral animal of the early
Cambrian period. Animals with eyes or eyespots are descendants of this
ancestor.
D)
The need for eyes has resulted in the separate evolution of Pax-6 genes.
31)
Fruit-fly eyes are of the compound type, which is structurally very different
from the camera-type eyes of mammals. Even the camera-type eyes of molluscs,
such as octopi, are structurally quite different from those of mammals. Yet,
fruit flies, octopi, and mammals possess very similar versions of Pax-6.
The fact that the same gene helps produce very different types of eyes is most
likely due to _____.
A)
the few differences in nucleotide sequence among the Pax-6 genes of
these organisms
B)
variations in the number of Pax-6 genes among these organisms
C)
the independent evolution of this gene at many different times during animal
evolution
D)
differences in the control of Pax-6 expression among these organisms
The
questions below refer to the following description and figure.
The
figure below represents a cross section of the sea floor through a mid-ocean
rift valley, with alternating patches of black and white indicating sea floor
with reversed magnetic polarities. At the arrow labeled "I" (the rift
valley), the igneous rock of the sea floor is so young that it can be
accurately dated using carbon-14 dating. At the arrow labeled "III,"
however, the igneous rock is about one million years old, and potassium-40
dating is typically used to date such rocks. Note: The horizontal arrows
indicate the direction of sea-floor spreading, away from the rift valley.
32)
Assuming that the rate of sea-floor spreading was constant during the
one-million-year period depicted above, on average Earth's magnetic field has
undergone reversal once every _____.
A)
25,000 years
B)
100,000 years
C)
250,000 years
D)
1,000,000 years
33)
How many other bands of sea-floor crust in the figure above have the same
magnetic polarity as the crust that directly straddles the rift valley?
A)
two bands
B)
four bands
C)
five bands
D)
eight bands
34)
Assuming that the rate of sea-floor spreading was constant during the
one-million-year period depicted above, what should be the approximate age of
marine fossils found in undisturbed sedimentary rock immediately overlying the
igneous rock at the arrow labeled "II"?
A)
10,000 years
B)
250,000 years
C)
500,000 years
D)
1,000,000 years
35)
The Permian period ended and then rapid speciation occurred as new animal and
plant forms evolved. The most likely explanation for this is _____.
I) adaptive
radiation
II) ecological
opportunity
III) lack
of competition
IV) morphological
innovation
A)
just one of the above
B)
two of the above
C)
three of the above
D)
all of the above
36)
What does the circled part of the phylogenetic tree above indicate?
A)
an adaptive radiation
B)
a mass extinction event
C)
rapid speciation
D)
an adaptive radiation and rapid speciation
37)
A hypothetical island lies far from any other landmasses. There are many
different types of plants, but only one animal, a beetle, that can fly or walk
from plant to plant and feeds by chewing leaves. Given that the beetle is not
exploiting all of the resources on the island, which morphological change would
be most likely to trigger an adaptive radiation of the beetles?
A)
a change in wing shape that improves flight speed
B)
an additional segment on a pair of legs
C)
a mouthpart that can pierce fruits and seeds
38)
On the basis of their morphologies, how might Linnaeus have classified the
Hawaiian silverswords? Linnaeus would have _____.
A)
placed them all in the same species.
B)
classified them the same way that modern botanists do.
C)
placed more of them in different genera than modern botanists do.
D)
used evolutionary relatedness as the primary criterion for their
classification.
39)
According to the theory of sea-floor spreading, oceanic islands, such as the
Hawaiian Islands depicted in the figure above, form as oceanic crustal plates
move over a stationary "hot spot" in the mantle. Currently, the big
island of Hawaii is thought to be over a hot spot, which is why it is the only
one of the seven large islands that has active volcanoes. What should be true
of the island of Hawaii?
1. Scientists
in search of ongoing speciation events are more likely to find them here than
on the other six large islands.
2. Its
species should be more closely related to those of nearer islands than to those
of farther islands.
3. It
should have a rich fossil record of terrestrial organisms.
4. It
should have species that are not found anywhere else on Earth.
5. On
average, it should have fewer species per unit surface area than the other six
islands.
A)
1, 2, and 3
B)
1, 2, and 5
C)
1, 2, 3, and 4
D)
1, 2, 4, and 5
40)
Hawaii is the most southeastern of the seven largest islands and is also
closest to the sea-floor spreading center from which the Pacific plate
originates, which lies about 5600 km further to the southeast. Assuming equal
sedimentation rates, what should be the location of the thickest sediment layer
and, thus, the area with the greatest diversity of fossils above the oceanic
crust?
A)
between the island of Hawaii and the sea-floor spreading center
B)
around the base of the island of Hawaii
C)
around the base of Kauai, the oldest of the large Hawaiian islands
D)
where the islands are most concentrated (highest number of islands per unit
surface area)
41)
Upon being formed, oceanic islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands, should
feature what characteristic, leading to which phenomenon?
A)
mass extinctions, leading to bottleneck effect
B)
major evolutionary innovations, leading to rafting to nearby continents
C)
a variety of empty ecological niches, leading to adaptive radiation
D)
adaptive radiation, leading to founder effect
Refer
to the following information to answer the question*s) below.
Fossils
of Lystrosaurus, a dicynodont therapsid, are most common in parts of
modern-day South America, South Africa, Madagascar, India, South Australia, and
Antarctica. The animal apparently lived in arid regions, and was mostly
herbivorous. It originated during the mid-Permian period, survived the Permian
extinction, and dwindled by the late Triassic, though there is evidence of a
relict population in Australia during the Cretaceous period. Some dicynodonts
had two large tusks, extending down from their upper jaws. The tusks were not
used for food gathering, and in some species were limited to males. Food was
gathered using an otherwise toothless beak. Judging from the fossil record in
sedimentary rocks, these pig-sized organisms were the most common mammal-like
reptiles of the Permian.
42)
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the modern-day
distribution of dicynodont fossils? The dicynodonts were_____.
A)
carnivores that traveled widely to find prey
B)
evenly distributed throughout all of Pangaea
C)
most abundantly distributed throughout Gondwanaland
D)
amphibious and able to swim long distances
43)
If an organism has a relatively large number of Hox genes in its genome,
it most likely _____.
A)
has Hox genes expressed in all cells of its body
B)
has multiple paired appendages along the length of its body
C)
has a relatively complex anatomy
D)
belongs to one of the first groups to evolve on Earth
44)
Bagworm moth caterpillars feed on evergreens and carry a silken case or bag
around with them in which they eventually pupate. Adult female bagworm moths
are larval in appearance; they lack the wings and other structures of the adult
male and instead retain the appearance of a caterpillar even though they are
sexually mature and can lay eggs within the bag. This is a good example of
_____.
A)
allometric growth
B)
paedomorphosis
C)
sympatric speciation
D)
adaptive radiation
45)
The loss of ventral spines by modern freshwater sticklebacks is due to natural
selection operating on the phenotypic effects of Pitx1 gene _____.
A)
duplication (gain in number)
B)
elimination (loss)
C)
mutation (change)
D)
silencing (loss of expression)
The
following questions refer to this hypothetical situation.
A
female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far
out to sea. She is the first fly to arrive on this island and the only fly to
arrive in this way. Thousands of years later, her numerous offspring occupy the
island, but none of them resembles her. There are, instead, several species,
each of which eats only a certain type of food. None of the species can fly and
their balancing organs (halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male
members of each species bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to
their species. Females bear vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the
daughter species overlap.
46)
In each fly species, the entire body segment that gave rise to the original
flight wings is missing. The mutation(s) that led to the flightless condition
could have _____.
A)
duplicated all of the Hox genes in these flies' genomes
B)
resulted in paedomorphosis
C)
altered the expression of a Hox gene
D)
originated in another species
47)
A genetic change that caused a certain Hox gene to be expressed along
the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back helped make possible
the evolution of the tetrapod limb. This type of change is illustrative of
_____.
A)
the influence of environment on development
B)
paedomorphosis
C)
a change in a developmental gene or its regulation that altered the spatial
organization of body parts
D)
heterochrony
48)
The duplication of homeotic (Hox) genes has been significant in the
evolution of animals because it _____.
A)
permitted the evolution of novel forms
B)
caused the extinction of major groups
C)
reduced morphological diversity into simpler forms of life
D)
allowed animals to survive on significantly fewer calories
49)
Why would gene duplication events, such as those seen in the Hox gene
complex, set the stage for adaptive radiation?
A)
There are more copies of genes, meaning speciation had occurred by polyploidy.
B)
The original gene copy is the outgroup, and the new gene copies are the
adaptive radiation.
C)
Without duplicated genes, species would be vulnerable to extinction.
D)
One copy of a gene can perform the original function, while other copies are
available to take on new functions.
50)
All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation EXCEPT _____.
A)
an unusual event splitting a habitat, such as a severe hurricane
B)
the evolution of a new morphological feature
C)
the extinction of competitors
D)
Hox gene duplication events
The
following questions refer to the description below.
All
animals with eyes or eyespots that have been studied so far share a gene in
common. When mutated, the gene Pax-6 causes lack of eyes in fruit
flies, tiny eyes in mice, and missing irises (and other eye parts) in humans.
The sequence of Pax-6 in humans and mice is identical. There are so few
sequence differences with fruit fly Pax-6 that the human/mouse version
can cause eye formation in eyeless fruit flies, even though vertebrates and
invertebrates last shared a common ancestor more than five hundred million
years ago.
51)
Pax-6 usually causes the production of a type of light-receptor pigment.
In vertebrate eyes, though, a different gene (the rh gene family) is
responsible for the light-receptor pigments of the retina. The rh gene,
like Pax-6, is ancient. In the marine ragworm, for example, the rh
gene causes production of c-opsin, which helps regulate the worm's biological
clock. Which of the following most likely accounts for vertebrate vision?
A)
The Pax-6 gene mutated to become the rh gene among early mammals.
B)
During vertebrate evolution, the rh gene for biological clock opsin was
co-opted as a gene for visual receptor pigments.
C)
In animals more ancient than ragworms, the rh gene(s) coded for visual
receptor pigments; in lineages more recent than ragworms, rh has
flip-flopped several times between producing biological clock opsins and visual
receptor pigments.
D)
Pax-6 was lost from the mammalian genome, and replaced by the rh
gene much later.
52)
A swim bladder is a gas-filled sac that helps fish maintain buoyancy. The
evolution of the swim bladder from lungs of an ancestral fish is an example of
_____.
A)
exaptation
B)
changes in Hox gene expression
C)
paedomorphosis
D)
adaptive radiation
53)
Which of the following is a limit of evolution that results in exaptations?
A)
Natural selection and sexual selection can work at cross-purposes to each
other.
B)
Evolution is limited by historical constraints.
C)
Adaptations are often compromises.
D)
Chance events affect the evolutionary history of populations in environments
that can change unpredictably.
54)
Insect wings may have begun to evolve as lateral extensions of the body that
were used as heat dissipaters for thermoregulation. When they had become
sufficiently large, these extensions became useful for gliding through the air.
Additional selection refined them as flight-producing wings. If this hypothesis
is correct, modern insect wings would be an example of _____.
A)
the loss of Hox genes in the evolution of new form
B)
mutations
C)
an exaptation
D)
an adaptive radiation
55)
If one organ is an exaptation of another organ, then these two organs _____.
A)
are homologous
B)
are undergoing convergent evolution
C)
are found in the same species
D)
have the same function
56)
Many species of snakes lay eggs. However, in the forests of northern Minnesota,
where growing seasons are short, only live-bearing snake species are present.
This trend toward species that have live birth in a particular environment is
an example of _____.
A)
an exaptation
B)
sexual selection
C)
species selection
D)
goal direction in evolution
57)
The existence of evolutionary trends, such as increasing body sizes among horse
species, is evidence that _____.
A)
a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is adaptive in many mammals
B)
evolution generally progresses toward some goal
C)
evolution tends toward increased complexity or increased size
D)
in particular environments, similar adaptations can be beneficial to more than
one species
The
following questions are based on the observation that several dozen different
proteins comprise the prokaryotic flagellum and its attachment to the
prokaryotic cell, producing a highly complex structure.
58)
If the complex protein assemblage of the prokaryotic flagellum arose by the
same general processes as those of the complex eyes of molluscs (such as squids
and octopi), then _____.
A)
natural selection cannot account for the rise of the prokaryotic flagellum
B)
ancestral versions of this protein assemblage were either less functional or
had different functions than modern prokaryotic flagella
C)
neither eyes nor flagella could have arisen by evolution because both are too
complex to have evolved
D)
the need for more complex structure must have driven evolution
59)
Certain proteins of the complex motor that drives bacterial flagella are
modified versions of proteins that had previously belonged to plasma membrane
pumps. This evidence supports the claim that _____.
A)
natural selection produces organs that will be needed in future environments
B)
the motors of bacterial flagella must have originated in other organisms
C)
natural selection can produce new structures by coupling together parts of other
structures
D)
bacteria that possess flagella must have lost the ability to pump certain
chemicals across their plasma membranes
The
following questions refer to this hypothetical situation.
A
female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far
out to sea. She is the first fly to arrive on this island and the only fly to
arrive in this way. Thousands of years later, her numerous offspring occupy the
island, but none of them resembles her. There are, instead, several species, each
of which eats only a certain type of food. None of the species can fly and
their balancing organs (halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male
members of each species bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to
their species. Females bear vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the
daughter species overlap.
60)
Which of these fly organs, as they exist in the description above, best
illustrates an exaptation?
A)
vestigial halteres
B)
halteres
C)
mouthparts
D)
eggs
61)
One hypothesis that has been proposed regarding the origin of life suggests
that life evolved from an "RNA world" to today’s "DNA
world." Considering the properties of RNA and DNA molecules, which
questions would direct an investigation of the most insightful test(s) of this
hypothesis?
A)
Is it likely that RNA molecules functioned as ribozymes to synthesize DNA from
amino acids, and that this role was reversed when DNA became the information
source?
B)
Is it likely that simple, yet stable RNA molecules served as a primitive
precursor to a less stable DNA molecule that was more capable of storing more
information?
C)
Could RNA have provided a template for DNA assembly, thereby enabling a more
stable molecule that is replicated more accurately?
D)
Since ribozymes could freely enter and leave the vesicles, could these
molecules have brought external DNA into the cell as a less stable, but more
reliable storage molecule of double-stranded DNA?
62)
Endosymbiosis is an evolutionary theory that explains the origin of eukaryotes
and suggests a specific order in which this might have occurred. Ancestral
cells engulfed and then began to use the metabolic processes of the smaller
cells. Based on shared core processes and features, which statement most
accurately describes the order, the theory and the evolutionary implications
for all organisms within domain Eukarya?
