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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 52 An
Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
1)
Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?
A)
speciation ecology
B)
population ecology
C)
community ecology
D)
ecosystem ecology
2)
What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its
orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?
A)
The seasons would disappear.
B)
Winters and summers would be more severe.
C)
Winters and summers would be less severe.
D)
The seasons would be shorter.
3)
Which of the following might be an investigation of microclimate?
A)
the effect of ambient temperature on the onset of caribou migration
B)
the seasonal population fluctuation of nurse sharks in coral reef communities
C)
competitive interactions between various species of songbirds during spring
migration
D)
the effect of sunlight intensity on species composition in a decaying rat
carcass
4)
Which of the following choices includes all of the others in creating global
terrestrial climates?
A)
differential heating of Earth's surface
B)
ocean currents
C)
global wind patterns
D)
Earth's rotation on its axis
5)
Why is the climate drier on the leeward (downwind) side of mountain ranges that
are subjected to prevailing winds?
A)
Deserts create dry conditions on the leeward side of mountain ranges.
B)
The sun illuminates the leeward side of mountain ranges at a more direct angle,
converting to heat energy, which evaporates most of the water present.
C)
Pushed by the prevailing winds on the windward side, air is forced to rise,
cool, condense, and drop its precipitation, leaving drier air to descend the
leeward side.
D)
Air masses pushed by the prevailing winds are stopped by mountain ranges and
the moisture is used up in the stagnant air masses on the leeward side.
6)
What would be the effect on climate in the temperate latitudes if Earth were to
slow its rate of rotation from a 24-hour period of rotation to a 48-hour period
of rotation?
A)
Seasons would be longer and more distinct (colder winters and warmer summers).
B)
Large-scale weather events such as tornadoes and hurricanes would no longer be
a part of regional climates.
C)
Winter seasons in both the northern and southern hemispheres would have more
abundant and frequent precipitation events.
D)
There often would be a larger range between daytime high and nighttime low
temperatures.
7)
Subtropical plants are commonplace in Land's End, England, whose latitude is
the equivalent of Labrador in coastal Canada, where the local flora is
subarctic. Which statement best explains why this apparent anomaly exists
between North America and Europe?
A)
Labrador does not get enough rainfall to support the subtropical flora found in
Land's End.
B)
Warm ocean currents interact with England, whereas cold ocean currents interact
with Labrador.
C)
Rainfall fluctuates greatly in England; rainfall is consistently high in
Labrador.
D)
Labrador receives sunlight of lower duration and intensity than does Land's
End.
8)
In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be
expected to _____.
A)
receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures
B)
be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes
C)
support biological communities similar to those found at lower elevations on
similar south-facing slopes
D)
support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on
similar south-facing slopes
9)
Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth's
axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased to 
degrees?
degrees?
A)
Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder,
respectively.
B)
Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease.
C)
Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at
the same time.
D)
Both poles would experience massive ice melts.
10)
Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular
to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this
change would be _____.
A)
the elimination of tides
B)
an increase in the length of a year
C)
a decrease in temperature at the equator
D)
the elimination of seasonal variation
11)
The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that _____.
A)
sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle
B)
the poles are farther from the sun
C)
the polar atmosphere is thinner and contains fewer greenhouse gases
D)
the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun
12)
The success of plants extending their range northward following glacial retreat
is best determined by _____.
A)
whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores
B)
their tolerance to shade
C)
their seed dispersal rate
D)
their size
13)
As climate changes because of global warming, plant species' ranges in the
northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid
extinction in such an environment are those that _____.
A)
have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals
B)
produce well-provisioned seeds
C)
have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire
D)
disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree
14)
Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by
_____.
A)
rising, warm, moist air masses that cool and release precipitation as they rise
and then, at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses
after moving north or south of the tropics
B)
air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool
aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air
from ocean to land, delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas
C)
polar, cool, moist high-pressure air masses from the poles that move along the
surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator, where they are
heated and dried
D)
the revolution of Earth around the sun
15)
Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies
where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra
Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the outcome of this
encounter between a landform and an air mass?
A)
The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation
as it passes the tops of the mountains. This warm, now dry air cools as it
descends on the leeward side of the range.
B)
The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it
moves up the windward side of the range. This cool, now dry air mass heats up
as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
C)
The cool, dry Pacific air heats up and picks up moisture from evaporation of
the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as
precipitation when the air cools while descending on the leeward side of the
range.
D)
These air masses are blocked by the mountain ranges, producing high annual
amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges.
16)
Coral reefs can be found on the southeast coast of the United States but not at
similar latitudes on the southwest coast. Differences in which of the following
most likely account for this?
A)
precipitation
B)
day length
C)
ocean currents
D)
salinity
17)
Which of the following investigations would shed the most light on the future
distribution of organisms in temperate regions that are faced with climate
change?
A)
Remove, to the mineral soil, all of the organisms from an experimental plot and
monitor the colonization of the area over time in terms of both species
diversity and abundance.
B)
Look at the climatic changes that occurred since the last Ice Age and how
species redistributed as glaciers melted, then make predictions on future
distribution in species based on past trends.
C)
Compare and contrast the flora and fauna of warm/cold/dry/wet climates to shed
light on how they evolved to be suited to their present-day environment.
D)
Quantify the impact of man's activities on present-day populations of
threatened and endangered species to assess the rate of extirpation and
extinction.
18)
Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually
_____.
A)
tropical
B)
humid
C)
rising
D)
descending
19)
When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities
that are analogous to the changes _____.
A)
in biomes at different latitudes
B)
in a community through different seasons
C)
in an ecosystem as it evolves over time
D)
across the United States from east to west
20)
If the direction of Earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect
would be _____.
A)
a big change in the length of the year
B)
winds blowing from west to east along the equator
C)
a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes
D)
the elimination of ocean currents
21)
Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements are
correct?
I) Area
1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature.
II) Area
1 has more average precipitation than Area 2.
III) Area
2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation.
IV) Area
2 has a larger annual temperature variation.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
22)
Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements are
correct?
I) Area
1 has more average precipitation than Area 2.
II) Area
1 has a higher average temperature than Area 2.
III) Both
areas have low variation in monthly precipitation.
IV) Area
2 has a lower annual temperature variation compared to Area 1.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
only I, II, and III
23)
Besides sunlight, which would be the next most important climatic factors for
terrestrial plants?
A)
wind and fire
B)
moisture and wind
C)
temperature and wind
D)
temperature and moisture
24)
Which statement describes how climate might change if Earth was 75 percent land
and 25 percent water?
A)
Terrestrial ecosystems would likely experience more precipitation.
B)
Earth's daytime temperatures would be higher and nighttime temperatures lower.
C)
Summers would be longer and winters shorter at midlatitude locations.
D)
Earth would experience an unprecedented global warming.
25)
If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take
the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)?
A)
temperate broadleaf forest and grassland
B)
desert and chaparral
C)
tropical forest and savanna
D)
chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest
26)
Fire suppression by humans _____.
A)
can change the species composition within biological communities.
B)
will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of forest
products for human use.
C)
is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species.
D)
is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy
condition of forest communities.
27)
Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire
and ecosystems?
A)
The likelihood of a wildfire occurring in a given ecosystem is highly
predictable over the short term.
B)
Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
C)
The suppression of forest fires by man has prevented certain communities, such
as grasslands, from reaching their climax stage.
D)
Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.
The
eight climographs below show yearly temperature (line graph and left vertical
axis) and precipitation (bar graph and right vertical axis) averages for each
month for some locations on Earth.
28)
Which climograph shows the climate for location 1?
A)
A
B)
C
C)
E
D)
H
29)
Which climograph shows the climate for location 2?
A)
C
B)
D
C)
F
D)
H
30)
Which climograph shows the climate for location 3?
A)
B
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
31)
Which climograph shows the climate for location 4?
A)
A
B)
C
C)
E
D)
G
32)
Which climograph shows the climate for location 5?
A)
A
B)
C
C)
D
D)
H
33)
Which of the following best substantiates why location 3 is an equatorial
(tropical) climate?
A)
It has a monsoon season during the winter months.
B)
The temperature is high for each monthly average.
C)
The temperatures reach 100°F during some months.
D)
The temperatures are lower in June, July, and August.
34)
In areas of permafrost, stands of black spruce are frequently observed in the
landscape, while other tree species are noticeably absent. Often these stands
are referred to as "drunken forests" because many of the black spruce
are displaced from their normal vertical alignment. What is the most likely
explanation for the unusual growth of these forests in this marginal habitat?
A)
Branches are adapted to absorb more carbon dioxide with this displaced
alignment.
B)
Taproot formation is impossible, so trees developed shallow root beds.
C)
Trees are tilted so snow prevents them from breaking or tipping over.
D)
Trees tip so that they do not compete with each other for sunlight.
35)
Which of the following is an important feature of most terrestrial biomes?
A)
annual average rainfall in excess of 250 centimeters
B)
a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C)
clear boundaries between adjacent biomes
D)
vegetation demonstrating vertical layering
36)
Suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of
vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes
would you find the greatest number of bird species?
A)
tropical rain forest
B)
savanna
C)
temperate broadleaf forest
D)
temperate grassland
37)
Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although
the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar
as a result of _____.
A)
convergent evolution
B)
allopatric speciation
C)
introgression
D)
gene flow
38)
In the figure above, which number would designate the arctic tundra biome?
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5
39)
In the figure above, which number would designate the biome with the highest
variation in annual precipitation?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
40)
Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements is
true?
A)
Area 1 could be called a boreal forest/taiga.
B)
Area 2 could be called a temperate grassland.