A)
Ancestral heterotrophic eukaryotes most likely engulfed both a heterotrophic
and an autotrophic prokaryote, whereas ancestral photosynthetic eukaryotes
probably provided the host cell for the first mitochondria. Over time, natural
selection favored these relationships and these cells became ancestors of all
eukaryotes.
B)
All ancestral eukaryotes would have most likely consumed a nucleus-like
prokaryote that eventually became the eukaryotic nucleus. These new eukaryotic
cells would have had an advantage over prokaryotic cells by acquiring a nuclear
command center for regulating cellular activities.
C)
As carbon dioxide levels were increasing over time, natural selection would
have favored organisms that acquired a photosynthetic prokaryote to convert
carbon dioxide into sugars. These would have likely been the first eukaryotic
cells. At which point, these ancestral cells engulfed mitochondria-like
prokaryotes that would have provided an even greater advantage for cells in
this environment.
D)
As Earth was becoming more aerobic, mitochondria would have provided an
advantage to host cells by converting "toxic" oxygen into energy for
heterotrophic cells. Since mitochondria are found in all eukaryotes, these
combinations likely evolved first. Photosynthetic eukaryotes probably acquired
an autotrophic prokaryote, which developed an advantageous symbiotic
relationship with the host cell.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 26
Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
The questions below refer to the
following phylogenetic trees.
I. II.
III. IV.
1)
Which tree depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the ascomycetes?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
IV
2)
Which tree depicts the closest relationship between zygomycetes and chytrids?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
IV
3)
Which tree depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the fungi, rather
than as a fungus?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
IV
4)
In the phylogenetic trees above, numbers represent species and the same species
are shown in both trees. Which two species are represented as sister species in
Tree 2 but are not shown as sister species in Tree 1?
A)
1 and 2
B)
2 and 3
C)
3 and 4
D)
4 and 5
5)
The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is
the result of _____.
A)
their common ancestor having been legless
B)
a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees) lifestyle
C)
several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other
D)
individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows) lifestyle during
their lifetimes
6)
The various taxonomic levels (for example, phyla, genera, classes) of the
hierarchical classification system differ from each other on the basis of
_____.
A)
how widely the organisms assigned to each are distributed throughout the
environment
B)
their inclusiveness
C)
the relative genome sizes of the organisms assigned to each
D)
morphological characters that are applicable to all organisms
7)
If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and
if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families,
which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the
greatest degree of structural homology?
A)
A and D
B)
B and D
C)
B and C
D)
D and E
8)
Linnaeus believed that species remained fixed in the form in which they had
been created. Linnaeus would have been uncomfortable with _____.
A)
a hierarchical classification scheme
B)
taxonomy
C)
phylogenies
D)
nested, increasingly inclusive categories of organisms
9)
The best classification system is that which most closely _____.
A)
unites organisms that possess similar morphologies
B)
conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices
C)
reflects evolutionary history
D)
reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes
10)
Based on this tree, which statement is NOT correct?
A)
The salamander lineage is a basal taxon.
B)
Salamanders are a sister group to the group containing lizards, goats, and
humans.
C)
Salamanders are as closely related to goats as to humans.
D)
Lizards are more closely related to salamanders than to humans.
11)
We know the streamlined bodies shown in the figure above are examples of
homoplasy. If the following groups also had streamlined bodies, which of the
groupings would give the most support to this body type being homologous?
A)
lizards and elephants
B)
pterosaurs, dinosaurs, and birds
C)
synapsids, monotremes, marsupials, rodents, and primates
D)
lizards, pterosaurs, dinosaurs, birds, synapsids, monotremes, marsupials,
rodents, and primates
12)
Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like
male deer do. The existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with
strong male-male competition is an example of _____.
A)
convergent evolution
B)
a synapomorphy
C)
homology
D)
parsimony
13)
The term homoplasy is most applicable to which of the following
features?
A)
the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
B)
the five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings
C)
the fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles
D)
the bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs
14)
If, someday, an archaean cell is discovered whose rRNA sequence is more similar
to that of humans than the sequence of mouse rRNA is to that of humans, the
best explanation for this apparent discrepancy would be _____.
A)
homology
B)
homoplasy
C)
common ancestry
D)
retro-evolution by humans
15)
Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures?
A)
bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
B)
owl wing and hornet wing
C)
bat wing and bird wing
D)
eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole
16)
Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but
place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). If the molecular
data best reflect the evolutionary history of these two groups, then the
morphological similarities of these two species is most likely due to _____.
A)
the inheritance of acquired characteristics
B)
sexual selection
C)
possession of analogous (convergent) traits
D)
possession of shared primitive characters
17)
The importance of computers and of computer software to modern cladistics is
most closely linked to advances in _____.
A)
light microscopy
B)
radiometric dating
C)
fossil discovery techniques
D)
molecular genetics
18)
The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) reptiles,
which almost certainly possessed three-chambered hearts (two atria, one
ventricle). Birds and mammals, however, are alike in having four-chambered
hearts (two atria, two ventricles). The four-chambered hearts of birds and
mammals are best described as _____.
A)
structural homologies
B)
vestiges
C)
homoplasies
D)
the result of shared ancestry
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Giardia
intestinalis
can cause disease in several different mammalian species, including humans.
Giardia organisms (G. intestinalis) that infect humans are similar
morphologically to those that infect other mammals; thus they have been
considered a single species. However, G. intestinalis has been divided
into different subgroups based on their host and a few other characteristics.
In
1999, a DNA sequence comparison study tested the hypothesis that these
subgroups actually constitute different species. The following phylogenetic
tree was constructed from the sequence comparison of rRNA from several
subgroups of G. intestinalis and a few other morphologically distinct
species of Giardia. The researchers concluded that the subgroups of Giardia
are sufficiently different from one another genetically that they could be
considered different species. (T. Monis et al. 1999. Molecular systematics of
the parasitic protozoan Giardia intestinalis. Mol. Biol. Evol.
16[9]:1135-44.)
19)
According to the phylogenetic tree in the figure above, G. intestinalis
constitutes a _____ group.
A)
paraphyletic
B)
monophyletic
C)
polyphyletic
20)
By examining the phylogenetic tree diagrammed in the figure above, what
conclusion can you draw about the species G. microti?
A)
It evolved before G. intestinalis.
B)
It is more closely related to G. muris than to G. intestinalis.
C)
It should not be labeled a species distinct from G. intestinalis.
D)
It is part of a monophyletic group that also includes G. intestinalis.
21)
Refer to the figure above. Which of the following forms a monophyletic group?
A)
A, B, C, D
B)
C and D
C)
D, E, and F
D)
E, F, and G
22)
Which of the following trees, if any, depicts the same relationship among
species as shown above?
A)
B)
C)
23)
Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a
taxon?
I) morphological
data from fossil species
II) genetic
sequences from living species
III) behavioral
data from living species
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
I, II, and III
24)
Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids. She gives
you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily. What is the most likely
reason she gave you the lily?
A)
to serve as an outgroup
B)
to see if the lily is a cryptic orchid species
C)
to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters
(synapomorphies)
D)
to demonstrate likely homoplasies
25)
Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for applying the
principle of parsimony in constructing phylogenetic trees?
A)
Parsimony allows the researcher to "root" the tree.
B)
Similarity due to common ancestry should be more common than similarity due to
convergent evolution.
C)
The molecular clock validates the principle of parsimony.
D)
The outgroup roots the tree, allowing the principle of parsimony to be applied.
26)
Applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly,"
which of the two phylogenetic trees above is better?
A)
Tree 1
B)
Tree 2
C)
Both trees are equally parsimonious.
D)
Since the trees show different evolutionary relationships, you cannot determine
which is more parsimonious.
27)
Which of the following statements is true about a phylogeny, as represented by
a phylogenetic tree?
I) Descendant
groups (branches) from the same node do not necessarily share any derived
characters.
II) A
monophyletic group can be properly based on convergent features.
III) The
ancestral group often has all the synapomorphies of the descendant species.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
None. Not I, II, or III.
28)
Given that phylogenies are based on shared derived characteristics, which of
the following traits is useful in generating a phylogeny of species W, X, Y,
and Z?
|
|
Species W
|
Species X
|
Species Y
|
Species Z
|
|
Trait
1
|
A
|
A
|
A
|
A
|
|
Trait
2
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
B
|
|
Trait
3
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
A)
Trait 1
B)
Trait 2
C)
Trait 3
D)
Traits 1, 2, and 3
29)
Which of the following is (are) problematic when the goal is to construct
phylogenies that accurately reflect evolutionary history?
A)
polyphyletic taxa
B)
paraphyletic taxa
C)
monophyletic taxa
D)
polyphyletic taxa and paraphyletic taxa
30)
Phylogenetic trees constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are
based on similarities in _____.
A)
morphology
B)
the pattern of embryological development
C)
biochemical pathways
D)
mutations to homologous genes
31)
There is some evidence that reptiles called cynodonts may have had whisker-like
hairs around their mouths. If true, then hair is a shared _____.
A)
derived character of mammals, even if cynodonts continue to be classified as
reptiles
B)
derived character of the amniote clade and not of the mammal clade
C)
ancestral character of the amniote clade, but only if cynodonts are
reclassified as mammals
D)
derived character of mammals, but only if cynodonts are reclassified as mammals
Use
the figure below to answer the following question(s).
32)
Which extinct species should be the best candidate to serve as the outgroup for
the clade whose common ancestor occurs at position 2 in the figure above?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
E
33)
If the figure above is an accurate depiction of relatedness, then which of the
following should be correct?
1. The
entire tree is based on maximum parsimony.
2. If
all species depicted here make up a taxon, this taxon is monophyletic.
3. The
last common ancestor of species B and C occurred more recently than the last
common ancestor of species D and E.
4. Species
A is the direct ancestor of both species B and species C.
5. The
species present at position 3 is ancestral to C, D, and E.
A)
1 and 3
B)
3 and 4
C)
2, 3, and 4
D)
1, 2, and 3
Use
the following figure and description to answer the question(s) below.
Humans,
chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans are members of a clade called the great
apes, which shared a common ancestor about fifteen million years ago. Gibbons
and siamangs comprise a clade called the lesser apes. Tree-branch lengths
indicate elapsed time.
34)
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans
from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect
of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes _____.
A)
polyphyletic
B)
paraphyletic
C)
monophyletic
D)
into a new order
The
questions below refer to the following table, which compares the % sequence
homology of four different parts (two introns and two exons) of a gene that is
found in five different eukaryotic species. Each part is numbered to indicate
its distance from the promoter (for example, Intron I is the one closest to the
promoter). The data reported for species A were obtained by comparing DNA from
one member of species A to another member of species A.
%
Sequence Homology
|
Species
|
Intron I
|
Exon I
|
Intron VI
|
Exon V
|
|
A
|
100%
|
100%
|
100%
|
100%
|
|
B
|
98%
|
99%
|
82%
|
96%
|
|
C
|
98%
|
99%
|
89%
|
96%
|
|
D
|
99%
|
99%
|
92%
|
97%
|
|
E
|
98%
|
99%
|
80%
|
94%
|
35) Based on the tabular data, and
assuming that time advances vertically, which phylogenetic tree is the most
likely depiction of the evolutionary relationships among these five species?
A)
B)
C)
D)
36)
Regarding these sequence homology data, the principle of maximum parsimony
would be applicable in _____.
A)
distinguishing introns from exons
B)
determining degree of sequence homology
C)
selecting appropriate genes for comparison among species
D)
inferring evolutionary relatedness from the number of sequence differences
37)
In a comparison of birds and mammals, having four limbs is _____.
A)
a shared ancestral character
B)
a shared derived character
C)
a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals
D)
an example of analogy rather than homology
38)
To apply parsimony to constructing a phylogenetic tree, _____.
A)
choose the tree that assumes all evolutionary changes are equally probable
B)
choose the tree in which the branch points are based on as many shared derived
characters as possible
C)
choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNA
sequences or morphology
D)
choose the tree with the fewest branch points
39)
If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, which of the
following would be the best outgroup?
A)
lion
B)
domestic cat
C)
wolf
D)
leopard
40)
Based upon the figure above, the phylogenetic tree _____.
1. depicts
uncertainty about whether the bryophytes or the vascular plants evolved first
2. depicts
an evolutionary hypothesis
3. includes
polytomies
4. shows
that members of the phylum Pterophyta are the closest living relatives to the
seed plants
5. indicates
that seeds are a shared ancestral character of all vascular plants
A)
1 and 2
B)
2 and 3
C)
1, 2, and 3
D)
1, 2, and 4
41)
Which value(s) would be required to calculate how long ago the most recent
ancestor of ungulates lived?
I) the
number of base pairs that differ among species in a certain genetic sequence
II) the
total number of base pairs in the genetic sequence examined
III) the
age of a fossil ancestor for calibration
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
I, II, and III
42)
Concerning growth in genome size over evolutionary time, which of these is
LEAST associated with the others?
A)
orthologous genes
B)
gene duplications
C)
paralogous genes
D)
gene families
43)
Eukaryotes that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical
similarities can still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by
comparing their _____.
A)
plasmids
B)
mitochondrial genomes
C)
homologous genes that are poorly conserved
D)
homologous genes that are highly conserved
44)
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA
would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of _____.
A)
archaeans and bacteria
B)
fungi and animals
C)
chimpanzees and humans
D)
sharks and dolphins
45)
The lakes of northern Minnesota are home to many similar species of damselflies
of the genus Enallagma. These species have apparently undergone
speciation from ancestral stock since the last glacial retreat about ten
thousand years ago. Sequencing which of the following would probably be most
useful in sorting out evolutionary relationships among these closely related
species?
A)
conserved regions of nuclear DNA
B)
mitochondrial DNA
C)
amino acids in proteins
D)
ribosomal RNA
46)
Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the
nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence
homology? Dogs and wolves _____.
A)
have very similar morphologies
B)
belong to the same order
C)
are both members of the order Carnivora
D)
share a very recent common ancestor
47)
The reason that paralogous genes can diverge from each other within the same
gene pool, whereas orthologous genes diverge only after gene pools are isolated
from each other, is that _____.
A)
having multiple copies of genes is essential for the occurrence of sympatric
speciation in the wild
B)
paralogous genes can occur only in diploid species; thus, they are absent from
most prokaryotes
C)
polyploidy is a necessary precondition for the occurrence of sympatric
speciation in the wild
D)
having an extra copy of a gene permits modifications to the copy without loss
of the original gene product
48)
Which of the following items is LEAST likely to form a simple linear
relationship with the number of gene-duplication events, when placed as the
label on the vertical axis of the following graph?