C)
Area 1 could be called a tropical wet/rain forest.
D)
Area 2 could be tundra.
41)
In deep water, which of the following abiotic factors would most limit
productivity?
A)
temperature
B)
light availability
C)
solute concentration
42)
Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater, just like lakes and ponds. However,
wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because wetlands have _____.
A)
emergent vegetation
B)
oxygen-poor water
C)
shallow water and emergent vegetation
D)
emergent vegetation and oxygen-poor water
43)
Which of the following statements regarding turnover in a lake is correct?
A)
In fall turnover, dense water at 4°C sinks and disturbs sediments in the benthic
zone.
B)
In fall turnover, dense water at 4°C rises and disturbs sediments in the
benthic zone.
C)
The surface water gets to 4°C only by cooling.
D)
Fall turnovers and spring turnovers are exactly the same.
44)
A fish swimming into an estuary from a river would have which of the following
as its greatest physiological challenge?
A)
The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy.
B)
The low oxygen content would give the fish difficulty in swimming aerobically.
C)
The temperature change would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins.
D)
The change in water solute content would challenge the osmotic balance of the
fish.
45)
Which of the following types of organisms is likely to have the widest
geographic distribution?
A)
bacteria
B)
songbirds
C)
bears
D)
lizards
46)
Which of the following can be said about light in aquatic environments?
A)
Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light.
B)
Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths.
C)
Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species.
D)
Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is too intense.
47)
Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made
possible by which of the following?
A)
warm, less dense water layered at the top
B)
cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C)
a distinct thermocline between less dense, warm water and cold, dense water
D)
the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change
48)
Imagine that a deep temperate zone lake did not turn over during the spring and
fall seasons. Based on the physical and biological properties of limnetic
ecosystems, what would be the difference from normal seasonal turnover?
A)
The lake would fail to freeze over in winter.
B)
An algal bloom of algae would result every spring.
C)
Lakes would suffer a nutrient depletion in surface layers.
D)
The pH of the lake would become increasingly alkaline.
49)
If you are interested in observing a relatively simple community structure in a
clear water lake, you would do well to choose diving into _____.
A)
an oligotrophic lake
B)
a eutrophic lake
C)
a relatively shallow lake
D)
a nutrient-rich lake
50)
If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the
atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70 percent for
one year, which of the following marine communities most likely would be least
affected?
A)
deep-sea vent
B)
coral reef
C)
intertidal
D)
estuary
51)
The oceans affect the biosphere by _____.
I) producing
a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen
II) adding
carbon dioxide to the atmosphere
III) being
the source of most of Earth's rainfall
IV) regulating
the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only I, II, and III
52)
A fish species known for its success in the aphotic zone may have which of the
following characteristics?
I) symbioses
with photosynthetic organisms
II) highly
developed chemoreception
III) adaptations
for burrowing
IV) adaptations
for sit-and-wait predation
A)
only I and III
B)
only I, II, and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
only I, II, and III
53)
Which of the following is responsible for the differences in summer and winter temperature
stratification of deep temperate zone lakes?
A)
Water is densest at 4°C.
B)
Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters.
C)
Winter ice sinks in the summer.
D)
Stratification is caused by a thermocline.
54)
A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at
elevations above 2800 meters in the western United States. To understand why
this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should _____.
A)
study the anatomy and physiology of this species
B)
investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high
altitude
C)
analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique
chemicals that may support their growth
D)
collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these
locations for a year
55)
Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome
distribution?
A)
Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which
biome will be found in an area.
B)
Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome
distribution if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means.
C)
The average climate and pattern of climate are important in determining biome
distribution.
D)
Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the
cause of biome patterns.
56)
In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all
the others?
A)
the species of colonizing animals
B)
prevailing rainfall
C)
mineral nutrient availability
D)
soil structure
57)
Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists _____.
A)
determine the distribution of a species in a specified area
B)
develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms
C)
determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms
D)
consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem
Use
the following diagram showing the spread of the cattle egret, Bubulcus ibis,
since its arrival in the New World, to answer the question below.
58)
The range of cattle egrets has expanded between 1937 and today. How would an
ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret?
A)
Climatic factors, such as temperature and precipitation, provide a suitable
habitat for cattle egrets.
B)
There are no predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to
expand their range.
C)
A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and
abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants.
D)
The first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable
of competing with the native species of herons and egrets.
59)
Which statements about dispersal are correct?
I) Dispersal
is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals.
II) Colonization
of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions primarily depends upon
climate.
III) Seeds
are important dispersal stages in the life cycles of most flowering plants.
IV) Dispersal
occurs only on an evolutionary time scale.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
60)
Which of the following examples of an ecological effect leading to an
evolutionary effect is most correct?
A)
When seeds are not plentiful, trees produce more seeds.
B)
A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age, and
the reproducing survivors of the ice age will likely have more dense fur.
C)
Fish that swim the fastest in running water catch the most prey and more easily
escape predation.
D)
The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight have the most
mutations.
61)
If carbon dioxide levels continue to increase and climate change continues over
the next century, which of the following would best predict the directional
migration of the North American ecosystems from the biomes shown in this
climograph?
A)
The ecosystems will shift to the south due to decreasing transpiration rates.
B)
The ecosystems will move to both the eastern and western coastlines as these
areas will be more moderate.
C)
The ecosystems will move down mountains as the temperatures warm.
D)
The ecosystems will shift to the north as temperatures warm.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 53
Population Ecology
1)
In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an
animal may lay many eggs, of which a regular number die each year on a
logarithmic scale?
A)
curve A
B)
curve B
C)
curve C
2)
In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to
humans living in developed countries?
A)
curve A
B)
curve B
C)
curve C
D)
curve A or curve B
3)
Using the table above, how would you describe the population dynamics of L.
vivipara?
A)
The population is increasing.
B)
The population is decreasing.
C)
The population is stable.
D)
The figure does not provide this information.
4)
Using the table above, determine which age class year would hurt the population
growth most if it were wiped out by disease.
A)
age class year 1
B)
age class year 2
C)
age class year 3
D)
age class year 4
5)
Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of
300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the
estimate for total population size?
A)
200
B)
1050
C)
1600
D)
2100
6)
Looking at the figure above, what is contributing significantly to stabilizing
population size over time?
I) no
migration
II) low
migration
III) high
migration
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
7)
Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the mark-recapture
estimate of population size?
I) Marked
and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II) The
marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being
marked.
III)
No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or
emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during
the course of the estimate.
A)
I only
B)
II only
C)
I and II only
D)
I, II, and III
8)
Which of the following is the most important assumption for the mark-recapture
method to estimate the size of wildlife populations?
A)
More individuals emigrate from, as opposed to immigrate into, a population.
B)
Over 50% of the marked individuals need to be trapped during the recapture
phase.
C)
There is a 50:50 ratio of males to females in the population before and after
trapping and recapture.
D)
Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked
individuals during the recapture phase.
Use
the survivorship curves in the figure below to answer the following questions.
9)
Refer to the figure above. Which curve best describes survivorship in marine
molluscs?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
E
10)
Refer to the figure above. Which curve best describes survivorship in
elephants?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
E
11)
To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual
trout were netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The
next week, the lake was netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were
caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the mark-recapture estimate, the lake trout
population size could be closest to which of the following?
A)
200
B)
400
C)
1,600
D)
80,000
12)
Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move
nearly 2 kilometers from where they are born and become 1%-8% of the males and
0.7%-6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is
this significant?
A)
These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals, keeping the other
populations' size stable.
B)
These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other
populations.
C)
Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less
crowded conditions with more resources.
D)
Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a clumped to a
uniform population pattern of dispersion.
13)
A population is correctly defined as having which of the following
characteristics?
I) inhabiting
the same general area
II) belonging
to the same species
III) possessing
a constant and uniform density and dispersion
A)
III only
B)
I and II only
C)
II and III only
D)
I, II, and III
14)
An ecologist recorded twelve white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus,
per square kilometer in one woodlot and twenty per square kilometer in another
woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
A)
density
B)
dispersion
C)
carrying capacity
D)
range
15)
Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often
associated with _____.
A)
patterns of high humidity
B)
the random distribution of seeds
C)
competitive interaction between individuals of the same population
D)
the concentration of nutrients within the population's range
16)
Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform
dispersion?
A)
red squirrels, who actively defend territories
B)
cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
C)
dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
D)
lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen
17)
Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of
the population being studied?
A)
counting the number of times a one-kilometer transect is intersected by tracks
of red squirrels after a snowfall
B)
counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare
C)
counting the number of moss plants in one-square-meter quadrants
D)
counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.
18)
Which of the following scenarios would provide the most relevant data on
population density?
A)
Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this
by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals.
B)
Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-meter-square
plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots
represent.
C)
Use the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of the population.
D)
Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if
the population is growing or shrinking.
19)
Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform distribution?
A)
bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow
B)
snails in an intertidal zone at low tide
C)
territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season
D)
mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest
Use
the survivorship curves in the figure below to answer the following questions.
20)
Refer to the figure above. Which statement best explains survivorship curve B?
A)
It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care, but lots of care
for offspring during midlife as indicated by increased survivorship.
B)
This curve is likely for a species that produces lots of offspring, only a few
of which are expected to survive.
C)
It is likely a species where no individuals in the cohort die when they are at
60-70% relative age.
D)
Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in
nature.
21)
In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves applies to most
plant species?
A)
curve A
B)
curve B
C)
curve C
22)
In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000
people. How many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008
growth rate was 0.88%?