A)
number of genes
B)
number of DNA base pairs
C)
genome size
D)
phenotypic complexity
49)
The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is
_____.
A)
a large number of base pairs
B)
being acted upon by natural selection
C)
a reliable average rate of mutation
D)
a recent origin by a gene-duplication event
50)
Neutral theory proposes that _____.
A)
molecular clocks are more reliable when the surrounding pH is close to 7.0
B)
most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional
effect
C)
DNA is less susceptible to mutation when it codes for amino acid sequences
whose side groups (or R-groups) have a neutral pH
D)
a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection
51)
Which of the following would, if it had acted upon a gene, prevent this gene
from acting as a reliable molecular clock?
A)
neutral mutations
B)
genetic drift
C)
mutations within introns
D)
natural selection
The
questions below refer to the following table, which compares the % sequence
homology of four different parts (two introns and two exons) of a gene that is
found in five different eukaryotic species. Each part is numbered to indicate
its distance from the promoter (for example, Intron I is the one closest to the
promoter). The data reported for species A were obtained by comparing DNA from
one member of species A to another member of species A.
%
Sequence Homology
|
Species
|
Intron I
|
Exon I
|
Intron VI
|
Exon V
|
|
A
|
100%
|
100%
|
100%
|
100%
|
|
B
|
98%
|
99%
|
82%
|
96%
|
|
C
|
98%
|
99%
|
89%
|
96%
|
|
D
|
99%
|
99%
|
92%
|
97%
|
|
E
|
98%
|
99%
|
80%
|
94%
|
52)
Which of these four gene parts should allow the construction of the most
accurate phylogenetic tree, assuming that this is the only part of the gene
that has acted as a reliable molecular clock?
A)
Intron I
B)
Exon I
C)
Intron VI
D)
Exon V
53)
Based on cladistics, which eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and, therefore,
unacceptable?
A)
Plantae
B)
Fungi
C)
Animalia
D)
Protista
54)
Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of endosymbioses
that included an ancient aerobic bacterium and an ancient cyanobacterium?
A)
Plantae
B)
Fungi
C)
Animalia
D)
Protista
55)
A large proportion of archaeans are extremophiles, so called because
they inhabit extreme environments with high acidity, salinity, and/or
temperature. Such environments are thought to have been much more common on the
primitive Earth. Thus, modern extremophiles survive only in places that their
ancestors became adapted to long ago. Which of the following is, consequently,
a valid statement about modern extremophiles, assuming that their habitats have
remained relatively unchanged?
A)
Among themselves, they should share relatively few ancestral traits, especially
those that enabled ancestral forms to adapt to extreme conditions.
B)
On a phylogenetic tree whose branch lengths are proportional to the amount of
genetic change, the branches of the extremophiles should be shorter than the
non-extremophilic archaeans.
C)
They should contain genes that originated in eukaryotes that are the hosts for
numerous species of bacteria.
D)
They should currently be undergoing a high level of horizontal gene transfer
with non-extremophilic archaeans.
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Paulinella
chromatophora
is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic
photosynthesis with its two elongated "chromatophores." The
chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is
derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that
gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.
56)
A crucial photosynthetic gene of the cyanobacterium that gave rise to the
chromatophore is called psaE. This gene is present in the nuclear genome
of the cercozoan, but is not in the genome of the chromatophore. This is
evidence of _____.
A)
reciprocal mutations in the chromatophore and nuclear genomes
B)
horizontal gene transfer from bacterium to eukaryotes
C)
genetic recombination involving a protist and an archaean
D)
transduction by a phage that infects both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
57)
What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes
to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to
the same kingdom?
A)
mtDNA
B)
rRNA genes
C)
morphological
D)
ecological
The
following questions refer to this phylogenetic tree, depicting the origins of
life and of the three domains. Horizontal lines indicate instances of gene or
genome transfer.
A
possible phylogenetic tree for the three domains of life.
58)
If the early history of life on Earth is accurately depicted by the figure
above, then which statement is most in agreement with the hypothesis proposed
by this tree?
A)
The last universal common ancestor of all extant species is one individual
species.
B)
The origin of the three domains appears as a polytomy.
C)
Archaean genomes should not contain genes that originated in bacteria, and vice
versa.
D)
Eukaryotes are more closely related to archaeans than to bacteria.
59)
Which of these processes can be included among those responsible for the
horizontal components of the figure above?
A)
endosymbiosis
B)
mitosis
C)
binary fission
D)
point mutations
60)
Which portion of the figure above may ultimately be better depicted as a
"ring"?
A)
the bacterial lineage
B)
the archaean lineage
C)
the eukaryotic lineage
D)
the trunk of the tree
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 27 Bacteria
and Archaea
1)
The predatory bacterium Bdellovibrio bacteriophorus drills into a prey
bacterium and, once inside, digests it. In an attack upon a Gram-negative
bacterium that has a slimy cell covering, what is the correct sequence of
structures penetrated by B. bacteriophorus on its way to the prey's
cytoplasm?
1. membrane
composed mostly of lipopolysaccharide
2. membrane
composed mostly of phospholipids
3. peptidoglycan
4. capsule
A)
2, 4, 3, 1
B)
1, 3, 4, 2
C)
1, 4, 3, 2
D)
4, 1, 3, 2
2)
Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foods with high sugar content hardly
ever become contaminated by bacteria, even when the food containers are left
open at room temperature. This is because bacteria that encounter such an
environment ____.
A)
undergo death as a result of water loss from the cell
B)
are unable to metabolize the glucose or fructose, and thus starve to death
C)
are obligate anaerobes
D)
are unable to swim through these thick and viscous materials
Use
the information in the following paragraph to answer the question(s) below.
A
hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a
suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining
using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and
dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives
can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The
bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It
contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.
3)
This bacterium's ability to survive in a human who is taking penicillin pills
may be due to the presence of _____.
1. penicillin-resistance
genes
2. a
secretory system that removes penicillin from the cell
3. a
Gram-positive cell wall
4. a
Gram-negative cell wall
5. an
endospore
A)
1 or 5
B)
2 or 3
C)
4 or 5
D)
2, 4, or 5
4)
Adherence to the intestinal lining by this bacterium is due to its possession of
_____.
A)
fimbriae
B)
pili
C)
a capsule
D)
a flagellum
5)
What should be true of the cell wall of this bacterium?
A)
Its innermost layer is composed of a phospholipid bilayer.
B)
After it has been subjected to Gram staining, the cell should remain purple.
C)
It has an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide.
D)
It is mostly composed of a complex, cross-linked polysaccharide.
6)
In which feature(s) should one be able to locate a complete chromosome of this
bacterium?
1. nucleolus
2. prophage
3. endospore
4. nucleoid
A)
4 only
B)
1 and 3
C)
2 and 3
D)
3 and 4
The
following table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use
the information in the table to answer the question(s) below
|
Trait
|
Species
A
|
Species
B
|
Species
C
|
Species
D
|
Species
E
|
|
Plasmid
|
R
|
None
|
R
|
F
|
None
|
|
Gram
Staining Results
|
Variable
|
Variable
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
|
Nutritional
Mode
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemoauto-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Photoautotroph
|
|
Specialized
Metabolic Pathways
|
Aerobic
methanotroph
(obtains
carbon and energy from methane)
|
Anaerobic
methanogen
|
Anaerobic
butanolic fermentation
|
Anaerobic
lactic acid fermentation
|
Anaerobic
nitrogen fixation and aerobic photosystems
I
and II
|
|
Other
Features
|
Fimbriae
|
Internal
membranes
|
Flagellum
|
Pili
|
Thylakoids
|
7)
Which two species should have much more phospholipid, in the form of bilayers,
in their cytoplasms than most other bacteria?
A)
species A and B
B)
species A and C
C)
species B and E
D)
species C and D
8)
Which species are capable of directed movement?
A)
species A
B)
species B
C)
species C
D)
species D
9)
How many of these species probably have a cell wall that consists partly of an
outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide?
A)
only one species
B)
two species
C)
three species
D)
four species
10)
Which of the following observations about flagella is true and is consistent
with the scientific conclusion that the flagella from protists and bacteria
evolved independently?
A)
The flagella of both protists and bacteria are made of the same protein, but
the configuration is different.
B)
The mechanics of movement and protein structure are the same in these flagella,
but there are significant genetic differences.
C)
Although the mechanism of movement in both flagella is the same, the protein
that accomplishes the movement is different.
D)
The protein structure and the mechanism of movement in protist flagella are
different from those of bacteria flagella.
11)
In a bacterium that possesses antibiotic resistance and the potential to
persist through very adverse conditions, such as freezing, drying, or high
temperatures, DNA should be located within, or be part of, which structures?
1. nucleoid
region
2. endospore
3. fimbriae
4. plasmids
A)
1 and 2 only
B)
1 and 4 only
C)
2 and 4 only
D)
1, 2, and 4
12)
If a bacterium regenerates from an endospore that did not possess any of the
plasmids that were contained in its original parent cell, the regenerated
bacterium will probably also _____.
A)
lack antibiotic-resistant genes
B)
lack a cell wall
C)
lack a chromosome
D)
lack water in its cytoplasm
13)
Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that targets prokaryotic (70S) ribosomes, but
not eukaryotic (80S) ribosomes. Which of these questions stems from this
observation, plus an understanding of eukaryotic origins?
A)
Can chloramphenicol also be used to control human diseases that are caused by
archaeans?
B)
Can chloramphenicol pass through the capsules possessed by many cyanobacteria?
C)
If chloramphenicol inhibits prokaryotic ribosomes, should it not also inhibit
mitochondrial ribosomes?
D)
Why aren't prokaryotic ribosomes identical to eukaryotic ribosomes?
The
following questions refer to the figure below.
In
this eight-year experiment, twelve populations of E. coli, each begun
from a single cell, were grown in low-glucose conditions for 20,000
generations. Each culture was introduced to fresh growth medium every
twenty-four hours. Occasionally, samples were removed from the populations, and
their fitness in low-glucose conditions was tested against that of members
sampled from the ancestral (common ancestor) E. coli population.
14)
If new genetic variation in the experimental populations arose solely by
spontaneous mutations, then the most effective process for subsequently
increasing the prevalence of the beneficial mutations in the population over
the course of generations is _____.
A)
transduction
B)
binary fission
C)
conjugation
D)
transformation
Use
the following information and graph to answer the question(s) below.
The
figure below depicts changes to the amount of DNA present in a recipient cell
that is engaged in conjugation with an Hfr cell. Hfr cell DNA begins entering
the recipient cell at Time A. Assume that reciprocal crossing over occurs (in
other words, a fragment of the recipient's chromosome is exchanged for a
homologous fragment from the Hfr cell's DNA).
15)
What is occurring at Time C that is decreasing the DNA content?
A)
crossing over
B)
cytokinesis
C)
degradation of DNA that was not retained in the recipient's chromosome
D)
reversal of the direction of conjugation
16)
How is the recipient cell different at Time D than it was at Time A?
A)
It has a greater number of genes.
B)
It has a greater mass of DNA.
C)
It has a different sequence of base pairs.
D)
It contains bacteriophage DNA.
17)
Which two processes are responsible for the shape of the curve at Time B?
1. transduction
2. entry
of single-stranded Hfr DNA
3. rolling
circle replication of single-stranded Hfr DNA
4. activation
of DNA pumps in plasma membrane
A)
1 and 2
B)
1 and 4
C)
2 and 3
D)
3 and 4
18)
During which two times can the recipient accurately be described as
"recombinant" due to the sequence of events portrayed in the figure?
A)
during Times C and D
B)
during Times A and C
C)
during Times A and B
D)
during Times B and D
Use
the information in the following paragraph to answer the question(s) below.
A
hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a
suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining
using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and
dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives
can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The
bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It
contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.
19)
The cell also lacks F factors and F plasmids. Upon its death, this bacterium
should be able to participate in _____.
A)
conjugation
B)
transduction
C)
transformation
D)
conjugation and transduction
The
following table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use
the information in the table to answer the question(s) below
|
Trait
|
Species
A
|
Species
B
|
Species
C
|
Species
D
|
Species
E
|
|
Plasmid
|
R
|
None
|
R
|
F
|
None
|
|
Gram
Staining Results
|
Variable
|
Variable
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
|
Nutritional
Mode
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemoauto-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Photoautotroph
|
|
Specialized
Metabolic Pathways
|
Aerobic
methanotroph
(obtains
carbon and energy from methane)
|
Anaerobic
methanogen
|
Anaerobic
butanolic fermentation
|
Anaerobic
lactic acid fermentation
|
Anaerobic
nitrogen fixation and aerobic photosystems
I
and II
|
|
Other
Features
|
Fimbriae
|
Internal
membranes
|
Flagellum
|
Pili
|
Thylakoids
|
20)
Species D is pathogenic if it gains access to the human intestine. Which other
species, if it coinhabited a human intestine along with species D, is most
likely to result in a recombinant species that is both pathogenic and resistant
to some antibiotics?
A)
species A
B)
species B
C)
species C
D)
species E
21)
Which species might be able to include Hfr cells?
A)
species A
B)
species B
C)
species C
D)
species D
The
following questions refer to the figure below.
In
this eight-year experiment, twelve populations of E. coli, each begun
from a single cell, were grown in low-glucose conditions for 20,000
generations. Each culture was introduced to fresh growth medium every
twenty-four hours. Occasionally, samples were removed from the populations, and
their fitness in low-glucose conditions was tested against that of members
sampled from the ancestral (common ancestor) E. coli population.
22)
Which term best describes what has occurred among the experimental populations
of cells over this eight-year period?
A)
microevolution
B)
speciation
C)
adaptive radiation
D)
stabilizing selection
23)
Compare the bacteria in the figure above in generation 1 and generation 20,000.
The bacteria in generation 1 have a greater _____.
A)
efficiency at exporting glucose from the cell to the environment
B)
ability to survive on simple sugars, other than glucose
C)
ability to synthesize glucose from amino acid precursors
D)
reliance on glycolytic enzymes
24)
If the vertical axis of the figure above refers to relative fitness, then which
of the following is the most valid and accurate measure of fitness?
A)
number of daughter cells produced per mother cell per generation
B)
average swimming speed of cells through the growth medium
C)
amount of glucose synthesized per unit time
D)
number of generations per unit time
25)
E. coli cells typically make most of their ATP by metabolizing glucose.
Under the conditions of this experiment, as time passed, E. coli
generation times should be _____.
A)
the same as in the typical environment
B)
faster than in the typical environment
C)
slower than in the typical environment
26)
If the experimental population of E. coli lacks an F factor or F
plasmid, and if bacteriophages are excluded from the bacterial cultures, then
beneficial mutations might be transmitted horizontally to other E. coli
cells via _____.