A)
5,500,000
B)
303,000,000
C)
304,000,000
D)
2,710,800,000
23)
In 2008, the population of New Zealand was approximately 4,275,000 people. If
the birth rate was 14 births for every 1000 people, approximately how many
births occurred in New Zealand in 2008?
A)
6,000
B)
42,275
C)
60,000
D)
140,000
24)
In the figure above, which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate
increase (r)?
A)
line A
B)
line B
C)
line C
D)
line D
25)
A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06
and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total
number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals
in one year.
A)
120 individuals added
B)
40 individuals added
C)
20 individuals added
D)
400 individuals added
26)
Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria
at the end of a two-hour time period if they reproduce by binary fission every
twenty minutes? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.)
A)
16
B)
32
C)
64
D)
128
27)
Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single
bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a
two-hour period?
A)
B)
C)
D)
28)
During exponential growth, a population always _____.
A)
grows at its maximum per capita rate
B)
quickly reaches its carrying capacity
C)
cycles through time
D)
loses some individuals to emigration
29)
Consider two old-growth forests: one is undisturbed while the other is being
logged. In which region are species likely to experience exponential growth,
and why?
A)
Old growth, because of stable conditions that would favor exponential growth of
all species in the forest.
B)
Old growth, because each of the species is well established and can produce
many offspring.
C)
Logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific
populations to grow.
D)
Logged, because the various populations are stimulated to a higher reproductive
potential.
30)
Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical
accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been
extirpated. After doing some research to determine what might be an
appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them. You then watch
the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of
individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal
axis). With no natural predators impacting the population, the graph will
likely appear as _____.
A)
a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation
B)
an "S" that ends with a vertical line
C)
an upside-down "U"
D)
a "J," increasing with each generation
31)
In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A)
arrow A
B)
arrow B
C)
arrow C
D)
Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent
control never reach carrying capacity.
32)
Which statements about K are correct?
I) K
varies among populations.
II) K
varies in space.
III) K
varies in time.
IV) K
is constant for any given species.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and III
D)
only II, III, and IV
33)
As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the
following is predicted by the logistic equation?
A)
The growth rate will not change.
B)
The growth rate will approach zero.
C)
The population will increase exponentially.
D)
The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
34)
Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an
exponential to a logistic population growth?
A)
favorable climatic conditions
B)
removal of predators
C)
decreased death rate
D)
competition for resources
35)
Which of the following graphs best illustrates the growth curve of a small
population of rodents that has increased to a static carrying capacity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
36)
According to the logistic growth equation, 
= rmaxN
,
= rmaxN,
A)
the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is
close to zero.
B)
the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K.
C)
population growth is zero when N equals K.
D)
the population grows exponentially when K is small.
37)
Looking at the data in the figure above, what can be said about survival and
clutch size?
A)
Animals with low survival tend to have smaller clutch sizes.
B)
Large clutch size correlates with low survival.
C)
Animals with high survival tend to have larger clutch sizes.
D)
Probability of survivorship does not correlate with clutch size.
38)
What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can
produce a very large number of very large eggs?
A)
Time is limited.
B)
There are energy constraints.
C)
Temperature constraints will prevent females from carrying too many eggs.
D)
There will be an increase in predation pressure if the females carry too many
large eggs.
39)
You observe two female fish of the same species breeding. One female lays 100
eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs. Which one of the following is LEAST
likely given the limits of fitness trade-offs?
A)
The female laying 100 eggs breeds more often than the female laying 1000 eggs.
B)
The female laying 100 eggs lives longer than the female laying 1000 eggs.
C)
The eggs from the female laying 1000 eggs have larger yolks than the yolks of
the eggs from the female laying 100 eggs.
D)
The female laying 1000 eggs is larger than the female laying 100 eggs.
40)
Based on the figure above, which of the following statements correctly
interprets the data?
A)
As female density increases, clutch size increases.
B)
As female density increases, survivorship decreases.
C)
Clutch size decreases as female density increases.
41)
Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable
population of wolves?
A)
semelparous; r-selected
B)
semelparous; K-selected
C)
iteroparous; r-selected
D)
iteroparous; K-selected
42)
Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between _____.
A)
choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how
long to live
B)
producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus
fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization
C)
increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode
and a corresponding decrease in parental care
D)
high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care
43)
Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations?
A)
offspring with good chances of survival
B)
many offspring per reproductive episode
C)
small offspring
D)
a high intrinsic rate of increase
44)
In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest
number of K-selected individuals?
A)
a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio
B)
a shifting sand dune community of south Lake Michigan
C)
an old-growth forest
D)
South Florida after a hurricane
45)
Graph (b) in the figure above shows the normal fluctuations of a population of
grouse. Assuming graph (a) in the figure above is the result of some
experimental treatment in the grouse population, what can be concluded?
A)
The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling.
B)
The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species.
C)
The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population
cycling.
D)
None of the other responses is true.
46)
What conclusion can you draw from the figure above?
A)
Hares control lynx population size.
B)
Lynx control hare population size.
C)
Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.
D)
The relationship between the populations cannot be determined only from this
graph.
47)
Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment, what
conclusion can you draw?
I) Food
is a factor in controlling hare population size.
II) Excluding
lynx is a factor in controlling hare population size.
III) The
effect of excluding predators and adding food in the same experiment is greater
than the sum of excluding lynx alone plus adding food alone.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
48)
Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another.
As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase.
Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population,
dN/dt = rN
,
,
which
of the factors accounts for the effect of the moose population?
A)
r
B)
N
C)
rN
D)
K
49)
Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth over several seasons of a
population of snowshoe hares that were introduced to an appropriate habitat
also inhabited by predators in northern Canada?
A)
B)
C)
D)
50)
The figure above represents the dynamics of _____.
A)
metapopulations
B)
extinction
C)
emigration
D)
both extinction and emigration
51)
Use the following abstract from Theoretical Population Biology to answer
the question.
Abstract:
We
derive measures for assessing the value of an individual habitat fragment for
the dynamics and persistence of a metapopulation living in a network of many
fragments. We demonstrate that the most appropriate measure of fragment value
depends on the question asked. Specifically, we analyze four alternative
measures: the contribution of a fragment to the metapopulation capacity of the
network, to the equilibrium metapopulation size, to the expected time to
metapopulation extinction and the long-term contribution of a fragment to
colonization events in the network. The latter measure is comparable to
density-dependent measures in general matrix population theory, though some
differences are introduced by the fact that "density dependence" is
spatially localized in the metapopulation context. We show that the value of a
fragment depends not only on the properties of the landscape but also on the
properties of the species. Most importantly, variation in fragment values
between the habitat fragments is greatest in the case of rare species that
occur close to the extinction threshold, as these species are likely to be
restricted to the most favorable parts of the landscape. We expect that the
measures of habitat fragment described and analyzed here have applications in
landscape ecology and in conservation biology.
Copyright
© 2003 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved. (Otso Ovaskainen and Ilkka Hanski.
2003. How much does an individual habitat fragment contribute to metapopulation
dynamics and persistence? Theoretical Population Biology 64:481-95.)
One
measure for the value of the patch was given by the long-term contribution of a
fragment to colonization events in the network. How do the properties of a
landscape and the properties of a species affect the value of a patch? The value
of the fragment depends _____.
A)
on the properties of the landscape and the properties of the species
B)
only on the properties of the landscape and not on the properties of the
species
C)
not on the properties of the landscape but only on the properties of the
species
D)
on neither the properties of the landscape nor on the properties of the species
52)
A population of white-footed mice becomes severely overpopulated in a habitat
that has been disturbed by human activity. Sometimes intrinsic factors cause
the population to increase in mortality and lower reproduction rates to occur
in reaction to the stress of overpopulation. Which of the following is an
example of intrinsic population control?
A)
Owl populations frequent the area more often because of increased hunting
success.
B)
Females undergo hormonal changes that delay sexual maturation, and many
individuals suffer depressed immune systems and die due to the stress of
overpopulation.
C)
Clumped dispersion of the population leads to increased spread of disease and
parasites, resulting in a population crash.
D)
All of the resources (food and shelter) are used up by overpopulation, and much
of the population dies of exposure and/or starvation.
53)
Based on the diagrams in the figure above and on the large population of baby
boomers in the United States, which graph best reflects U.S. population in
twenty years?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
54)
Which of the following statements regarding the future of populations in
developing countries are correct?
I) The
fecundity is predicted to increase.
II) Survivorship
will increase.
III) Overall
population size will increase dramatically.
IV) The
number of offspring each year is predicted to remain high.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
only I, II, and III
55)
Why does the 2009 U.S. population continue to grow even though the United
States has essentially established a zero population growth (ZPG)?
A)
emigration
B)
immigration
C)
baby boomer reproduction
D)
the 2007-2009 economic recession
Infant
mortality and life expectancy at birth in developed
and
developing countries (data as of 2005).
56)
What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above? Developed
countries have _____.
A)
lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing
countries
B)
higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing
countries
C)
lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing
countries
D)
higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing
countries
57)
A recent study of ecological footprints concluded that _____.
A)
Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption
increased
B)
current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than
the ecological footprint of those countries
C)
it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying
capacity for humans
D)
the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita
resource use is high
58)
Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized
countries are correct?
I) Life
history is r-selected.
II) The
population has undergone the demographic transition.
III) The
survivorship curve is Type III.
IV) Age
distribution is relatively uniform.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
The
following questions refer to the figure below, which depicts the age structure
of three populations.
59)
Which population(s) appear(s) to be stable?
A)
I
B)
III
C)
I and II
D)
II and III
60)
Based on the figure above and given the populations of the following countries,
which country uses the most oil overall?
A)
United States (population = 320 million)
B)
Canada (population = 36 million)
C)
China (population = 1.33 billion)
D)
Russia (population = 144 million)
61)
A population of squirrels on an island has a carrying capacity of 350
individuals. If the maximum rate of increase is 1.0 per individual per year and
the population size is 275, determine the population growth rate (Round to the
nearest whole number).
A)
59 squirrels per year
B)
-34 squirrels per year
C)
75 squirrels per year
D)
15 squirrels per year
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 54
Community Ecology
1)
Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march
along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and
pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of
the ants. This situation is an example of what kind of species interaction
between the birds and the ants?
A)
consumption
B)
commensalism
C)
parasitism
D)
mutualism
2)
In the hypothesis that C. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is
competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B. balanoides
(another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species?
A)
The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides and C. stellatus
are identical.
B)
The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides and C. stellatus
are different.
C)
The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are different, but
the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are identical.
D)
The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are identical, but
the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different.
3)
What conclusion can you draw from the figure above?
A)
Without direct contact, mussels can sense the presence of crabs.
B)
Mussels can sense the presence of crabs only visually.
C)
Mussels are increasing their shell thickness in response to water current.
D)
Crabs hunt for mussels by focusing on the chemicals they emit into the water.
4)
As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the
three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in
areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the
two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning.
When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species,
you discover that the offspring of both species are found to be nocturnal. You
have discovered an example of _____.
A)
mutualism
B)
character displacement
C)
Batesian mimicry
D)
resource partitioning
Use
the following diagram to answer the question(s) below.
In
this experiment, Balanus was removed from the habitat shown on the left.
5)
Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion of this experiment?
A)
Balanus can survive only in the lower intertidal zone because it is
unable to resist desiccation.
B)
Balanus is inferior to Chthamalus in competing for space on rocks
lower in the intertidal zone.
C)
The two species of barnacles do not compete with each other because they feed
at different times of day.
D)
The removal of Balanus shows that the realized niche of Chthamalus is
smaller than its fundamental niche.
6)
Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about _____.
A)
character displacement in the color of barnacles
B)
habitat preference in two different species of barnacles
C)
how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution
D)
competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species
The
symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between
individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol +
denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes
where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to
the first organism mentioned.
7)
What interactions exist between a lion pride and a hyena pack?
A)
+/+
B)
+/-
C)
o/o
D)
-/-
8)
What interactions exist between a tick on a dog and the dog?
A)
+/o
B)
+/-
C)
o/o
D)
-/-
9)
Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of
competitive exclusion?
A)
The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on
the population growth of the other competing species.
B)
Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing
species.
C)
Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of
the less well adapted of two competing species.
D)
Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.
10)
If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed
from the community, the remaining species would be expected to _____.
A)
change its fundamental niche
B)
decline in abundance
C)
become the target of specialized parasites
D)
expand its realized niche
11)
Which of the following is an example of a commensalism?
A)
fungi residing in plant roots, such as endomycorrhizae
B)
bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants
C)
rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew
D)
cattle egrets eating insects stirred up by grazing bison
12)
Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food.
Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. Researchers hypothesized
that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders. In an experiment,
researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared
them to a control plot. In the figure above, what can you conclude?
A)
Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.
B)
Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers
C)
Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.
D)
No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.
13)
During a one-year study, researchers found no difference in treehopper
populations in any of their control and experimental groups. What could they
measure during the second year to gain information about why this might have
occurred?
A)
Measure the number of ant females.
B)
Measure the relative sizes of the treehoppers.
C)
Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders.
D)
Measure the relative sizes of different ant species.
14)
Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between _____.
A)
sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches
B)
sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect
pollinator
C)
allopatric populations of the same animal species
D)
allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches
15)
Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration?
A)
bands on a coral snake
B)
brown or gray color of tree bark
C)
markings of a viceroy butterfly's wings
D)
a "walking stick" insect that resembles a twig
16)
Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry?
A)
two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern
B)
a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp
C)
a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf
D)
two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails
17)
Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
A)
a butterfly that resembles a leaf
B)
a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake
C)
a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment
D)
a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
18)
Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?
A)
the brightly colored patterns of poison dart frogs
B)
eye color in humans
C)
green color of a plant
D)
a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf
19)
Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They
obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees
derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best
describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees?
A)
mutualism
B)
parasitism
C)
competition
D)
facilitation
20)
In some circumstances, grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the
following terms would best describe such a plant-herbivore interaction?
A)
mutualism
B)
commensalism
C)
parasitism
D)
predation
21)
Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure
of an ecological community?
I) determining
how many species are present overall
II) determining
which particular species are present
III) determining
the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species
IV) determining
the relative abundance of species
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and III
D)
I, II, III, and IV
22)
Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn
about competitive interactions?
I) selectivity
of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds
II) the
grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison
III) stomach
analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist
A)
only I and II
B)
only I and III
C)
only II and III
D)
I, II, and III
23)
How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying all of its
fundamental niche or only a portion of it?
A)
Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species.
B)
Observe if the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar
non-native species.
C)
Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to
environmental stress.
D)
Observe if the species expands its range after the removal of a competitor.
The
symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between
individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol +
denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes
where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to
the first organism mentioned.
24)
What interactions exist between cellulose-digesting organisms in the gut of a
termite and the termite?
A)
+/+
B)
+/o
C)
+/-
D)
o/o
25)
What interactions exist between mycorrhizae and evergreen tree roots?
A)
+/+
B)
+/o
C)
+/-
D)
o/o
26)
Bouchard and Brooks studied the effect of insect flight on dispersal and
speciation in rain forest insects. They sampled all of the insects in the study
area and found that 60 insect species are flightless and 19 are macropterous
(able to fly). What can you conclude so far about this study?
(P.
Bouchard and D. R. Brooks. 2004. Effect of vagility potential on dispersal and
speciation in rainforest insects. Journal of Evolutionary Biology
17:994-1006.)
A)
Flightless insects have a greater dispersal potential from this study area.
B)
Flightless insects are more numerous in the study area.
C)
Flightless insects have a higher richness in the study area.
D)
Flightless insects are better suited for the tropics.
27)
What does the graph in the figure above tell you about the definition of a
keystone species?
A)
A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment.
B)
Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity.
C)
Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more diverse.
D)
Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the
invasion of a new species.
28)
In the figure above, which community has the highest species diversity?
A)
Community 1
B)
Community 2
C)
Community 1 and community 3 have the highest species diversity.
D)
Community 4
29)
Approximately how many kilograms (kg) of carnivore (secondary consumer) biomass
can be supported by a field plot containing 1000 kg of plant material?
A)
1000
B)
100
C)
10
D)
1
30)
In a tide pool, fifteen species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after
one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) _____.
A)
pathogen
B)
keystone species
C)
herbivore
D)
resource partitioner
31)
Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they
influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants,
but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take
away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The
newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which
of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this
scenario?
A)
Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the
community relative to their abundance.
B)
Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland.
C)
Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community.
D)
Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large
African predators.
32)
According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization,
which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of
a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact its prey (P) population, but
not vice versa?
A)
P ← C
B)
P → C
C)
C ↔ P
D)
P ← C → P
33)
Which of the following is a likely explanation for why invasive species take
over communities into which they have been introduced?
A)
Invasive species are less efficient than native species in competing for the
limited resources of the environment.
B)
Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease
that have always been in place for native species.
C)
Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species.
D)
Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are
introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.
34)
Imagine five forest communities, each with one hundred individuals distributed
among four different tree species (W, X, Y, and Z). Which forest community
would be most diverse?
A)
25W, 25X, 25Y, 25Z
B)
40W, 30X, 20Y, 10Z
C)
50W, 25X, 15Y, 10Z
D)
70W, 10X, 10Y, 10Z
Refer
to the following art to answer the question below.
35)
According to the Shannon Diversity Index, which of the five blocks above, with
each containing thirty-six squares, would show the greatest diversity?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
4
D)
5
Use
the following diagram of a hypothetical food web to answer the question(s)
below. The arrows represent the transfer of energy between the various trophic
levels.
36)
Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
D
D)
E
37)
Which letter represents an organism that could only be a primary consumer?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
38)
Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they _____.
A)
competitively exclude other predators
B)
prey on the community's dominant species
C)
allow immigration of other predators
D)
prey only on the least abundant species in the community
39)
Food chains are sometimes short because _____.
A)
only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species
B)
local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its
food chain
C)
most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher
level
D)
predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species
40)
Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland
community?
A)
limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount
B)
influence of temperature on competition among plants
C)
influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers
D)
effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity
41)
Recall that Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly
predictable and interrelated structure, while Gleason's view of biological
communities is that individual species operate independently. If we set up many
identical sterilized ponds in the same area and allowed them to be colonized,
what should we predict if we wished to test Gleason's hypothesis?
A)
Identical plankton communities will develop in all ponds.
B)
Similar plankton communities will develop in all ponds.
C)
Different plankton communities will develop in all ponds.
D)
Limited plankton communities will develop in all ponds.
42)
What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas? Controlled
burnings _____.
A)
eliminate the possibility of forest fires
B)
clear forested areas for farmland
C)
prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush
D)
allow new species to form
43)
According to the nonequilibrium model of community diversity, _____.
A)
community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition
B)
communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably
changed by disturbance
C)
interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time
D)
communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances
44)
Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community
diversity?
A)
Habitats are opened up for less competitive species.
B)
Competitively dominant species infrequently exclude less competitive species
after a moderate disturbance.
C)
The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports
diversity.
D)
Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with dominant species.