A)
sex pili
B)
transduction
C)
conjugation
D)
transformation
27)
In a hypothetical situation, the genes for sex pilus construction and for
tetracycline resistance are located on the same plasmid within a particular
bacterium. If this bacterium readily performs conjugation involving a copy of
this plasmid, then the result should be the _____.
A)
temporary possession by this bacterium of a completely diploid genome
B)
rapid spread of tetracycline resistance to other bacteria in that habitat
C)
subsequent loss of tetracycline resistance from this bacterium
D)
production of endospores among the bacterium's progeny
28)
Which of the following is LEAST associated with the others?
A)
horizontal gene transfer
B)
conjugation
C)
transformation
D)
binary fission
Use
the following information and figure to answer the question(s) below.
The
sea slug Pteraeolidia ianthina (P. ianthina) can harbor living
dinoflagellates (photosynthetic protists) in its skin. These endosymbiotic
dinoflagellates reproduce quickly enough to maintain their populations. Low
populations do not affect the sea slugs very much, but high populations (> 5
x 105 cells/mg of sea slug protein) can promote sea
slug survival.
Percent
of sea slug respiratory carbon demand provided by indwelling dinoflagellates.
29)
If we assume that carbon is the sole nutrient needed by sea slugs to drive
their cellular respiration, then based on the graph, during which season(s) is
it LEAST necessary for P. ianthina to act as a chemoheterotroph?
A)
winter
B)
spring
C)
summer
D)
fall
30)
Use of synthetic fertilizers often leads to the contamination of groundwater
with nitrates. Nitrate pollution is also a suspected cause of anoxic "dead
zones" in the ocean. Which of the following might help reduce nitrate
pollution?
A)
growing improved crop plants that have nitrogen-fixing enzymes
B)
adding nitrifying bacteria to the soil
C)
adding denitrifying bacteria to the soil
D)
using ammonia instead of nitrate as a fertilizer
31)
Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and
heterotrophs. These two groups differ in _____.
A)
their sources of energy
B)
their electron acceptors
C)
their mode of nutrition
D)
the way that they generate ATP
32)
Bacteria able to perform the NH4+ + NO2- → N2 + 2H2O reaction
have been discovered in laboratory bioreactors and wastewater treatment
systems. Researchers predicted that these bacteria should exist in oceans. They
measured the concentration of NH4+, NO2-, NO3-, and O2 in the
Black Sea as a function of water depth (M. Kuypers et al. 2003 Anaerobic
ammonium oxidation by anammox bacteria in the Black Sea. Nature 422:608-11)
to determine where in the sea the bacteria might live. Analyzing data presented
in the figure above, at what depth would you expect to find the bacteria?
(Note: In the figure, different scales are used to show concentrations of NH4+, NO2-, NO3-, and O2.)
A)
in the top 50 meters
B)
at a depth of 75 meters
C)
at a depth of 92 meters
D)
below 100 meters
33)
Data were collected from the heterocysts of a nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium
inhabiting equatorial ponds. Study the following graph and choose the most
likely explanation for the shape of the curve.
A)
Enough oxygen (O2)
enters heterocysts during hours of peak photosynthesis to have a
somewhat-inhibitory effect on nitrogen fixation.
B)
Atmospheric nitrogen (N2) levels increase at night because plants are no longer
metabolizing this gas, so they are not absorbing this gas through their
stomata.
C)
Heterocyst walls become less permeable to nitrogen (N2) influx during darkness.
D)
The amount of fixed nitrogen that is dissolved in the pond water in which the
cyanobacteria are growing peaks at the close of the photosynthetic day (1800
hours).
Use
the information in the following paragraph to answer the question(s) below.
A
hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a
suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining
using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and
dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives
can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The
bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains
no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.
34)
This bacterium derives nutrition by digesting human intestinal contents. Thus,
this bacterium is an _____.
A)
aerobic chemoheterotroph
B)
aerobic chemoautotroph
C)
anaerobic chemoheterotroph
D)
anaerobic chemoautotroph
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Nitrogenase,
the enzyme that catalyzes nitrogen fixation, is inhibited whenever free oxygen
(O2)
reaches a critical concentration. Consequently, nitrogen fixation cannot occur
in cells wherein photosynthesis produces free O2. Consider the colonial aquatic
cyanobacterium, Anabaena, whose heterocytes are described as having
"…a thickened cell wall that restricts entry of O2 produced by neighboring cells. Intracellular
connections allow heterocysts to transport fixed nitrogen to neighboring cells
in exchange for carbohydrates."
35)
Given that the enzymes that catalyze nitrogen fixation are inhibited by oxygen,
what are two "strategies" that nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes might use
to protect these enzymes from oxygen?
1. Couple
them with photosystem II (the photosystem that splits water molecules).
2. Package
them in membranes that are impermeable to all gases.
3. Be
obligate anaerobes.
4. Be
strict aerobes.
5. Package
these enzymes in specialized cells or compartments that inhibit oxygen entry.
A)
1 and 4
B)
2 and 4
C)
3 and 4
D)
3 and 5
36)
Think about this description of the colonial aquatic cyanobacterium, Anabaena.
What two questions below are important for understanding how nitrogen (N2) enters
heterocysts, and how oxygen (O2) is kept out of heterocysts?
1. If
carbohydrates can enter the heterocysts from neighboring cells via the
"intracellular connections," how is it that O2 doesn't also enter via this route?
2. If
the cell walls of Anabaena photosynthetic cells are permeable to O2 and carbon dioxide (CO2), are they also permeable to
N2?
3. If
the nuclei of the photosynthetic cells contain the genes that code for nitrogen
fixation, how can these cells fail to perform nitrogen fixation?
4. If
the nuclei of the heterocysts contain the genes that code for photosynthesis,
how can these cells fail to perform photosynthesis?
5. If
the cell walls of Anabaena heterocysts are permeable to N2, how is it
that N2 doesn't diffuse out of the heterocysts before
it can be fixed?
6. If
the thick cell walls of Anabaena heterocysts exclude entry of oxygen
gas, how is it that they don't also exclude the entry of nitrogen gas?
A)
1 and 3
B)
1 and 6
C)
2 and 5
D)
4 and 6
The
following table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use
the information in the table to answer the question(s) below
|
Trait
|
Species
A
|
Species
B
|
Species
C
|
Species
D
|
Species
E
|
|
Plasmid
|
R
|
None
|
R
|
F
|
None
|
|
Gram
Staining Results
|
Variable
|
Variable
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
|
Nutritional
Mode
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemoauto-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Photoautotroph
|
|
Specialized
Metabolic Pathways
|
Aerobic
methanotroph
(obtains
carbon and energy from methane)
|
Anaerobic
methanogen
|
Anaerobic
butanolic fermentation
|
Anaerobic
lactic acid fermentation
|
Anaerobic
nitrogen fixation and aerobic photosystems
I
and II
|
|
Other
Features
|
Fimbriae
|
Internal
membranes
|
Flagellum
|
Pili
|
Thylakoids
|
37)
Which two species might be expected to cooperate metabolically, perhaps forming
a biofilm wherein one species surrounds cells of the other species?
A)
species A and B
B)
species A and C
C)
species B and E
D)
species C and D
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
For
several decades now, amphibian species worldwide have been in decline. A
significant proportion of the decline seems to be due to the spread of the
chytrid fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd). Chytrid sporangia
reside within the epidermal cells of infected animals, animals that
consequently show areas of sloughed skin. They can also be lethargic, which is
expressed through failure to hide and failure to flee. The infection cycle
typically takes four to five days, at the end of which zoospores are released
from sporangia into the environment. In some amphibian species, mortality rates
approach 100%; other species seem able to survive the infection.
38)
If infection primarily involves the outermost layers of adult amphibian skin,
and if the chytrids use the skin as their sole source of nutrition, then which
term best applies to the chytrids?
A)
anaerobic chemoautotroph
B)
aerobic chemoautotroph
C)
anaerobic chemoheterotroph
D)
aerobic chemoheterotroph
39)
While examining a rock surface, you have discovered an interesting new
organism. Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the
organism as belonging to Bacteria but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)
Cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
B)
The organism does not have nucleus.
C)
The lipids in its plasma membrane consist of glycerol bonded to straight-chain
fatty acids.
D)
It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.
40)
Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A)
pathogenic, omnipresent, morphologically diverse
B)
extremophiles, tiny, abundant
C)
tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse
D)
morphologically diverse, metabolically diverse, extremophiles
41)
You have found a new prokaryote. What line of evidence would support your
hypothesis that the organism is a cyanobacterium?
A)
It is able to form colonies and produce oxygen.
B)
It is an endosymbiont.
C)
It forms chains called mycelia.
D)
It lacks cell walls.
42)
Which statement about the domain Archaea is true?
A)
Genetic prospecting has recently revealed the existence of many previously
unknown archaean species.
B)
The genomes of archaeans are unique, containing no genes that originated within
bacteria.
C)
No archaeans can inhabit solutions that are nearly 30% salt.
D)
No archaeans are adapted to waters with temperatures above the boiling point.
43)
Which of the following traits do archaeans and bacteria share?
A)
composition of the cell wall
B)
composition of the cell wall and lack of a nuclear envelope
C)
lack of a nuclear envelope and presence of plasma membrane
D)
presence of plasma membrane and composition of the cell wall
44)
Assuming that each of these possesses a cell wall, which prokaryotes should be
expected to be most strongly resistant to plasmolysis in hypertonic
environments?
A)
extreme halophiles
B)
extreme thermophiles
C)
methanogens
D)
cyanobacteria
45)
The thermoacidophile Sulfolobus acidocaldarius lacks peptidoglycan, but
still possesses a cell wall. What is likely to be true of this species?
1. It
is a bacterium.
2. It
is an archaean.
3. The
optimal pH of its enzymes will lie above pH 7.
4. The
optimal pH of its enzymes will lie below pH 7.
5. It
could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs.
6. It
could inhabit alkaline hot springs.
A)
1, 3, and 6
B)
2, 4, and 5
C)
1, 3, and 5
D)
1, 4, and 5
46)
A fish that has been salt-cured subsequently develops a reddish color. You
suspect that the fish has been contaminated by the extreme halophile Halobacterium.
Which of these features of cells removed from the surface of the fish, if
confirmed, would support your suspicion?
1. the
presence of the same photosynthetic pigments found in cyanobacteria
2. cell
walls that lack peptidoglycan
3. cells
that are isotonic to conditions on the surface of the fish
4. cells
unable to survive salt concentrations lower than 9%
5. the
presence of very large numbers of ion pumps in its plasma membrane
A)
2 and 5
B)
3 and 4
C)
1, 4, and 5
D)
2, 3, 4, and 5
The
following table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use
the information in the table to answer the question(s) below
|
Trait
|
Species
A
|
Species
B
|
Species
C
|
Species
D
|
Species
E
|
|
Plasmid
|
R
|
None
|
R
|
F
|
None
|
|
Gram
Staining Results
|
Variable
|
Variable
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
Negative
|
|
Nutritional
Mode
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemoauto-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Chemohetero-
troph
|
Photoautotroph
|
|
Specialized
Metabolic Pathways
|
Aerobic
methanotroph
(obtains
carbon and energy from methane)
|
Anaerobic
methanogen
|
Anaerobic
butanolic fermentation
|
Anaerobic
lactic acid fermentation
|
Anaerobic
nitrogen fixation and aerobic photosystems
I
and II
|
|
Other
Features
|
Fimbriae
|
Internal
membranes
|
Flagellum
|
Pili
|
Thylakoids
|
47)
Which species is most likely to be found in sewage treatment plants and in the
guts of cattle?
A)
species A
B)
species B
C)
species C
D)
species D
48)
Which of the following extremophiles might researchers most likely use as a
model for the earliest organisms on Earth?
A)
a bacterium found on another planet or moon
B)
an archaean capable of surviving in the polar ice caps
C)
an anaerobic archaean species
D)
a bacterium that thrives in a highly acidic environment
49)
Mitochondria are thought to be the descendants of certain alpha proteobacteria.
They are, however, no longer able to lead independent lives because most genes
originally present on their chromosomes have moved to the nuclear genome. Which
phenomenon accounts for the movement of these genes?
A)
plasmolysis
B)
conjugation
C)
translation
D)
horizontal gene transfer
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
most recently discovered phylum in the animal kingdom (1995) is the phylum
Cycliophora. It includes three species of tiny organisms that live in large
numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. The
feeding stage permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk and
collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a
current created by a ring of cilia. The body is sac-like and has a U-shaped
intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are coelomates,
do not molt (though their host does), and their embryos undergo spiral
cleavage.
50)
If harboring large populations of cycliophorans neither helps nor harms their
lobster hosts, then cycliophorans can be properly considered to be _____.
1. parasites
2. mutualists
3. commensals
4. symbionts
5. endosymbionts
A)
1 and 4
B)
3 and 4
C)
2 and 5
D)
3 and 5
51)
Bacteria perform each of the following ecological roles. Which role typically
does NOT involve symbiosis?
A)
skin commensalist
B)
decomposer
C)
aggregates with methane-consuming archaea
D)
gut mutualist
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Healthy
individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal
endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae
are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming from only one
side, P. bursaria gather at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium
gather at the opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose
and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection
and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways: (1) if
kept in darkness, the algae will die; and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria)
are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its zoochlorellae.
52)
A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is aposymbiotic.
If aposymbiotic cells have population growth rates the same as those of
healthy, zoochlorella-containing P. bursaria in well-lit environments
with plenty of prey items, then such an observation would be consistent with
which type of relationship?
A)
parasitic
B)
commensalistic
C)
toxic
D)
mutualistic
53)
The termite gut protist Mixotricha paradoxa has at least two kinds of
bacteria attached to its outer surface. One kind is a spirochete that propels
its host through the termite gut. A second type of bacteria synthesizes
adenosine triphosphate (ATP), some of which is used by the spirochetes. The
locomotion provided by the spirochetes introduces the ATP-producing bacteria to
new food sources. Which term(s) is (are) applicable to the relationship between
the two kinds of bacteria?
1. mutualism
2. parasitism
3. symbiosis
4. metabolic
cooperation
A)
1 and 2
B)
2 and 3
C)
1, 3, and 4
D)
2, 3, and 4
54)
If all prokaryotes on Earth suddenly vanished, which of the following would be
the most likely and most direct result?
A)
Human populations would thrive in the absence of disease.
B)
Bacteriophage numbers would dramatically increase.
C)
The recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced, at least initially.
D)
There would be no more pathogens on Earth.