45)
Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species
diversity is increased by _____.
A)
frequent massive disturbance
B)
stable conditions with no disturbance
C)
moderate levels of disturbance
D)
intensive disturbance by humans
46)
In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all
invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A
possible factor in this secondary succession was _____.
A)
equilibrium
B)
immigration
C)
inhibition
D)
parasitism
47)
There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the
equator. This is probably a result of _____.
A)
fewer predators
B)
more intense annual solar radiation
C)
more frequent ecological disturbances
D)
fewer agents of disease
48)
Which of the following is a widely supported explanation for the tendency of
tropical communities to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar
communities?
A)
There are fewer parasites to negatively affect the health of tropical
communities.
B)
Tropical communities are low in altitude, whereas temperate and polar
communities are high in altitude.
C)
Tropical communities are generally older than temperate and polar communities.
D)
More competitive dominant species have evolved in temperate and polar
communities.
49)
Which of the following is a correct statement about the MacArthur/Wilson Island
Biogeography Model?
A)
As the number of species on an island increases, the emigration rate decreases.
B)
Competitive exclusion is less likely on an island that has large numbers of
species.
C)
Small islands receive few new immigrant species.
D)
Islands closer to the mainland have higher extinction rates.
Use
the following diagram of five islands formed at around the same time near a
particular mainland, as well as MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography
principles, to answer the question(s) below.
50)
Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity?
A)
A
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
51)
Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
E
52)
Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate?
A)
A
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
53)
According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness
would be greatest on an island that is _____.
A)
large and close to a mainland
B)
large and remote
C)
small and remote
D)
small and close to a mainland
54)
The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in
tropical than in temperate regions is that _____.
A)
tropical communities are younger
B)
tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar
radiation
C)
higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation
D)
tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of
extinction
55)
Zoonotic disease _____.
A)
is caused by suborganismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions only
B)
is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by
direct contact or by means of a vector
C)
can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact
D)
can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host
56)
Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat?
A)
Intermediate host species are more motile and transport pathogens to new areas.
B)
Pathogens evolve more efficient forms of reproduction in new environments.
C)
Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the
pathogen through natural selection.
D)
New environments are almost always smaller in area so that transmission of
pathogens is easily accomplished between hosts.
57)
Which of the following best describes the consequences of white-band disease in
Caribbean coral reefs?
A)
Staghorn coral is decimated by the pathogen, and Elkhorn coral takes its place.
B)
Key habitat for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fishes improves.
C)
Algal species take the place of the dead coral, and the fish community is
dominated by herbivores.
D)
Algal species take over and the overall reef diversity increases due to
increases in primary productivity.
58)
Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of
H5N1 virus from Asia?
A)
Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any
infected birds show up in Alaska.
B)
Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry
farms in Asia.
C)
Test for the presence of H5N1 in poultry used for human consumption worldwide.
D)
Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets.
59)
In terms of community ecology, why are pathogens often more virulent now than
in the past?
A)
More new pathogens have recently evolved.
B)
Host organisms have become more susceptible because of weakened immune systems.
C)
Human activities are transporting pathogens into new habitats (or communities)
at an unprecedented rate.
D)
Medicines for treating pathogenic disease are in short supply.
60)
The oak tree fungal pathogen, Phytophthora ramorum, has migrated eight
hundred kilometers in fifteen years. West Nile virus spread from New York State
to forty-six other states in five years. The difference in the rate of spread
is probably related to _____.
A)
the lethality of each pathogen
B)
the mobility of their hosts
C)
the fact that viruses are very small
D)
innate resistance
61)
Scientists interested in how populations interact within communities are
attempting to determine the species diversity of an island under study. What
kind of data would be most helpful to the scientists in determining diversity?
A)
The number of different species on the island and the size of the population of
each species.
B)
The number of species on the island that are consumers, producers, and
decomposers.
C)
The relative biomass of each species on the island separated by trophic level.
D)
The number of trophic levels on the island and the niche of each species.
62)
Red-cheeked salamanders are partially protected from predators because of
cardiac glycosides they produce from glands on their back. When ingested,
cardiac glycosides disrupt normal heart rhythms. A different salamander
species, the imitator salamander, also has red cheek patches, but does not
produce cardiac glycosides. It does gain protection from predators that have
learned to avoid red cheeked salamanders. How does this relationship affect the
population dynamics of both species?
A)
Both species are negatively affected.
B)
Both species are positively affected.
C)
The red cheeked salamander is positively affected, the imitator is negatively
affected.
D)
The red cheeked salamander is negatively affected, the imitator is positively
affected.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 55
Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
1)
If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems
would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the
longest after this hypothetical disaster?
A)
tropical rain forest
B)
tundra
C)
benthic ocean
D)
desert
2)
Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others?
A)
heterotrophs
B)
herbivores
C)
carnivores
D)
primary consumers
3)
To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum, _____.
A)
producers
B)
producers and decomposers
C)
producers, primary consumers, and decomposers
D)
producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers
4)
Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?
A)
all of the brook trout in a 500-square-hectare river drainage system
B)
the plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow
C)
the intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna
during a drought
D)
all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest
Food
web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem
(arrows
represent energy flow and letters represent species)
5)
Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is
autotrophic?
A)
A
B)
C
C)
D
D)
E
6)
Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is
most likely a decomposer on this food web?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
E
7)
Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Species C is
toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic
of C?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
E
8)
Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which pair of
species could be omnivores?
A)
A and D
B)
B and C
C)
C and D
D)
C and E
Diagram
of a food web (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species)
9)
If the figure above represents a marine food web, the smallest organism might
be _____.
A)
A
B)
C
C)
I
D)
E
10)
Which of the following organisms is INCORRECTLY paired with its trophic level?
A)
cyanobacterium — primary producer
B)
grasshopper — primary consumer
C)
zooplankton — primary producer
D)
fungus — detritivore
11)
Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling
in an
ecosystem?
A)
the ecosystem's rate of primary production
B)
the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers
C)
the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
D)
the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem
12)
Matter is gained or lost in ecosystems. How does this occur?
A)
Chemoautotrophic organisms can convert matter to energy.
B)
Matter can be moved from one ecosystem to another.
C)
Photosynthetic organisms convert solar energy to sugars.
D)
Heterotrophs convert heat to energy.
13)
Which habitat types in the figure above cover the largest area?
A)
tropical wet forest plus the ocean neritic zone
B)
open ocean
C)
algal beds and reefs plus the ocean neritic zone
D)
wetlands plus the ocean neritic zone
14)
Which habitat type in the figure above makes available the most new tissue to
consumers?
A)
tropical wet forest
B)
open ocean
C)
algal beds and reefs
D)
wetlands
15)
Which category in the figure above makes available the highest productivity per
square meter?
A)
tropical wet forest
B)
open ocean
C)
algal beds and reefs
D)
wetlands
16)
Considering its total area covered, which ecosystem type represented in the
figure above has a very low level of economic impact on Earth's ecosystem?
A)
tropical wet forest
B)
rock, sand, and ice
C)
tropical seasonal forest
D)
ocean neritic zone
17)
Why is terrestrial productivity higher in equatorial climates?
A)
Productivity increases with temperature.
B)
Productivity increases with water availability.
C)
Productivity increases with available sunlight.
D)
The answer is most likely a combination of the other responses.
18)
After looking at the experiment in the figure above, what can be said about
productivity in marine ecosystems?
A)
Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)
Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity.
C)
Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.
D)
Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.
19)
During a year, plants never use 100% of the incoming solar radiation for
photosynthesis. What is a reasonable explanation for this?
I) Plants
cannot photosynthesize as well during winter (in cold winter climates).
II) Plants
cannot photosynthesize as well on cloudy days.
III) The
pigments that drive photosynthesis respond to only a fraction of the
wavelengths that are available.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
20)
You own three hundred acres of patchy temperate forest. Which one of the
following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the
most?
A)
adding fertilizer to the entire area
B)
introducing one hundred rabbits into the area
C)
planting five hundred new trees
D)
relocating all of the deer found in the area
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Abstract:
Increased
radiative forcing is an inevitable part of global climate change, yet little is
known of its potential effects on the energy fluxes in natural ecosystems. To
simulate the conditions of global warming, we exposed peat monoliths (depth,
0.6 cm; surface area, 2.1 m2) from a bog and fen in northern Minnesota, USA,
to three infrared (IR) loading (ambient, +45, and +90 W m-2) and three
water table (-16, -20, and -29 cm in bog and -1, -10 and -18 cm in fen)
treatments, each replicated in three mesocosm plots. Net radiation (Rn)
and soil energy fluxes at the top, bottom, and sides of the mesocosms were
measured in 1999, five years after the treatments had begun. Soil heat flux (G)
increased proportionately with IR loading, comprising about 3%-8% of Rn.
In the fen, the effect of IR loading on G was modulated by water table depth,
whereas in the bog, it was not. Energy dissipation from the mesocosms occurred
mainly via vertical exchange with air, as well as the deeper soil layers
through the bottom of the mesocosms, whereas lateral fluxes were 10- to 20-fold
smaller and independent of IR loading and water table depth. The exchange with
deeper soil layers was sensitive to water table depth, in contrast to G, which
responded primarily to IR loading. The qualitative responses in the bog and fen
were similar, but the fen displayed wider seasonal variations and greater
extremes in soil energy fluxes. The differences of G in the bog and fen are
attributed to differences in the reflectance in the long waveband as a function
of vegetation type, whereas the differences in soil heat storage may also
depend on different soil properties and different water table depth at
comparable treatments. These data suggest that the ecosystem-dependent controls
over soil energy fluxes may provide an important constraint on biotic response
to climate change.
Copyright
© 2004 Springer-Verlag (A. Noormets et al. 2004. The effects of infrared
loading and water table on soil energy fluxes in northern peatlands. Ecosystems
7:573-582.)
21)
The Noormets et al. study (2004) shows that there was an ecosystem-specific
control over soil energy fluxes, and this constrained the biotic response to
climate change. How do you think radiative heat would affect the water table in
a wetland versus a temperate forest?
A)
The wetland would likely absorb less heat than the temperate forest and,
therefore, not significantly change water table depth.
B)
The wetland would likely absorb more heat than the temperate forest and
significantly change water table depth.
C)
The temperate forest would likely absorb more heat than the wetland and
significantly change water table depth.
D)
Both areas would absorb similar amounts of radiative heat and, therefore,
affect the water table equally.
22)
Once heat is transferred to the soil, where does it go next (reference the
study by Noormets et al. 2004)?
I) The
heat is emitted back to the atmosphere.
II) The
heat is transferred to other soil layers.
III) The
heat is stored in the soil.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
23)
Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the
course of a month. While you are collecting data, a flock of one hundred Canada
geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to
eliminate error in your study as a result of this event?
A)
Find out how much nitrogen is consumed in plant material by a Canada goose over
about a twelve-hour period, multiply this number by 100, and add that amount to
the total nitrogen in the ecosystem.
B)
Find out how much nitrogen is eliminated by a Canada goose over about a
twelve-hour period, multiply this number by 100, and subtract that amount from
the total nitrogen in the ecosystem.
C)
Find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over
about a twelve-hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/-
value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem.
D)
Put a net over the pond so that no more migrating flocks can land on the pond
and alter the nitrogen balance of the pond.
24)
As big as it is, the ocean is nutrient-limited. If you wanted to investigate
this phenomenon, one reasonable approach would be to _____.
A)
observe Antarctic Ocean productivity from year to year to see if it changes
B)
experimentally enrich some areas of the ocean and compare their productivity to
that of untreated areas
C)
compare nutrient concentrations between the photic zone and the benthic zone in
various marine locations
D)
contrast nutrient uptake by autotrophs in marine locations that are different
temperatures
25)
If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to
the rate of decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)?
A)
Both decomposition rate and NEP would decrease.
B)
Both decomposition rate and NEP would increase.
C)
Decomposition rate would increase and NEP would decrease.
D)
Decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase.
26)
Which of the following is a true statement regarding mineral nutrients in soils
and their implication for primary productivity?
A)
Globally, phosphorous availability is most limiting to primary productivity.
B)
Adding a nonlimiting nutrient will stimulate primary productivity.
C)
Phosphorous is sometimes unavailable to producers due to leaching.
D)
Alkaline soils are more productive than acidic soils.
27)
Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem
ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)?
A)
NPP can be expressed in energy/unit of area/unit of time.
B)
NPP can be expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an entire
ecosystem.
C)
NPP represents the stored chemical energy that is available to consumers in the
ecosystem.
D)
NPP shows the rate at which the standing crop is utilized by consumers.
28)
How is net ecosystem production (NEP) typically estimated in ecosystems?
A)
the amount of heat energy released by the ecosystem
B)
the net flux of carbon dioxide or oxygen in or out of an ecosystem
C)
the rate of decomposition by detritivores
D)
the annual total of incoming solar radiation per unit of area
29)
Which of the following ecosystems would likely have the largest net primary
productivity per hectare and why?
A)
open ocean, because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs
B)
grassland, because of the small standing crop biomass that results from
consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition
C)
tundra, because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer
season
D)
cave, due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs
30)
How is it that satellites can detect differences in primary productivity on
Earth?
A)
Satellite instruments can detect reflectance patterns of the photosynthetic
organisms of different ecosystems.
B)
Sensitive satellite instruments can measure the amount of NADPH (nicotinamide
adenine dinucleotide phosphate) produced in the summative light reactions of
different ecosystems.
C)
Satellites compare the wavelengths of light captured and reflected by
photoautotrophs in different ecosystems.
D)
Satellites detect differences by measuring the amount of water vapor emitted by
transpiring producers.
31)
Which one of the following correctly ranks these organisms in order from lowest
to highest percent in production efficiency?
A)
mammals, fish, insects
B)
insects, fish, mammals
C)
fish, insects, mammals
D)
mammals, insects, fish
32)
Owls eat rats, mice, shrews, and small birds. Assume that, over a period of
time, an owl consumes 5000 J of animal material. The owl loses 2300 J in feces
and owl pellets and uses 2500 J for cellular respiration. What is the
production efficiency of this owl?
A)
0.02%
B)
0.2%
C)
4%
D)
40%
33)
After looking at the figure above, what can be said about productivity in this
ecosystem?
A)
Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)
Between 80% and 90% of the energy is lost between most trophic levels.
C)
Between 10% and 20% of the energy is lost between most trophic levels.
D)
Productivity increases with each trophic level.
34)
How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the
typically high endangerment status of many top-level predators?
A)
Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely
distributed.
B)
Predators have relatively large population sizes.
C)
Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels.
D)
Top-level predators are more likely to be stricken with parasites.
35)
Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than an omnivore?
A)
Fewer animals are slaughtered for human consumption.
B)
There is an excess of plant biomass in all terrestrial ecosystems.
C)
Vegetarians need to ingest less chemical energy than omnivores.
D)
Eating meat is an inefficient way of acquiring photosynthetic productivity.
36)
For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids composed of species abundances,
biomass, and energy are similar in that they have a broad base and a narrow
top. The primary reason for this pattern is that _____.
A)
secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers
B)
at each step, energy is lost from the system
C)
biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top
carnivores
D)
top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary
producers
37)
Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of
trophic levels in most ecosystems?
A)
Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.
B)
Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy.
C)
Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.
D)
Energy transfer between trophic levels is usually less than 20 percent
efficient.
38)
Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction?
A)
producer level
B)
primary consumer level
C)
secondary consumer level
D)
tertiary consumer level
39)
Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy
that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between
trophic levels in an ecosystem?
A)
It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher
trophic levels.
B)
It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions
of cellular respiration.
C)
Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs for
thermoregulation.
D)
It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat, consistent with
the second law of thermodynamics.
40)
Consider the food chain of grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake → hawk. About
how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100
percent) is available to the hawk?
A)
0.01%
B)
0.1%
C)
1%
D)
10%
41)
If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain,
perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to
seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true?
A)
Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can.
B)
The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals.
C)
Seal populations are larger than fish populations.
D)
Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat.
Diagram
of a food web (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species)
42)
If the figure above represents a terrestrial food web, the combined biomass of
C + D would probably be _____.
A)
greater than the biomass of A
B)
greater than the biomass of B
C)
less than the biomass of A + B
D)
less than the biomass of E
43)
A porcupine eats 3000 J of plant material. Of this, 2100 J is indigestible and
is eliminated as feces, 800 J are used in cellular respiration, and 100 J are
used for growth and reproduction. What is the approximate production efficiency
of this animal?
A)
0.03%
B)
3%
C)
10%
D)
33%
44)
What do researchers typically focus on when they study a particular
biogeochemical cycle?
I) the
nature and size of the reservoirs
II) the
rate of element movement between reservoirs
III) interaction
of the current cycle with other cycles
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
45)
Based on the experiment in the figure above, which of the following are
plausible reasons for the result?
I) No
nutrients evaporate now that vegetation is absent.
II) Nutrients
dissolve in the water running through the watershed.
III) Nutrients
are attached to small particles of sand or clay that leave the watershed.
IV) Plant
roots that held soil particles in place are no longer there.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
46)
Consider the global water cycle depicted in the figure above. Which one of the
reserves contains the smallest percentage of global water?
A)
rivers and lakes
B)
polar ice caps
C)
glaciers
D)
atmosphere
47)
Consider the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above. What is the
limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)
industrial nitrogen fixation
B)
nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)
internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)
nitrogen fixation by bacteria
48)
Consider the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above. How are humans
altering this cycle?
A)
industrial nitrogen fixation
B)
nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)
reduction of nitrogen available to terrestrial ecosystems
D)
reduction of nitrogen fixation by bacteria
49)
Which of the following locations are major reservoirs for carbon for the carbon
cycle?
I) atmosphere
II) sediments
and sedimentary rocks
III) fossilized
plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas)
IV) plant
and animal biomass
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III, and IV
50)
Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?
A)
The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus.
B)
The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks.
C)
The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of carbon
dioxide for the past million years.
D)
The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic
and abiotic components of the ecosystem.
51)
On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrite (NO2)?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
52)
On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents the ammonium ion
(NH4+)?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
53)
Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by _____.
A)
converting nitrogen gas to ammonia
B)
releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil
C)
converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb
D)
incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds
54)
The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment revealed that _____.
I) deforestation
increased water runoff
II) nitrate
concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high
III) calcium
levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only I and II
55)
Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils?
A)
Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous.
B)
Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing
bacteria.
C)
Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber.
D)
The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging.
56)
How can biodiversity affect the way we decontaminate industrial sites?
I) Bacteria
have been found to be able to detoxify certain chemicals; perhaps there are
more.
II) Trees
produce sawdust, which can be used to soak up chemicals.
III) Species
evolving in contaminated areas could adapt and detoxify the area.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
57)
The first step in ecosystem restoration is to _____.
A)
restore the physical structure
B)
restore native species that have been extirpated due to disturbance
C)
remove competitive invasive species
D)
remove toxic pollutants
58)
The goal of restoration ecology is to _____.