55)
In a hypothetical situation, a bacterium lives on the surface of a leaf, where
it obtains nutrition from the leaf's nonliving, waxy covering while inhibiting
the growth of other microbes that are plant pathogens. If this bacterium gains
access to the inside of a leaf, however, it causes a fatal disease in the
plant. Once the plant dies, the bacterium and its offspring decompose the plant.
What is the correct sequence of ecological roles played by the bacterium in the
situation described here?
1. nutrient
recycler
2. mutualist
3. commensal
4. pathogen
5. primary
producer
A)
1, 3, 4
B)
2, 3, 4
C)
2, 4, 1
D)
1, 2, 5
56)
What is the goal of bioremediation?
A)
to improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria
B)
to clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria
C)
to improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria
D)
to improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals
57)
Foods can be preserved in many ways by slowing or preventing bacterial growth.
Which of these methods should be LEAST effective at inhibiting bacterial
growth?
A)
Refrigeration: slows bacterial metabolism and growth.
B)
Closing previously opened containers: prevents more bacteria from entering, and
excludes oxygen.
C)
Pickling: creates a pH at which most bacterial enzymes cannot function.
D)
Canning in heavy sugar syrup: creates osmotic conditions that remove water from
most bacterial cells.
58)
Broad-spectrum antibiotics inhibit the growth of most intestinal bacteria.
Consequently, assuming that nothing is done to counter the reduction of
intestinal bacteria, a hospital patient who is receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
is most likely to become _____.
A)
unable to fix carbon dioxide
B)
antibiotic resistant
C)
unable to synthesize peptidoglycan
D)
deficient in certain vitamins and nutrients
59)
The pathogenic prokaryotes that cause cholera are _____.
A)
archaea that release an exotoxin
B)
archaea that release an endotoxin
C)
bacteria that release an exotoxin
D)
bacteria that release an endotoxin
60)
The soil layer surrounding plant roots, called the rhizosphere, has been shown
in some cases to _____.
A)
contain fungi that produce an endotoxin which inhibits the growth rhizomes
B)
inhibit the growth of fungal pathogens
C)
produce vitamins essential for the uptake of nitrogen
D)
contain archaea which produce antibiotics that prevent the growth of most
bacteria
61)
When a virus infects a bacterial cell, often new viruses are assembled and
released when the host bacterial cell is lysed. If these new viruses go on to
infect new bacterial cells the host cells may not be lysed. What is the most
plausible explanation for this?
A)
The bacterial cell must be resistant to infection by the virus.
B)
The virus carries genes that confer resistance to the host bacterial cell.
C)
The host bacterium couples the viral infection with transformation.
D)
The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic
stage.
62)
Sexual reproduction in eukaryotes increases genetic variation. In prokaryotes,
transformation, transduction, and conjugation are mechanisms that increase
genetic variation. A fundamental difference between the generations of genetic
variation in the two domains is:
A)
Eukaryotes are able to generate mutations in response to environmental stress
while prokaryotes only generate random variation.
B)
Eukaryotic variation occurs primarily within a single generation while
prokaryotic variation occurs over many generations.
C)
Crossing over is a major mechanism in creating genetic variation in prokaryotes
while independent assortment is a major mechanism is eukaryotes.
D)
Eukaryotic genetic variation occurs with vertical gene transfer while
prokaryotic genetic variation occurs with horizontal gene transfer.
Section:
26.6; 27.2
63)
In prokaryotes new mutations accumulate quickly in populations, while in
eukaryotes new mutations accumulate much more slowly. The primary reasons for
this are
A)
Prokaryotes have short generation times and large population sizes.
B)
Prokaryotes have random mutations while eukaryotes can target genes for
mutations; thus mutations may not accumulate as quickly in eukaryotes but they
are more useful to the organism.
C)
The DNA in prokaryotes is not as stable as eukaryotic DNA and is thus more
likely to mutate.
D)
Prokaryote mutations are less effective than eukaryote mutations in providing
variation for evolution.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 28 Protists
1)
According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger
(host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?
A)
The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B)
The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.
C)
The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.
D)
The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell
alive.
2)
The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to
which evolutionary sequence?
A)
cyanobacteria → green algae → land plants
B)
cyanobacteria → green algae → fungi → land plants
C)
red algae → brown algae → green algae → land plants
D)
cyanobacteria → red algae → green algae → land plants
3)
A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary
endosymbiosis. You know this because the chloroplasts _____.
A)
have nuclear and cyanobacterial genes
B)
are exceptionally small
C)
have three or four membranes
D)
have only a single pigment
4)
All protists are _____.
A)
unicellular
B)
eukaryotic
C)
symbionts
D)
mixotrophic
5)
An individual mixotroph loses its plastids, yet continues to survive. Which of
the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?
A)
It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
B)
It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
C)
It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption.
D)
It has an endospore.
6)
Which of the following have chloroplasts (or structures since evolved from
chloroplasts) thought to be derived from ancestral green algae?
A)
stramenopiles
B)
apicomplexans
C)
dinoflagellates
D)
chlorarachniophytes
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Paulinella
chromatophora
is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic
photosynthesis with its two elongated "chromatophores." The
chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is
derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that
gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.
7)
The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph P.
ovalis. P. ovalis uses threadlike pseudopods to capture its prey, which it
digests internally. Which of the following, if observed, would be the best
reason for relabeling P. chromatophora as a mixotroph instead of an
autotroph?
A)
a pigmented central vacuole, surrounded by a tonoplast
B)
a vacuole with food inside
C)
a secretory vesicle
D)
a contractile vacuole
8)
Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be
reduced, without the net loss of any genetic information?
A)
conjugation
B)
horizontal gene transfer
C)
phagocytosis
D)
meiosis
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Giardia
intestinalis
is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal
ailments in most people who ingest the cysts. Upon ingestion, each cyst
releases two motile cells, called trophozoites. These attach to the small
intestine's lining via a ventral adhesive disk. The trophozoites anaerobically
metabolize glucose from the host's intestinal contents to produce ATP. Reproduction
is completely asexual, occurring by longitudinal binary fission of
trophozoites, with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei (n =
5). A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by
secreting around itself a case that is resistant to cold, heat, and
dehydration. Infection usually occurs by drinking untreated water that contains
cysts.
9)
The cysts of Giardia function most like the _____.
A)
mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads
B)
nuclei of archaeans
C)
endospores of bacteria
D)
capsids of viruses
10)
Consider the following data: (a) Most ancient eukaryotes are unicellular. (b)
All eukaryotes alive today have a nucleus and cytoskeleton. (c) Most ancient
eukaryotes lack a cell wall. Which of the following conclusions could
reasonably follow the data presented? The first eukaryote may have been _____.
A)
very similar to a plant cell
B)
anaerobic
C)
capable of phagocytosis
D)
photosynthetic
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Giardia
intestinalis
is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal
ailments in most people who ingest the cysts. Upon ingestion, each cyst
releases two motile cells, called trophozoites. These attach to the small
intestine's lining via a ventral adhesive disk. The trophozoites anaerobically
metabolize glucose from the host's intestinal contents to produce ATP.
Reproduction is completely asexual, occurring by longitudinal binary fission of
trophozoites, with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei (n =
5). A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by
secreting around itself a case that is resistant to cold, heat, and
dehydration. Infection usually occurs by drinking untreated water that contains
cysts.
11)
Giardia's mitosome can be said to be "doubly degenerate,"
because it is a degenerate type of ________, an organelle that is itself a
degenerate form of ________.
A)
nucleus; archaean
B)
nucleus; bacterium
C)
mitochondria; proteobacterium
D)
mitochondria; spirochete
12)
The mitosome of Giardia has no DNA within it. If it did contain DNA,
then what predictions should we be able to make about its DNA?
1. It
is linear.
2. It
is circular.
3. It
has many introns.
4. It
has few introns.
5. It
is not associated with histone proteins.
6. It
is complexed with histone proteins.
A)
1, 3, and 5
B)
1, 4, and 5
C)
2, 3, and 6
D)
2, 4, and 5
13)
Given its mode of reproduction and internal structures, which of the following
should be expected to occur in Giardia at some stage of its life cycle?
A) separation (segregation) of daughter
chromosomes
B) crossing over
C) meiosis
14)
If the mitosomes of Giardia contain no DNA, yet are descendants of what
were once free-living organisms, then where are we likely to find the genes
that encode their structures, and what accounts for their current location
there?
A)
plasmids; conjugation
B)
plasmids; transformation
C)
nucleus; horizontal gene transfer
D)
nucleus; S phase
15)
When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium
_____.
A)
gametes fuse, forming an oocyst
B)
cells infect the human liver cells
C)
cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells
D)
oocyst undergoes meiosis
16)
Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by
frequently changing their surface proteins?
1. Plasmodium
2. Trichomonas
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma
5. Entamoeba
A)
1 and 4
B)
2 and 3
C)
2 and 4
D)
4 and 5
17)
Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristics is
mismatched?
A)
apicomplexans — internal parasites
B)
euglenozoans — unicellular flagellates
C)
ciliates — red tide organisms
D)
entamoebas — ingestive heterotrophs
18)
Dinoflagellates _____.
A)
possess two flagella
B)
are all autotrophic
C)
lack mitochondria
D)
include species that cause malaria
19)
You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and
heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each
featuring the 9 + 2 filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles and two
nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a _____.
A)
foraminiferan
B)
radiolarian
C)
ciliate
D)
kinetoplastid
20)
Which of the following is characteristic of ciliates?
A)
They use pseudopods as feeding structures.
B)
They are often multinucleate.
C)
They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of
mitosis.
D)
Most live as solitary autotrophs in fresh water.
21)
Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any
organelles that might have the 9 + 2 pattern. They obtain their nutrition from
functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous,
glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in
the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?
A)
How do diatoms get transported from one location on the water's surface layers
to another location on the surface?
B)
How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit
waters?
C)
How do diatoms with their glasslike valves avoid being shattered by the action
of waves?
D)
How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?
22)
A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would
be expected to lack which of the following?
A)
thalli
B)
bladders
C)
holdfasts
D)
gel-forming polysaccharides
23)
Reinforced, threadlike pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally
characteristic of _____.
A)
forams
B)
water molds
C)
dinoflagellates
D)
oomycetes
24)
A snail-like, coiled, porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate is
characteristic of _____.
A)
diatoms
B)
foraminiferans
C)
ciliates
D)
water molds
25)
You are given the task of designing an aquatic protist that is a primary
producer. It cannot swim on its own, yet must stay in well-lit surface waters.
It must be resistant to physical damage from wave action. It should be most
similar to a(n) _____.
A)
diatom
B)
dinoflagellate
C)
apicomplexan
D)
red alga
26)
A gelatinous seaweed that grows in shallow, cold water and undergoes
heteromorphic alternation of generations is most probably what type of alga?
A)
red
B)
green
C)
brown
D)
yellow
You
are given four test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is
to read the following description and match these four protists to the correct
test tube.
When
light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles
accumulate on the inside of test tubes 1 and 2. Chemical analysis of test tube
1 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans.
Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of substantial amounts
of silica. Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tubes 1, 3, and 4 reveals
the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded sacs just under the plasma membrane.
Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tube 3 reveals the presence of an
apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in test tube 4 reveals
the presence of one large nucleus and one small nucleus in each organism.
27)
Test tube 3 contains _____.
A)
Paramecium
B)
Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
C)
Entamoeba
D)
Plasmodium
28)
Test tube 4 contains _____.
A)
Paramecium
B)
Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
C)
Entamoeba
D)
Plasmodium
Use
the following description and table to answer the question(s) below.
Diatoms
are encased in petri-platelike cases (valves) made of translucent hydrated
silica whose thickness can be varied. The material used to store excess
calories can also be varied. At certain times, diatoms store excess calories in
the form of the liquid polysaccharide, laminarin, and at other times as oil.
The following are data concerning the density (specific gravity) of various
components of diatoms, and of their environment.
Specific
Gravities of Materials Relevant to Diatoms
|
Material
|
Specific
Gravity
(kg/m3)
|
|
Pure
water
|
1000
|
|
Seawater
|
1026
|
|
Hydrated
silica
|
2250
|
|
Liquid
laminarin
|
1500
|
|
Diatom
oil
|
910
|
29)
Water's density and, consequently, its buoyancy decrease at warmer
temperatures. Based on this consideration and using data from the table above,
at which time of year should one expect diatoms to be storing excess calories
mostly as oil?
A)
mid-winter
B)
early spring
C)
late summer
D)
late fall
30)
Water's density and, consequently, its buoyancy decrease at warmer
temperatures. Considering the impact of temperature, and the table above, in
which environment should diatoms sinking be slowest?
A)
cold fresh water
B)
warm fresh water
C)
cold seawater
D)
warm seawater
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Healthy
individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal
endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae
are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming from only one
side, P. bursaria gather at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium
gather at the opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose
and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection
and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways: (1) if
kept in darkness, the algae will die; and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria)
are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its zoochlorellae.
31)
Which term best describes the symbiotic relationship of well-fed P. bursaria
to their zoochlorellae?
A)
mutualistic
B)
parasitic
C)
predatory
D)
pathogenic
32)
The motility that permits P. bursaria to move toward a light source is
provided by _____.
A)
pseudopods
B)
a single flagellum featuring the 9 + 2 pattern
C)
many cilia
D)
contractile vacuoles
33)
A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is said to be aposymbiotic.
It might be able to replenish its contingent of zoochlorellae by ingesting them
without subsequently digesting them. Which of the following situations would be
most favorable to the reestablishment of resident zoochlorellae, assuming
compatible Chlorella are present in P. bursaria's habitat?
A)
abundant light, no bacterial prey
B)
abundant light, abundant bacterial prey
C)
no light, no bacterial prey
D)
no light, abundant bacterial prey
34)
A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is aposymbiotic.
If aposymbiotic cells have population growth rates the same as those of
healthy, zoochlorella-containing P. bursaria in well-lit environments with
plenty of prey items, then such an observation would be consistent with which
type of relationship?
A)
parasitic
B)
commensalistic
C)
toxic
D)
mutualistic
35)
Theoretically, P. bursaria can obtain zoochlorella either vertically
(via the asexual reproduction of its mother cell) or horizontally (by ingesting
free-living Chlorella from its habitat). Consider a P. bursaria cell
containing zoochlorellae but whose habitat lacks free-living Chlorella.
If this cell subsequently undergoes many generations of asexual reproduction,
if all of its daughter cells contain roughly the same number of zoochlorellae
as it had originally contained, and if the zoochlorellae are all haploid and
identical in appearance, then what is true? The zoochlorellae _____.
A)
also reproduced asexually, at an increasing rate over time
B)
also reproduced asexually, at a decreasing rate over time
C)
also reproduced asexually, at a fairly constant rate over time
D)
reproduced sexually, undergoing heteromorphic alternation of generations
36)
Which process in Paramecium results in genetic recombination but no
increase in population size?
A)
budding
B)
meiotic division
C)
conjugation
D)
binary fission
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
mechanism of cell crawling in protist species is not well defined. Pseudopodia
extension involves interactions between actin and myosin (the same molecules
that are involved in vertebrate muscle contraction). However, prior to the
study described below, no one had provided convincing data that actin and
myosin were actually involved in cell crawling in protists. Anatomical studies
had identified the cytoskeletal protein actin just below the surface of the
cell membrane in several species of protist, but physiological studies had
failed to show a functional link between actin, myosin, and cell crawling.
In
a study by N. Poulsen et al. (Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin
motility system, Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 (1999):23-22),
researchers tested whether motility in a particular species of diatom involves
interactions between actin and myosin.
37)
Refer to the study by Poulsen et al. and the figure above. Latrunculin A is a
reversible toxin that disrupts the formation of actin fibers. A culture of a
particular species of diatom was treated with this toxin diluted in a buffer,
while another culture was treated only with the buffer (no toxin; control). The
motility of cells in each culture was assessed by counting the number of cells
that were moving during a defined period of time. Which of the following
conclusions is reasonable based on the above figure?
A)
Formation of actin fibers is not necessary for the movement in this species of
diatom.
B)
The buffer alone largely inhibited movement in this species of diatom.
C)
In this species of diatom, fully formed actin fibers are necessary for
movement.
38)
Refer to the study by Poulsen et al. and the figure above. The data graphed in
the figure could be an artifact if latrunculin A kills this species of diatoms
(that is, that may be why the cells are not moving). Which of the following
would be the best evidence that latrunculin A is NOT killing the cells?
A)
When the toxin was washed off the culture, the cells began to move again.
B)
There were still a small percentage of motile cells in the culture treated with
the toxin.
C)
Most of the cells in the control were moving, indicating that they were alive.
D)
When the toxin was applied to another species of diatom, 25% of them continued
to move.
39)
Refer to the study by Poulsen et al. and the figure above. Cultures of a
species of diatom were treated with BDM, a reversible inhibitor of myosin
function. Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis
that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility?
A)
BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture.
B)
BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture.
C)
BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture.
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Paulinella
chromatophora
is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic
photosynthesis with its two elongated "chromatophores." The
chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is
derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that
gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.
40)
P. chromatophora secretes around itself a test, or case, of plates made
of silica. Which of the following is another rhizarian that would be in
competition with P. chromatophora for the silica needed to make these
plates, assuming limited quantities of silica in the environment?
A)
radiolarians
B)
foraminiferans
C)
dinoflagellates
D)
diatoms
41)
Including the membrane of the surrounding vesicle, how many phospholipid
(NOT lipopolysaccharide) bilayers should be found around each P.
chromatophora's chromatophore, and which one of these bilayers should have
photosystems embedded in it?
A)
two; innermost
B)
two; outermost
C)
three; innermost
D)
three; outermost
42)
If true, which of the following would be most important in determining whether P.
chromatophora's chromatophore is still an endosymbiont, or is an organelle,
as the term chromatophore implies?
A)
if P. chromatophora is less fit without its chromatophore than with it
B)
if the chromatophore is less fit without the host cercozoan than with it
C)
if there is ongoing metabolic cooperation between the chromatophore and the
host cercozoan
D)
if there has been movement of genes from the chromatophore genome to the
nuclear genome, such that these genes are no longer present in the
chromatophore genome
43)
The genome of modern chloroplasts is roughly 50% the size of the genome of the
cyanobacterium from which it is thought to have been derived. In comparison,
the genome of P. chromatophora's chromatophore is only slightly reduced
relative to the size of the genome of the cyanobacterium from which it is
thought to have been derived. What is a valid hypothesis that can be drawn from
this comparison?
A)
Lytic phage infections have targeted the chloroplast genome more often than the
P. chromatophora genome.
B)
P. chromatophora's chromatophore is the result of an evolutionarily
recent endosymbiosis.
C)
The genome of the chloroplast ancestor contained many more introns that could
be lost without harm, compared to the chromatophore’s genome.
D)
The genome of the cyanobacteria was smaller than the genome of P.
chromatophora.
44)
A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a
depth reached only by blue light. This alga is most likely a type of _____.
A)
red algae
B)
brown algae
C)
green algae
D)
golden algae
45)
Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae _____.
A)
are unicellular
B)
have plastids
C)
have alternation of generations
D)
have cell walls containing cellulose
46)
You are given the task of designing an aerobic, mixotrophic protist that can
perform photosynthesis in fairly deep water (for example, 250 meters deep) and
can also crawl about and engulf small particles. With which two of the
following structures would you provide your protist?
1. hydrogenosome
2. apicoplast
3. pseudopods
4. chloroplast
from red alga
5. chloroplast
from green alga
A)
1 and 2
B)
2 and 3
C)
3 and 4
D)
4 and 5
47)
Similar to most amoebozoans, the forams and the radiolarians also have
pseudopods, as do some of the white blood cells of animals (monocytes). If one
were to erect a taxon that included all organisms that have cells with
pseudopods, the taxon would _____.
A)
be polyphyletic
B)
be paraphyletic
C)
be monophyletic
D)
include all eukaryotes
48)
Which of the following groups is matched with a correct anatomical feature?
A)
foraminifera → silicon-rich tests
B)
dinoflagellata → holdfast
C)
diatoms → tests made of cellulose
D)
phaeophyta (brown algae) → blade
49)
Unikonta is a supergroup that includes all of the following except _____.
A)
fungi
B)
protists
C)
animals
D)
plants
50)
Previously understood similarities that seemed to connect slime molds and fungi
are now considered to be _____.
A)
homologies
B)
examples of convergent evolution
C)
variations of common ancestral traits
D)
adaptations for much different functions
51)
Branching points at the root of the eukaryotic phylogenetic tree
A)
reveal that unikonts are derived from the SAR clade
B)
suggest that Archaeplastids were the first eukaryotes
C)
strongly suggest that fungi are more closely related to plants than animals
D)
are presently unclear
52)
Super cells characteristic of plasmodial slime molds result when which one of
the following common cellular processes does not occur?
A)
mitosis
B)
cytokinesis
C)
aerobic metabolism
D)
endocytosis
53)
Which of the following is responsible for nearly 100,000 human deaths worldwide
every year?
A)
Entamoeba histolytica
B)
Amoeba proteus
C)
plasmodial slime molds
D)
Dictyostelium discoideum
54)
Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile, photosynthetic
protists evolve to become parasitic to fish. They gain the ability to live in
the fish gut, absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food. Over time, which of
the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population
of protists?
A)
loss of motility
B)
loss of chloroplasts
C)
gain of a rigid cell wall
D)
gain of meiosis
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Healthy
individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal
endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae
are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming from only one
side, P. bursaria gather at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium
gather at the opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose
and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection
and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways: (1) if
kept in darkness, the algae will die; and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria)
are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its zoochlorellae.
55)
Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P.
bursaria?
A)
photoautotroph
B)
photoheterotroph
C)
chemoautotroph
D)
mixotroph
56)
Living diatoms contain brownish plastids. If global warming causes blooms of
diatoms in the surface waters of Earth's oceans, how might this be harmful to
the animals that build coral reefs?
A)
The coral animals, which capture planktonic organisms, may be outcompeted by
the diatoms.
B)
The coral animals' endosymbiotic dinoflagellates may get "shaded out"
by the diatoms.
C)
The coral animals may die from overeating the plentiful diatoms with their
cases of silica.
D)
The diatoms' photosynthetic output may over-oxygenate the water.
57)
Which of the following is a producer?
A)
kinetoplastid
B)
apicomplexan
C)
diatom
D)
ciliates
58)
If we were to apply the most recent technique used to fight potato late blight
to the fight against the malarial infection of humans, then we would _____.
A)
increase the dosage of the least-expensive antimalarial drug administered to
humans
B)
introduce a predator of the malarial parasite into infected humans
C)
use a "cocktail" of at least three different pesticides against Anopheles
mosquitoes
D)
insert genes from a Plasmodium-resistant strain of mosquito into Anopheles
mosquitoes
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 29 Plant
Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
1)
According to the fossil record, plants colonized terrestrial habitats _____.
A)
in conjunction with insects that pollinated them
B)
in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil
C)
to escape abundant herbivores in the oceans
D)
only about 150 million years ago
2)
The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably _____.
A)
kelp (brown alga) that formed large beds near the shorelines
B)
green algae
C)
photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria)
D)
liverworts and mosses
3)
About 450 million years ago, the terrestrial landscape on Earth would have
_____.
A)
looked very similar to that of today, with flowers, grasses, shrubs, and trees
B)
been completely bare rock, with little pools that contained bacteria and
cyanobacteria
C)
been covered with tall forests in swamps that became today's coal
D)
had non-vascular green plants similar to liverworts forming green mats on rock
4)
What evidence do paleobotanists look for that indicates the movement of plants
from water to land?
A)
waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves
B)
loss of structures that produce spores
C)
sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves
D)
remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells
5)
Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most
recently)?
A)
extensive growth of gymnosperm forests
B)
colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses
C)
rise and diversification of angiosperms
D)
carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes
6)
Why have biologists hypothesized that the first land plants had a low,
sprawling growth habit?
A)
They were tied to the water for reproduction and thus needed to remain in close
contact with the moist soil.
B)
The ancestors of land plants, green algae, lack the structural support to stand
erect in air.
C)
Land animals of that period were small and could not pollinate tall plants.
D)
There was less competition for space so they simply spread out flat.
7)
Spores and seeds have basically the same function—dispersal—but are vastly
different because _____.
A)
spores have a protective outer covering; seeds do not
B)
spores have an embryo; seeds do not
C)
spores have stored nutrition; seeds do not
D)
spores are unicellular; seeds are not
8)
You find a green organism in a pond near your house and believe it is a plant,
not an alga. The mystery organism is most likely a plant and not an alga if it
_____.
A)
contains chloroplasts
B)
is surrounded by a cuticle
C)
does not contain vascular tissue
D)
has cell walls that are comprised largely of cellulose
9)
Retaining the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants _____.
A)
protects the zygote from herbivores
B)
evolved concurrently with pollen
C)
helps in dispersal of the zygote
D)
allows it to be nourished by the parent plant
10)
The structural integrity of bacteria is to peptidoglycan as the structural
integrity of plant spores is to _____.
A)
lignin
B)
cellulose
C)
secondary compounds
D)
sporopollenin
11)
According to our current knowledge of plant evolution, which group of organisms
should feature cell division most similar to that of land plants?
A)
unicellular green algae
B)
cyanobacteria
C)
charophytes
D)
red algae
12)
Which taxon is essentially equivalent to the "embryophytes"?
A)
Plantae
B)
Pterophyta
C)
Bryophyta
D)
Charophycea
13)
If the kingdom Plantae is someday expanded to include the charophytes
(stoneworts), then the shared derived characteristics of the kingdom will
include _____.
1. rings
of cellulose-synthesizing complexes
2. chlorophylls
a and b
3. alternation
of generations
4. cell
walls of cellulose
5. ability
to synthesize sporopollenin
A)
1 and 5
B)
1, 2, and 3
C)
1, 3, and 5
D)
1, 2, 4, and 5
14)
Which of the following were probably factors that permitted early plants to
successfully colonize land?
1. the
relative number of potential predators (herbivores)
2. the
relative number of competitors
3. the
relative availability of symbiotic partners
4. air's
relative lack of support, compared to water's support
A)
1 and 2
B)
2 and 3
C)
3 and 4
D)
1, 2, and 3
15)
A student encounters a pondweed which appears to be a charophyte (stonewort).
Which of the following features would help the student determine whether the
sample comes from a charophyte or from some other type of green alga?
1. molecular
structure of enzymes inside the chloroplasts
2. structure
of sperm cells
3. presence
of phragmoplasts
4. rings
of cellulose-synthesizing complexes
A)
1 and 3
B)
1 and 4
C)
2 and 3
D)
2, 3, and 4
The
following questions refer to the generalized life cycle for land plants shown
in the figure below. Each number within a circle or square represents a
specific plant or plant part, and each number over an arrow represents either
meiosis, mitosis, or fertilization.
16)
In the figure above, which number represents the mature gametophyte?
A)
1
B)
3
C)
7
D)
11
17)
In the figure above, which number represents an embryo?
A)
1
B)
3
C)
7
D)
11
18)
In the figure above, meiosis is most likely to be represented by which
number(s)?
A)
2
B)
4
C)
2 and 8
D)
10 and 12
19)
Which number represents a megaspore mother cell in the figure above?
A)
1
B)
3
C)
5
D)
7
20)
In the figure above, the process labeled "6" involves _____.
A)
mitosis
B)
meiosis
C)
fertilization
D)
binary fission
21)
The embryo sac of an angiosperm flower is best represented by which number in
the figure above?
A)
1
B)
3
C)
7
D)
11
22)
In angiosperms, which number in the figure above represents a component
contributing to the formation of endosperm?
A)
1
B)
7
C)
9
D)
11
23)
Stomata _____.
A)
occur in all land plants and define them as a monophyletic group
B)
open to allow gas exchange and close to decrease water loss
C)
occur in all land plants and are the same as pores
D)
open to increase both water absorption and gas exchange
24)
Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are grouped together as the Bryophytes.
Besides not having vascular tissue, what do they all have in common?
A)
They are all wind pollinated.
B)
They are heterosporous.
C)
They can reproduce asexually by producing gemmae.
D)
They require water for reproduction.
25)
Most moss gametophytes do not have a cuticle and are 1-2 cells thick. What does
this imply about moss gametophytes and their structure?
A)
They use stomata for gas exchange regulation.
B)
They can easily lose water to, and absorb water from, the atmosphere.
C)
Photosynthesis occurs throughout the entire gametophyte surface.
D)
They have branching veins in their leaves.
26)
As you stroll through a moist forest, you are most likely to see a _____.
A)
zygote of a green alga
B)
gametophyte of a moss
C)
sporophyte of a liverwort
D)
gametophyte of a fern
27)
Which of these are spore-producing structures?
A)
sporophyte (capsule) of a moss
B)
antheridium of a moss or fern
C)
archegonium of a moss or fern
D)
gametophyte of a moss
28)
What is true about the genus Sphagnum?
A)
It is an economically important liverwort.
B)
It grows in extensive mats in grassland areas.