A)
replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area
B)
return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state
C)
manage competition between species in human-altered ecosystems
D)
prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status
59)
The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded
ecosystems to a more natural state is known as _____.
A)
landscape ecology
B)
conservation ecology
C)
restoration ecology
D)
resource conservation
60)
Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?
A)
adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase
nitrogen availability
B)
using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C)
dredging a river bottom to remove contaminated sediments
D)
adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium
61)
Acid precipitation lowered the pH of soil in a terrestrial ecosystem that
supported a diverse community of plants and animals. The decrease in pH
eliminated all nitrogenfixing bacteria populations in the area. Which
prediction most accurately reflects the impact this will have on the community?
A)
Since phosphorus can replace nitrogen as an essential nutrient, the impact will
be minimal.
B)
Plants can obtain the nitrogen necessary for growth from the atmosphere, but
bacterial communities will be negatively impacted.
C)
Primary producers will suffer from nitrogen deficiency and the entire community
will experience a decrease in carrying capacity.
D)
The decrease in pH actually increases the availability of soil nutrients, so
other nutrients that were less available cause an increase in primary
production and an increase in biomass at other trophic levels.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 56
Conservation Biology and Global Change
1)
Philippe Bouchet and colleagues conducted a massive survey of marine molluscs
on the west coast of New Caledonia. Twenty percent of the species found were
represented by a single specimen. What does that suggest about the diversity of
molluscs in this area?
A)
The west coast of New Caledonia is not an appropriate habitat for molluscs.
B)
Many of the species from this 20 percent are probably rare.
C)
They were not sampling uniformly throughout the area.
D)
Many of the species from this 20 percent are most likely just dispersing
through the area.
2)
If all individuals in the last remaining population of a particular bird
species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest
concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct?
I ) genetic
diversity
II) species
diversity
III) ecosystem
diversity
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
3)
What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations?
A)
Genes for traits conferring an advantage to local conditions make
microevolution possible.
B)
The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion.
C)
Genetic diversity allows for species stability by preventing speciation.
D)
Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations.
4)
With regard to the destruction of tropical forests, the focus is often on
biodiversity and the impact to these ecosystems. What is a direct benefit to
humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved?
A)
This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.
B)
Natural and undisturbed areas are important wildlife habitats.
C)
The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.
D)
The plant diversity provides shade, which lowers global warming.
5)
Ecosystem services include processes that increase the quality of the abiotic
environment. Which of the following processes would fall under this category?
I) Keystone
predators have a marked effect on species diversity.
II) Green
plants produce the oxygen we breathe.
III) The
presence of land plants builds soil.
IV) The
presence of diverse wetlands helps in flood control.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
6)
During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea in the
middle of the Atlantic Ocean, a research team concluded that at least 1800
bacterial species were discovered. Based on what you know about this area, what
would you expect to see in coral reef waters?
A)
slightly greater genetic diversity
B)
slightly smaller genetic diversity
C)
markedly greater genetic diversity
D)
markedly smaller genetic diversity
7)
Erwin and Scott used an insecticidal fog to knock down insects from the top of
a L. seemannii tree. The researchers identified over 900 species of
beetles among the individuals that fell. Erwin also projected that this entire
tree is host to about 600 arthropod species unique to this tree species. There are
approximately 50,000 species of tropical trees. Although it could not be
entirely accurate, what would be the best way to estimate the total number of
arthropod species?
A)
Estimate the species density and then multiply by 50,000.
B)
Multiply 900 by 50,000.
C)
Multiply 600 by 50,000.
D)
Divide 900 by 600 and then multiply by 50,000.
8)
Which of the following statements regarding extinction is (are) correct?
I) Only
a small percentage of species is immune from extinction.
II) Extinction
occurs whether humans interfere or not.
III) Extinctions
can even be caused indirectly by humans.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only II and III
9)
Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?
A)
deciduous forests
B)
tropical rain forest
C)
grasslands
D)
islands
10)
Which of the following provides the best evidence of a biodiversity crisis?
A)
the incursion of a non-native species
B)
increasing pollution levels
C)
high rate of extinction
D)
climate change
11)
Which of the following terms includes all of the others?
A)
species diversity
B)
biodiversity
C)
genetic diversity
D)
ecosystem diversity
12)
To better comprehend the magnitude of current extinctions, it will be necessary
to _____.
A)
differentiate between plant extinction and animal extinction numbers
B)
focus on identifying more species of mammals and birds
C)
identify more of the yet unknown species of organisms on Earth
D)
use the average extinction rates of vertebrates as a baseline
13)
We should care about loss in biodiversity in other species because of _____.
I) potential
loss of medicines and other products yet undiscovered from threatened species
II) potential
loss of genes, some of which may code for proteins useful to humans
III) the
risk to global ecological stability
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only II and III
D)
I, II, and III
14)
Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?
A)
increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
B)
the depletion of the ozone layer
C)
overexploitation of selected species
D)
habitat destruction
15)
Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by
_____.
I) preying
on native species
II) competing
with native species for food or light
III) displacing
native species
IV) competing
with native species for space or breeding/nesting habitat
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III and IV
16)
Overharvesting encourages extinction and is most likely to affect _____.
A)
animals that occupy a broad ecological niche
B)
large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates
C)
most organisms that live in the oceans
D)
edge-adapted species
17)
Of the following ecosystem types, which have been impacted the most by humans?
A)
wetland and riparian
B)
desert and high alpine
C)
taiga and second-growth forests
D)
tundra and arctic
18)
Which of the following is a type of work a conservation biologist would
be involved?
I) reestablishing
whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota
II) studying
species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present
III) studying
population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park
IV) determining
the effects of hunting white-tailed deer in Vermont
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III and IV
19)
Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulfur and nitrogen. These air
pollutants can be responsible for _____.
I) the
death of fish in lakes
II) precipitation
with a pH as low as 3.0
III) eutrophication
of lakes
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only I and II
20)
Suppose you attend a town meeting at which some experts tell the audience that
they have performed a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed transit system that
would probably reduce overall air pollution and fossil fuel consumption. The
analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of
operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As
a biologist, you know that if ecosystem services had been included in the
analysis, the experts might have arrived at a different answer. Why are
ecosystem services rarely included in economic analyses?
A)
Their cost is difficult to estimate and people take them for granted.
B)
They are not worth much and are usually not cost effective.
C)
Ecosystem services only take into account abiotic factors that affect local
environments.
D)
Federal laws of the United States exclude their inclusion in any cost benefit
analysis.
21)
Researchers have been studying a rare population of eighty-seven voles in an
isolated area. Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated
population. Besides having ten additional animals, what benefits are there to
importing individuals?
A)
Additional animals from a distant population will likely bring genetic
diversity and reduce inbreeding depression.
B)
Additional animals will bring additional competition and could hurt the
population.
C)
Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift.
D)
There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size.
22)
Five new individuals were added to this small population in 1986 and ten more
were added between 1990-1994. According to the figure above, what occurred in
this population after these additions?
A)
The population increased exponentially.
B)
The population increased in overall numbers.
C)
The population growth rate increased.
D)
The population continued to decline
23)
According to the figure above, what is the LEAST likely explanation for the
data after 1985?
A)
emigration
B)
immigration
C)
introduction of new alleles into the population
D)
increased resources in the area
24)
On Easter Island, data show that it was once covered by massive palm trees. How
can an ecosystem collapse from removal of just one species of large tree?
I) Without
large trees, soil erosion increases and reduces productivity.
II) Species
of plants needing shade no longer have it.
III) Large
trees are habitats for many species.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
25)
Which of the following criteria have to be met for a species to qualify as
invasive?
A)
endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species
B)
introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species
C)
introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species
D)
endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species
26)
Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population
in an extinction vortex?
A)
The species in question is found only in small, stable pockets of its former
range.
B)
The effective population size of the species falls below 1000.
C)
Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic variation over time.
D)
The population is connected only by corridors.
27)
What strategy was used to rescue Illinois prairie chickens from a recent
extinction vortex?
A)
determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the
effective population size
B)
establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat
C)
introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation
D)
reducing the population size of its predators and competitors
28)
If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then
which of the following will always be true?
A)
The population will enter the extinction vortex.
B)
The genetic variation in the population will increase over time.
C)
The effective population size will be greater than the actual population size.
D)
The effective population size will be less than the actual population size.
29)
Which of the following life history traits can potentially influence effective
population size?
I) age
of sexual maturation
II) genetic
relatedness among individuals in a population
III) family
size and population size
IV) gene
flow between geographically separated populations
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III and IV
30)
The primary difference between the small-population approach (S-PA) and the
declining-population approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is _____.
A)
S-PA is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened
population rather than the environmental factors that caused the population's
decline
B)
S-PA applies for conservation biologists when population numbers fall below 500
C)
D-PA would likely involve bringing together individuals from scattered small
populations to interbreed in order to promote genetic diversity
D)
S-PA would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of
the species being studied for recovery
31)
What problem with red-cockaded woodpecker populations in the southeastern
United States was addressed by habitat intervention?
A)
The only habitat that can support their recovery is large tracts of mature oak
forest.
B)
The mature pine forests in which they live cannot ever be subjected to forest
fire.
C)
All of the appropriate red-cockaded woodpecker habitat has already been logged
or converted to agricultural land.
D)
The social organization of the red-cockaded woodpecker precluded the dispersal
of reproductive individuals.
32)
Managing southeastern forests specifically for the red-cockaded woodpecker
_____.
A)
required the growth of a dense understory of trees and shrubs
B)
contributed to greater abundance and diversity of other forest bird species
C)
caused other species of songbird to decline
D)
involved strict fire suppression measures
33)
Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic
diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?