C)
It accumulates to form coal and is burned as a fuel.
D)
It is an important carbon sink, reducing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
29)
How are the bryophytes and seedless vascular plants alike?
A)
Plants in both groups have vascular tissue.
B)
In both groups, sperm swim from antheridia to archegonia.
C)
The dominant generation in both groups is the sporophyte.
D)
Plants in both groups have true roots, stems, and leaves.
30)
In general, liverworts have a cuticle and pores. However, some species do not
have pores. What would you predict concerning the cuticle of these species and
why?
A)
The cuticle would be the same as in those species with pores.
B)
The cuticle would be thicker than in those species with pores.
C)
The cuticle would be thinner than in those species with pores.
31)
Archegonia _____.
A)
are the sites where male gametes are produced
B)
may contain sporophyte embryos
C)
have the same function as sporangia
D)
make asexual reproductive structures
32)
Which of the following is a true statement about plant reproduction?
A)
Embryophytes are small plants in an early developmental stage.
B)
Male and female bryophytes each produce a type of gametangia.
C)
Eggs and sperm of most land plants swim toward one another.
D)
Bryophytes are limited to asexual reproduction.
33)
Assuming that they all belong to the same plant, arrange the following
structures from largest to smallest.
1. antheridia
2. gametes
3. gametophytes
A)
2, 3, 1
B)
2, 1, 3
C)
3, 2, 1
D)
3, 1, 2
34)
The leaflike appendages of moss gametophytes may be one to two cell layers
thick. Consequently, which of the following is LEAST likely to be found
associated with such appendages?
A)
cuticle
B)
phenolics
C)
stomata
D)
peroxisomes
35)
Which of the following is true of the life cycle of mosses?
A)
The haploid generation grows on the sporophyte generation.
B)
Spores are primarily distributed by water currents.
C)
Antheridia and archegonia are produced by gametophytes.
D)
The sporophyte generation is dominant.
36)
At some time during their life cycles, bryophytes make _____.
A)
microphylls
B)
true roots
C)
true leaves
D)
sporangia
37)
Two small, poorly drained lakes lie close to each other in a northern forest.
The basins of both lakes are composed of the same geologic substratum. One lake
is surrounded by a dense Sphagnum mat; the other is not. Compared to the
pond with Sphagnum, the pond lacking the moss mat should have _____.
A)
lower numbers of bacteria
B)
reduced rates of decomposition
C)
reduced oxygen content
D)
less-acidic water
Researchers
tested nitrogen loss from soil where the moss Dawsonia was growing, and
compared it to soil from which Dawsonia had been removed. The data are
presented below.
Researchers
decided to test the hypothesis that if the 1-meter-tall Dawsonia
gametophyte-sporophyte plants had acted as a physical buffer, then they would
have reduced water's ability to erode the soil and carry away its nitrogen.
They began with four equal-sized areas where Dawsonia mosses grew to a
height of 1 m above the soil surface. One of the four areas was not modified.
In the second area, the mosses were trimmed to a height of 0.5 m above the soil
surface. In the third area, the mosses were trimmed to a height of 0.25 m above
the soil surface. In the fourth area, the mosses were trimmed all the way to
the ground, leaving only the rhizoids. Water, simulating rainfall, was then
added in a controlled fashion to all plots over the course of one year. The
figure below presents four graphs that depict potential results of this
experiment.
38)
In the figure above, which graph of soil nitrogen loss over time most strongly
supports the hypothesis that if the 1-m tall Dawsonia
gametophyte-sporophyte plants had acted as a physical buffer, then they would
have reduced water's ability to erode the soil and carry away its nitrogen?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
39)
Soil nitrogen is not solely contained within the rhizoids of the Dawsonia
mosses because rhizoids _____.
A)
are associated with fungi that inhibit mineral transfer from soil to rhizoids
B)
are not absorptive structures
C)
lack direct attachment to the moss sporophytes
D)
immediately transfer the nitrogen to the sporophyte
40)
The 1-m height attainable by Dawsonia moss is at the upper end of the
size range reached by mosses. What accounts for the relative tallness of Dawsonia?
A)
the cuticle that is found along the ridges of "leaves"
B)
"leaves" that are more than one cell layer thick
C)
reduced size, mass, and persistence of the sporophytes, which allows
gametophores to grow taller
D)
the presence of conducting tissues in the "stem"
41)
Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists
in marine environments may help reduce global warming because _____.
A)
photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains
B)
photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric
carbon dioxide levels
C)
the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists
will increase photosynthesis in land plants
D)
photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them
would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
42)
Which set contains the most closely related terms?
A)
megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule
B)
microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary
C)
megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule
D)
microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary
43)
How could you determine if a plant is heterosporous?
A)
Male and female reproductive structures are located on separate plants.
B)
It has vascular tissue.
C)
It has multiple sporangia.
D)
Its diploid sporophyte produces spores via meiosis.
44)
A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After
observing its anatomy and life cycle, he notes the following characteristics:
flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate gametophyte and sporophyte
generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is probably
most closely related to _____.
A)
mosses
B)
ferns
C)
gymnosperms
D)
flowering plants
45)
You are hiking in a forest and come upon a mysterious plant, which you
determine is either a lycophyte sporophyte or a pterophyte sporophyte. Which of
the following would be most helpful in determining the correct classification
of the plant?
A)
whether or not it has true leaves
B)
whether it has microphylls or megaphylls
C)
whether or not it has seeds
D)
its height
46)
Assuming that they all belong to the same plant, arrange the following
structures from largest to smallest (or from most inclusive to least
inclusive).
1. spores
2. sporophylls
3. sporophytes
4. sporangia
A)
2, 4, 3, 1
B)
2, 3, 4, 1
C)
3, 1, 4, 2
D)
3, 2, 4, 1
47)
If humans had been present to build log structures during the Carboniferous
period (they were not), which plant types would have been suitable sources of
logs?
A)
horsetails and bryophytes
B)
lycophytes and bryophytes
C)
ferns, horsetails, and lycophytes
D)
charophytes (stoneworts), bryophytes, and gymnosperms
48)
Arrange the following terms from most inclusive to least inclusive.
1. embryophytes
2. green
plants
3. seedless
vascular plants
4. ferns
5. tracheophytes
A)
1, 2, 5, 3, 4
B)
2, 1, 5, 3, 4
C)
2, 5, 1, 3, 4
D)
1, 4, 2, 5, 3
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
A
biology student hiking in a forest happens upon an erect, 15-cm-tall plant that
bears microphylls and a strobilus at its tallest point. When disturbed, the
cone emits a dense cloud of brownish dust. A pocket magnifying glass reveals
the dust to be composed of tiny spheres with a high oil content.
49)
This student has probably found a(n) _____.
A)
bryophyte sporophyte
B)
fern sporophyte
C)
horsetail gametophyte
D)
lycophyte sporophyte
50)
Besides oil, what other chemical should be detected in substantial amounts upon
chemical analysis of these small spheres?
A)
sporopollenins
B)
phenolics
C)
waxes
D)
terpenes
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Big
Bend National Park in Texas is mostly Chihuahuan desert, where rainfall
averages about 10 inches per year. Yet, it is not uncommon when hiking in this
bone-dry desert to encounter mosses and ferns. One such plant is called
"flower of stone." It is not a flowering plant, nor does it produce
seeds. Under arid conditions, its leaflike structures curl up. However, when it
rains, it unfurls its leaves, which form a bright green rosette on the desert
floor. Consequently, it is sometimes called the "resurrection plant."
At first glance, it could be a fern, a true moss, or a spike moss.
51)
What feature of both true mosses and ferns makes it most surprising that they
can survive for many generations in dry deserts?
A)
flagellated sperm
B)
lack of vascular tissues
C)
lack of true roots
D)
lack of cuticle
52)
Which of the following features is most important for true mosses and ferns to
reproduce in the desert?
A)
that the sporophytes occupy only permanently shady, north-facing habitats
B)
that the sporophytes hug the ground, growing no taller than a couple of inches
C)
either that their gametophytes grow close together, or that they be
hermaphroditic
D)
that the sporophytes have highly lignified vascular tissues
53)
Which of the following characteristics is (are) possessed in common by true
mosses, ferns, and spike mosses, and therefore becomes useless at helping to
determine to which of these groups "flower of stone" belongs?
1. a
sporophyte generation that is dominant
2. true
leaves and roots
3. flagellated
sperm
4. strobili
5. alternation
of generations
A)
5 only
B)
1 and 5
C)
2 and 3
D)
3 and 5
54)
Upon closer inspection of the leaves of "flower of stone," one can
observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of
two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of
"flower of stone" branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming
a Y-shaped structure. Based on these additional observations, which of the
following can be properly inferred about "flower of stone"?
1. It
is heterosporous.
2. It
is a fern.
3. The
cone-like structures are sori.
4. It
is a lycophyte.
5. It
has separate male and female gametophytes.
A)
1 and 5
B)
2 and 3
C)
1, 2, and 3
D)
1, 4, and 5
55)
Upon closer inspection of the leaves of "flower of stone," one can
observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of
two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of
"flower of stone" branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming
a Y-shaped structure. Consequently, which of the following is the closest
living relative of "flower of stone"?
A)
true moss
B)
club moss
C)
liverwort
D)
fern
56)
Upon closer inspection of the leaves of "flower of stone," one can
observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of
two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of
"flower of stone" branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming
a Y-shaped structure. Consequently, "flower of stone" should
be expected to possess which other characteristics?
1. a
gametophyte generation that is dominant
2. lignified
vascular tissues
3. microphylls
4. filamentous
rhizoids, but not true roots
5. spores
that are diploid when mature
A)
1 and 2
B)
1 and 5
C)
2 and 3
D)
3, 4, and 5
57)
In which combination of locations would one who is searching for the
gametophytes of "flower of stone" have the best chance of finding
them?
1. moist
soil
2. underground,
nourished there by symbiotic fungi
3. south-
or west-facing slopes
4. permanently
shady places
5. far
from any flower of stone sporophytes
A)
1 only
B)
1 and 2
C)
1, 2, and 4
D)
1, 2, and 5
58)
Suppose an efficient conducting system evolved in a moss that could transport
water and other materials as high as a tall tree. Which of the following
statements about "trees" of such a species would be FALSE?
A)
Fertilization would probably be more difficult.
B)
Spore dispersal distances would probably increase.
C)
Females could produce only one archegonium.
D)
Individuals would probably compete more effectively for access to light.
59)
Which of the following features of how seedless land plants get sperm to egg
are the same as for some of their algal ancestors?
A)
Conjugation tubes are formed between sperm and egg cells.
B)
Packets of sperm are delivered by wind to the eggs.
C)
Aquatic invertebrates carry sperm to eggs.
D)
Flagellated sperm swim to the eggs in a water drop.
60)
Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of a leaf when
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline is most analogous to a human _____.
A)
breathing faster as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase
B)
putting more red blood cells into circulation when atmospheric oxygen levels
decline
C)
breathing more slowly as atmospheric oxygen levels increase
D)
increasing the volume of its lungs when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
increase
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 30 Plant
Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
1)
Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution?
A)
the trend toward smaller size
B)
the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle
C)
the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle
D)
the trend toward larger gametophytes
2)
Which of the following lines of evidence would best support your assertion that
a particular plant is an angiosperm?
A)
It produces seeds.
B)
It retains its fertilized egg within its archaegonium.
C)
It lacks gametangia.
D)
It undergoes alternation of generations.
3)
Which of the following is NOT functionally important in cells of the
gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms?
A)
haploid nuclei
B)
mitochondria
C)
cell walls
D)
chloroplasts
4)
In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics is unique to the
seed-producing plants?
A)
sporopollenin
B)
lignin present in cell walls
C)
pollen
D)
megaphylls
5)
Suppose that the cells of seed plants, like the skin cells of humans, produce a
pigment upon increased exposure to ultraviolet radiation. Rank the following
cells, from greatest to least, in terms of the likelihood of producing this
pigment.
1. cells
of sporangium
2. cells
in the interior of a subterranean root
3. epidermal
cells of sporophyte megaphylls
4. cells
of a gametophyte
A)
3, 4, 1, 2
B)
3, 4, 2, 1
C)
3, 1, 4, 2
D)
3, 2, 1, 4
6)
Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in
which these plant traits originated.
1. sporophyte
dominance, gametophyte independence
2. sporophyte
dominance, gametophyte dependence
3. gametophyte
dominance, sporophyte dependence
A)
1 →? 2 → 3
B)
2 → 1 → 3
C)
3 → 2 → 1
D)
3 → 1 → 2
7)
In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a
function most like that of the seed coat?
A)
sporophyll
B)
sporopollenin
C)
stigma
D)
sporangium
8)
In terms of alternation of generations, the internal parts of the pollen grains
of seed-producing plants are most similar to a _____.
A)
moss sporophyte
B)
moss gametophyte bearing both male and female gametangia
C)
fern sporophyte
D)
fern gametophyte bearing only antheridia
9)
A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains
sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the
researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then rinses away the
excess stain, what should occur?
A)
The pollen grains will be pure red.
B)
The pollen grains will be pure blue.
C)
The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.
D)
The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors.
10)
Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the
pollen tube of angiosperms?
A)
male gametophyte
B)
female gametophyte
C)
male sporophyte
D)
female sporophyte
11)
The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are _____.
A)
ferns, horsetails, lycophytes, and club mosses
B)
hornworts, liverworts, and mosses
C)
gnetophytes, cycads, and ginkgos
D)
elms, maples, and aspens
12)
Conifers and pines both have needlelike leaves, with the adaptive advantage of
_____.
A)
increased surface area, increasing photosynthesis
B)
increased surface area, increasing gas exchange
C)
decreased surface area, reducing gas exchange
D)
decreased surface area, reducing water loss
13)
Which of the following statements correctly describes a portion of the pine
life cycle?
A)
Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs.
B)
Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones.
C)
Pollen grains contain female gametophytes.
D)
A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm.
14)
Which of the following statements is true of the pine life cycle?
A)
The pine tree is a gametophyte.
B)
Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis.
C)
Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes.
D)
Double fertilization is a relatively common phenomenon.
15)
Within a gymnosperm megasporangium, what is the correct sequence in which the
following should appear during development, assuming that fertilization occurs?
1. sporophyte
embryo
2. female
gametophyte
3. egg
cell
4. megaspore
A)
4 → 2 → 3 → 1
B)
4 → 1 → 2 → 3
C)
1 → 4 → 3 → 2
D)
1 → 4 → 2 → 3
16)
Arrange the following structures, which can be found on male pine trees, from
the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to
least inclusive).
1. sporophyte
2. microspores
3. microsporangia
4. pollen
cone
5. pollen
nuclei
A)
1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B)
1, 2, 3, 5, 4
C)
4, 1, 2, 3, 5
D)
4, 3, 2, 5, 1
17)
Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces
the integument of a pine seed?
A)
male gametophyte
B)
female gametophyte
C)
male sporophyte
D)
female sporophyte
18)
Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the
megasporangium of pine ovules?
A)
male gametophyte
B)
female gametophyte
C)
male sporophyte
D)
female sporophyte
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
The
cycads, a mostly tropical phylum of gymnosperms, evolved about 300 million
years ago and were dominant forms during the Age of the Dinosaurs. Though their
sperm are flagellated, their ovules are pollinated by beetles. These beetles
get nutrition (they eat pollen) and shelter from the microsporophylls. Upon
visiting megasporophylls, the beetles transfer pollen to the exposed ovules. In
cycads, pollen cones and seed cones are borne on different plants. Cycads
synthesize neurotoxins, especially in the seeds, that are effective against
most animals, including humans.
19)
Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms?
1. They
have exposed ovules.
2. They
have flagellated sperm.
3. They
are pollinated by animals.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
2 and 3
20)
On the Pacific island of Guam, large herbivorous bats called "flying
foxes" commonly feed on cycad seeds, a potent source of neurotoxins. The
flying foxes do not visit male cones. Consequently, what should be true?
A)
The flying foxes are attracted to cycad fruit and eat the enclosed seeds only
by accident.
B)
Flying foxes are highly susceptible to the effects of the neurotoxins.
C)
The flying foxes assist the beetles as important pollinating agents of the
cycads.
D)
Flying foxes can be dispersal agents of cycad seeds if the seeds sometimes get
swallowed whole (in other words, without getting chewed).
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to
tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to
over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite
nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits,
each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts
are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are
harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of
Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees
as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the
only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut
fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still
others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may
subsequently germinate.
21)
Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees.
A)
breezes
B)
rain droplets
C)
seed-eating birds
D)
squirrels
22)
Many mammals have skins and mucous membranes that are sensitive to phenolic
secretions of plants like poison oak (Rhus). These secondary compounds
are primarily adaptations that _____.
A)
favor pollination
B)
foster seed dispersal
C)
decrease competition
D)
inhibit herbivory
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to
tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to
over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite
nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits,
each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts
are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are
harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of
Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees
as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the
only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut
fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still
others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may
subsequently germinate.
23)
Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from plantations grown in
Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees in South American plantations
also failed. In both cases, the trees grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers
in profusion, but set no fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the
problem?
A)
poor sporophyte viability
B)
failure to produce fertile ovules
C)
failure to produce pollen
D)
pollination failure
24)
The agouti is most directly involved with the Brazil nut tree's dispersal of
_____.
A)
female gametophytes
B)
sporophyte embryos
C)
sporophyte megaspores
D)
female gametes
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Scarlet
gilia (Ipomopsis aggregata) usually has red flowers in an inflorescence
of up to 250 flowers. In certain populations in the Arizona mountains, however,
the flowers range from red to pink to white. In early summer, most of the
flowers were red. Six to eight weeks later, the same individual plants were
still present; the flowers ranged from pink to white, and few red flowers were
present. The major pollinators early in the season were two species of
hummingbirds active during the day; they emigrated to lower elevations, and the
major pollinator later in the season was a hawk moth (a type of moth). The hawk
moth was most active at sunset and later, and it preferred light pink to white
flowers after dark. When hummingbirds were present, more red flowers than white
flowers produced fruit. When only hawk moths were present, more white flowers
produced fruit (K. N. Paige and T. G. Whitham. 1985. Individual and population
shifts in flower color by scarlet gilia: A mechanism for pollinator tracking. Science
227:315-17).
25)
Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. What is the significance of measuring
fruit production?
A)
It is a measure of pollination success.
B)
It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
C)
It is easier than counting flowers.
D)
It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
26)
Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. Late in the season, when only hawk
moths were present, researchers painted the red flowers white. What would you
expect?
A)
Unpainted red flowers would produce more fruits than white flowers would.
B)
Red flowers painted white would produce more fruits than red flowers would.
C)
Red and white flowers would produce the same numbers of fruits.
27)
Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. Some plants changed their flowers to
lighter colors, and some retained the same darker color all season. Which
plants do you expect produced more fruit?
A)
those that changed their color to a lighter shade
B)
those that stayed darker
C)
the same numbers of fruit on both
28)
Immature seed cones of conifers are usually green before pollination, and
flowers of grasses are inconspicuously colored. What does this indicate about
their pollination?
A)
They self-fertilize and do not need pollen carried from one plant to another.
B)
Their pollinating insects are color blind.
C)
They are wind pollinated.
D)
They probably attract pollinators using strong fragrances.
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
In
onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each
nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion
tissues.
29)
How many chromosomes should be in a tube cell nucleus?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
24
D)
32
30)
How many chromosomes should be in an endosperm nucleus?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
24
D)
32
31)
How many chromosomes should be in a generative cell nucleus?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
24
D)
32
32)
How many chromosomes should be in an embryo sac nucleus?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
24
D)
32
33)
How many chromosomes should be in an embryo nucleus?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
24
D)
32
34)
How many chromosomes should be in a megasporangium nucleus?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
24
D)
32
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical
rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50
meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite nesting site
for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each
containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are
composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested
each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil
nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as
pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the
only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut
fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others
inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may
subsequently germinate.
35)
Animals that consume Brazil nuts derive nutrition mostly from tissue whose
nuclei have how many chromosomes?
A)
17
B)
34
C)
51
D)
68
36)
A botanist discovers a new species of land plant with a dominant sporophyte,
chlorophylls a and b, and cell walls made of cellulose. In
assigning this plant to a phylum, which of the following, if present, would be
LEAST useful?
A)
endosperm
B)
seeds
C)
flowers
D)
spores
37)
Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the
fruit of angiosperms?
A)
male gametophyte
B)
female gametophyte
C)
male sporophyte
D)
female sporophyte
38)
Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A)
double internal fertilization
B)
free-living gametophytes
C)
carpels that contain microsporangia
D)
ovules that are not contained within ovaries
39)
What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species
whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to
angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means?
1. The
exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks.
2. The
seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the
animal's mouth.
3. The
seed coat should be able to withstand low pHs.
4. The
seed coat, upon its complete digestion, should provide vitamins or nutrients to
animals.
5. The
seed coat should be resistant to the animals' digestive enzymes.
A)
4 only
B)
1 and 2
C)
2 and 3
D)
3 and 5
40)
The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell
divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the
generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells?
A)
binary fission
B)
mitosis
C)
meiosis
D)
meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis
41)
Among plants known as legumes (beans, peas, alfalfa, clover, for example) the
seeds are contained in a fruit that is itself called a legume, better known as
a pod. Upon opening such pods, it is commonly observed that some ovules have
become mature seeds, whereas other ovules have not. Thus, which of the
following statements is (are) true?
1. The
flowers that gave rise to such pods were not pollinated.
2. Pollen
tubes did not enter all of the ovules in such pods.
3. There
was apparently not enough endosperm to distribute to all of the ovules in such
pods.
4. The
ovules that failed to develop into seeds were derived from sterile floral
parts.
5. Fruit
can develop, even if all ovules within have not been fertilized.
A)
1 and 5
B)
2 and 4
C)
2 and 5
D)
3 and 5
42)
Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest, assuming that they
belong to two generations of the same angiosperm.
1. ovary
2. ovule
3. egg
4. carpel
5. embryo
sac
A)
4, 5, 2, 1, 3
B)
5, 4, 3, 1, 2
C)
5, 1, 4, 2, 3
D)
4, 1, 2, 5, 3
43)
The fruit of the mistletoe, a parasitic angiosperm, is a one-seeded berry. In
members of the genus Viscum, the outside of the seed is viscous
(sticky), which permits the seed to adhere to surfaces such as the branches of
host plants or the beaks of birds. What should be expected of the fruit if the
viscosity of Viscum seeds is primarily an adaptation for dispersal
rather than an adaptation for infecting host plant tissues? It should ______.
A)
be drab in color
B)
be colored so as to provide it with camouflage
C)
be nutritious to the dispersing organisms
D)
secrete enzymes that can digest bark
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
The
cycads, a mostly tropical phylum of gymnosperms, evolved about 300 million
years ago and were dominant forms during the Age of the Dinosaurs. Though their
sperm are flagellated, their ovules are pollinated by beetles. These beetles
get nutrition (they eat pollen) and shelter from the microsporophylls. Upon
visiting megasporophylls, the beetles transfer pollen to the exposed ovules. In
cycads, pollen cones and seed cones are borne on different plants. Cycads
synthesize neurotoxins, especially in the seeds, that are effective against
most animals, including humans.
44)
Which feature of cycads makes them similar to many angiosperms?
1. They
have exposed ovules.
2. They
have flagellated sperm.
3. They
are pollinated by animals.
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
3 only
D)
2 and 3
45)
If the beetles survive by consuming cycad pollen, then whether the beetles
should be considered mutualists with, or parasites of, the cycads depends upon
the ____.
A)
extent to which their overall activities affect cycad reproduction
B)
extent to which the beetles are affected by the neurotoxins
C)
extent to which the beetles damage the cycad flowers
D)
distance the beetles must travel between cycad microsporophylls and cycad
megasporophylls
46)
If one were to propose a new taxon of plants that included all plants that are
pollinated by animals, and only plants that are pollinated by animals, then
this new taxon would be _____.
A)
monophyletic
B)
paraphyletic
C)
polyphyletic
D)
identical in composition to the phylum Anthophyta
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
Oviparous
(egg-laying) animals have internal fertilization (sperm cells encounter eggs
within the female's body). Yolk and/or albumen is (are) provided to the embryo,
and a shell is then deposited around the embryo and its food source. Eggs are
subsequently deposited in an environment that promotes their further
development, or are incubated by one or both parents.
47)
The yolk of an animal egg has what type of analog in angiosperms?
A)
endosperm
B)
carpels
C)
fruit
D)
seed coat
48)
The shell of a fertilized animal egg has what type of analog in angiosperms?
A)
endosperm
B)
carpels
C)
fruit
D)
seed coat
49)
The internal fertilization that occurs prior to shell deposition has what type
of analog in angiosperms?
A)
endosperm proliferation
B)
growth of pollen tube and delivery of sperm nuclei
C)
fusion of carpels into a fruit
D)
seed coat hardening
50)
The laying of eggs has what type of analog in angiosperms?
A)
endosperm breakdown
B)
fusion of carpels into a fruit
C)
fruit dispersal
D)
seed coat hardening
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to
tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to
over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite
nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits,
each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts
are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are
harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of
Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees
as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the
only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut
fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still
others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may
subsequently germinate.
51)
If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with nectar in her
stomach, and if she visits another flower on a different Brazil nut tree, what
is the sequence in which the following events should occur?
1. double
fertilization
2. pollen
tube emerges from pollen grain
3. pollen
tube enters micropyle
4. pollination
A)
4, 2, 3, 1
B)
4, 3, 2, 1
C)
2, 4, 3, 1
D)
2, 4, 1, 3
52)
Stamens, sepals, petals, carpels, and pinecone scales are all _____.
A)
female reproductive parts
B)
capable of photosynthesis
C)
modified leaves
D)
found on flowers
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to
tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to
over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite
nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits,
each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts
are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are
harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of
Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees
as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the
only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut
fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still
others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may
subsequently germinate.
53)
The harpy eagle, Harpia harpyja, is the largest, most powerful raptor in
the Americas. It nests only in trees taller than 25 meters. It is a "sloth
specialist," but will also take agouti. Thus, if these eagles capture too
many agoutis from a particular locale, they might contribute to their own
demise by _____.
A)
having too many offspring
B)
decreasing their habitat
C) decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide
D)
increasing the number of sloths
54)
Native peoples traditionally use Brazil nuts to treat stomach ache,
inflammation, hypersensitivity, and hepatitis. Consequently, a scientist should
be interested in promoting _____.
A)
better education for the native peoples so that they will overcome their old
ways
B)
clear-cutting forests containing Brazil nut trees to make way for crops with
proven medical benefits
C)
an increase in the living standards of the native peoples so that they might be
able to purchase modern pharmaceuticals
D)
the evaluation of Brazil nut chemicals for use as potential drugs
55)
People who attempted to plant Brazil nuts in hopes of establishing plantations
of Brazil nut trees played roles most similar to those of _____.
A)
agoutis
B)
orchid bees
C)
pollen tubes
D)
harpy eagles
56)
The same bees that pollinate the flowers of the Brazil nut trees also pollinate
orchids, which are epiphytes (in other words, plants that grow on other
plants); however, orchids cannot grow on Brazil nut trees. These observations
explain _____.
A)
the coevolution of Brazil nut trees and orchids
B)
why Brazil nut trees do not set fruit in monoculture plantations
C)
why male orchid bees do not pollinate Brazil nut tree flowers
D)
why male orchid bees are smaller than female orchid bees
57)
The taller a Brazil nut tree is, _____.
1. the
more valuable it is as a source of lumber
2. the
less useful it is to harpy eagles
3. the
greater its photosynthetic rate relative to neighboring plants
A)
1 only
B)
1 and 2
C)
1 and 3
D)
2 and 3
58)
Ecologists often build models to depict the relationships between organisms. In
such models, an arrow is used to link two organisms in a relationship. The
arrowhead is next to the organism that is affected. If the effect is positive,
the arrow is labeled with (+), and if negative, then the label is (-). Which of
the following models best illustrates the relationship of the Brazil nut tree
and the other organisms associated with it?
A)
B)
C)
D)
59)
Ecologists often build models to depict the relationships between organisms. In
such models, an arrow is used to link two organisms in a relationship. The
arrowhead is next to the organism that is affected. If the effect is positive,
the arrow is labeled with (+), and if negative, then the label is (-). Capuchin
monkeys have been known to use rocks to smash open the fruits of Brazil nut
trees. On the rare occasions when this has been observed, the monkeys consume
all of the Brazil nuts. Thus, which of the following correctly depicts the
relationship between capuchin monkeys and Brazil nut trees?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Harold
and Kumar are pre-med and pre-pharmacy students, respectively. They complain to
their biology professor that they should not have to study about plants because
plants have little relevance to their chosen professions.
60)
Which adaptations of land plants are likely to provide Harold with future
patients?
I) sporophyte
dominance
II) defenses
against herbivory
III) adaptations
related to wind dispersal of pollen
A)
I and II
B)
II and III
C)
I and III
D)
I, II, and III
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