A)
Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding
followed by reintroduction to the wild.
B)
Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.
C)
Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same
species.
D)
Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.
34)
Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be a hotspot for birds?
A)
Amazon River basin
B)
East Africa
C)
Southwest China
D)
Greenland
35)
In looking at the species—area plot in the figure above, what can be concluded?
A)
Number of bird species increases linearly with island area.
B)
Number of bird species remains the same on these various islands.
C)
Diversity is independent from island area.
D)
Number of bird species increases exponentially with island area.
36)
Based on the species-area plot in the figure above, if habitable area on an
island were reduced from 10,000 km2 (square
kilometers) to 1000 km2, roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?
A)
0.3 percent
B)
3 percent
C)
30 percent
D)
60 percent
37)
The main purpose of wildlife (movement) corridors is to _____.
A)
slow down the introduction of new individuals of a species
B)
slowly introduce a species to a new preserve
C)
create more edge habitat
D)
connect two otherwise isolated populations
38)
A land developer and several ecologists are discussing how a parcel of private
land should be developed while saving twenty hectares as natural habitat. The
land developer suggests that the twenty hectares be divided into twenty
separate one-hectare areas. The ecologists suggest that it would be better to
have one intact parcel of twenty hectares. What is the significance of these
different arrangements of the twenty hectares?
A)
There really is no difference; they should both work equally well.
B)
The isolated hectare plots increase the ability of individuals to disperse from
one habitat to another.
C)
The isolated plots are more vulnerable to edge effects.
D)
The large plot will create more inbreeding in many species.
39)
Looking at the figure above, what can be said about edge effects?
A)
Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments.
B)
Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.
C)
Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.
D)
Fragmentation does not affect biomass.
40)
Which of the following is generally true about the current research regarding
forest fragmentation?
A)
Fragmented forests promote biodiversity because they result in the combination
of forest-edge species and forest-interior species.
B)
In fragmented forests, the number of forested-adapted species tend to decline
and the number of edge species tend to increase.
C)
Fragmented forests are the goal of conservation biologists who design wildlife
preserves.
D)
The disturbance of timber extraction causes the species diversity to increase
because of the new habitats created.
41)
Brown-headed cowbirds utilize fragmented forests effectively by _____.
A)
feeding on the fruits of shrubs that tend to grow at the forest/open-field
interface
B)
parasitizing the nests of forest birds and feeding on open-field insects
C)
roosting in forest trees and nesting in grassy fields
D)
outcompeting other songbird species for access to nesting holes in old-growth
trees
42)
Movement (wildlife) corridors can be harmful to certain species because they
_____.
A)
increase inbreeding
B)
spread disease and parasites
C)
increase genetic diversity
D)
allow seasonal migration
43)
Locating new nature preserves in biodiversity hot spots may not necessarily the
best choice because _____.
A)
hot spots are situated in remote areas not accessible to the public
B)
their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive
C)
a hot spot helps conserve only a few species
D)
changing environmental conditions may shift the location of the communities
44)
What is the biggest problem with selecting a site for a preserve?
A)
Making a proper selection is difficult because currently the environmental
conditions of almost any site can change quickly.
B)
Keystone species are difficult to identify in potential preserve sites.
C)
Only lands that are not useful to human activities are available for preserves.
D)
Most of the best sites are inaccessible by land transportation, so making roads
to them is often prohibitively expensive.
45)
What is a critical load?
A)
the amount of nutrient augmentation necessary to bring a depleted habitat back
to its former level
B)
the level of a given toxin in an ecosystem that is lethal to 50 percent of the
species present
C)
the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging
ecosystem integrity
D)
the number of predators an ecosystem can support that effectively culls prey
populations to healthy levels
46)
Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because _____.
A)
nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of
the use of pesticides
B)
the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil
on lands where they are harvested
C)
land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor
D)
cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter
Choose
the term that matches the description.
47)
This is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems.
A)
depletion of ozone layer
B)
acid precipitation
C)
biological magnification
D)
eutrophication
48)
This causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds.
A)
acid precipitation
B)
biological magnification
C)
greenhouse effect
D)
eutrophication
Use
the following graph and information to answer the question below.
Flycatcher
birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is
almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph below shows the mean dates of
arrival, bird hatching, and peak caterpillar season for the years 1980 and
2000.
49)
The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to _____.
A)
earlier migration returns of flycatchers
B)
an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars
C)
global warming
D)
acid precipitation in Europe
50)
Your friend is wary of environmentalists' claims that global warming could lead
to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you
use in response to your friend's suspicions?
I) We
know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has increased over the past 150 years.
II) Through
measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and
temperature fluctuations are directly correlated, even in prehistoric times.
III) Global
warming could have significant effects on agriculture in the United States.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
51)
The main cause of the increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in Earth's
atmosphere over the past 150 years is _____.
A)
increased worldwide primary production
B)
an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere
C)
the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels
D)
additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population
52)
Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification
(biomagnification)?
A)
Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators
than to primary consumers.
B)
Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of
primary consumers.
C)
Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to
consumers.
D)
The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the
producer turnover time increases.
53)
Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?
I) Burning
reduces available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary
consumers.
II) Deforestation
and suburbanization reduce an area's net primary productivity.
III) Increasing
atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide could alter Earth's climate.
IV) By
using fossil fuels we are destroying a nonrenewable resource.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
only I, II, III, and IV
54)
Looking at the figure above, what can you conclude about the data?
A)
As species richness changes, plant biomass remains consistent.
B)
As species richness increases, plant biomass increases.
C)
As species richness increases, plant biomass increases and then levels off.
D)
As species richness decreases, plant biomass increases.
55)
Examine the figure above and consider this hypothesis: Plant biomass increases
with species richness. In looking at the data in the figure above, how would
you relate it to this hypothesis? The hypothesis is _____.
A)
partially supported
B)
supported
C)
rejected
56)
Examine the figure above, which notes the average barrels of oil used per
person per year in different countries. What can be concluded?
A)
Residents in warmer climates use more energy per person.
B)
Residents of industrialized countries use more energy per person.
C)
Residents of more populated countries use more energy per person.
D)
English-speaking countries tend to use more energy per person.
57)
The main goal of sustainable development is to _____.
A)
involve more countries in conservation efforts
B)
use only natural resources in the construction of new buildings
C)
use natural resources such that they do not decline over time
D)
reevaluating and re-implementing management plans over time
Copyright
© 2003 American Institute of Biological Sciences. (Foster, D.R., F. Swanson, J.
Aber, D. Tilman, N. Brokaw, I. Burke and A. Knapp. 2003. The importance of
land-use and its legacies to ecology and environmental management. BioScience
53:77-88.)
58)
Based on the figure above, what can you conclude about the history of land use
in the southern Yucatán?
A)
Massive soil erosion caused the Mayan population to crash.
B)
Reduction in forest cover caused the Mayan population to crash.
C)
As Mayan population increased, deforestation increased, probably leading to
increased soil erosion.
D)
This Mayan population practiced sustainable development.
59)
Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment
of zoned reserves?
A)
Costa Rica
B)
China
C)
United States
D)
Mexico
60)
Which of the following statements about protected areas that have been
established to preserve biodiversity are correct?
I) About
25 percent of Earth's land area is now protected.
II) National
parks are one of many types of protected areas.
III) Management
of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land
surrounding the area.
IV) It
is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
61)
Eutrophication is often caused by excess limiting nutrient runoff from
agricultural fields into aquatic ecosystems. This results in massive algal
blooms, which eventually die and decompose, ultimately depleting the dissolved
oxygen and killing large numbers of fish and other aquatic organism. Predict
which of the following human actions would best address the problem of
eutrophication near agricultural areas?
A)
After each eutrophication event, remove the dead fish and invertebrates to
place on agricultural fields instead of fertilizer.
B)
Determine which limiting nutrient is responsible for the algal bloom and use
other fertilizers to apply to crops.
C)
Remove the algae before it dies and decomposes to prevent eutrophication from
occurring.
D)
Determine critical nutrient loads required for certain crops and do not exceed
this amount during fertilizer application.
62)
Elevated carbon dioxide levels have been shown to contribute to the greenhouse
effect, resulting in an increase in mean global temperature. Ecosystems where
the largest warming has already occurred include snow-covered northern coniferous
forests, tundra, and arctic sea ice habitats. Which statement best explains how
the elimination of ice-covered ecosystems affects the rise or fall in global
temperature?
A)
Melting ice releases dissolved ozone gas, which adds to the greenhouse effect.
B)
More reflective surfaces of ice are replaced with darker, more absorptive
surfaces, thereby contributing to the warming trend.
C)
Large-scale ice melts actually contribute toward lowering global temperatures
by decreasing salinity of the oceans.
D)
Carbon dioxide levels are lowered as a result of greater volume of water to
accommodate greater dissolved gas.
63)
A parasitic fungus, Geomyces destructans, has decimated millions of bats
in the United States since it was first observed in upstate New York in 2006.
The disease has been named White-nose syndrome because of the white fungal
hyphae that cover the bat upon infection. It is believed that this fungus was
introduced from Europe by into caves with hibernating bat populations. Which
prediction most likely reflects changes that will occur in natural communities
as a result of massive bat mortality?
A)
Increased animal populations as a result of niche availability.
B)
Increased rodent populations as a result of an increase in flying insect
populations.
C)
Increased flying insect populations and decreased populations of bat-pollinated
plants
D)
Decreased bird populations as the spread of the fungus infects other closely
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