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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 19 Viruses
1)
Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include
glycoproteins?
A)
I only
B)
II only
C)
III only
D)
I and II only
2)
Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include a
capsid(s)?
A)
I only
B)
II only
C)
III only
D)
I, II, and III
3)
Which of the following supports the argument that viruses are nonliving?
A)
They are not cellular.
B)
Their DNA does not encode proteins.
C)
They have RNA rather than DNA.
D)
They do not evolve.
4)
Viruses _____.
A)
manufacture their own ATP, proteins, and nucleic acids
B)
use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins
C)
use the host cell to copy themselves and then viruses synthesize their own
proteins
D)
metabolize food and produce their own ATP
5)
What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped
viruses?
A)
Enveloped viruses have their genetic material enclosed by a layer made only of
protein.
B)
Nonenveloped viruses have only a phospholipid membrane, while enveloped viruses
have two membranes, the other one being a protein capsid.
C)
Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid, whereas
nonenveloped viruses do not have a phospholipid membrane.
D)
Both types of viruses have a capsid and phospholipid membrane; but in the
nonenveloped virus the genetic material is between these two membranes, while
in the enveloped virus the genetic material is inside both membranes.
6)
The host range of a virus is determined by _____.
A)
the enzymes carried by the virus
B)
whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA
C)
the proteins in the host's cytoplasm
D)
the proteins on its surface and that of the host
7)
Which of the following accounts for someone who has had regular
herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore flare-ups?
A)
re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain
B)
re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain
C)
copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei
D)
copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm
8)
In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will
be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the
following would you expect of the genes of a bacteriophage?
A)
regulation via acetylation of histones
B)
positive control mechanisms rather than negative
C)
control of more than one gene in an operon
D)
reliance on transcription activators
9)
Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?
A)
Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.
B)
The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.
C)
A large number of phages are released at a time.
D)
The virus—host relationship usually lasts for generations.
10)
Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ)
phage?
A)
After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a
lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses.
B)
Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular
prophage gene.
C)
The phage genome replicates along with the host genome.
D)
The phage DNA is copied and exits the cell as a phage.
11)
Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?
A)
proviruses
B)
viroids
C)
bacteriophages
D)
retroviruses
12)
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
A)
It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
B)
It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
C)
It translates viral RNA into proteins.
D)
It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.
13)
In the figure, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme(s) are being utilized?
A)
reverse transcriptase
B)
viral DNA polymerase
C)
host cell DNA polymerase
D)
host cell RNA polymerase
14)
In the figure, when new viruses are being assembled at the point marked IV,
what mediates the assembly?
A)
host cell chaperones
B)
assembly proteins coded for by the host nucleus
C)
assembly proteins coded for by the viral genes
D)
nothing; they self-assemble
Some
viruses can be crystallized and their structures analyzed. One such virus is
yellow mottle virus, which infects beans. This virus has a single-stranded RNA
genome containing about 6300 nucleotides. Its capsid is 25-30 nm in diameter
and contains 180 identical capsomeres.
15)
If the yellow mottle virus begins its infection of a cell by using its genome
as mRNA, which of the following would you expect to be able to measure?
A)
replication rate
B)
transcription rate
C)
translation rate
D)
formation of new transcription factors
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
herpes viruses are important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in
vertebrates and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human forms
are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital
lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and
shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections
are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral
genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can later
reactivate, replicate again, and infect others.
16)
In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus
initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors.
This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward,
the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following
best fits these observations?
A)
Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids
enter the nucleus.
B)
The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not
enter the nucleus.
C)
Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity,
and is injected like the genome of a phage.
D)
The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into
the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus.
17)
Poliovirus is an RNA virus of the picornavirus group, which uses its RNA as
mRNA. At its 
end, the RNA genome has a viral protein (VPg)
instead of a cap. This is followed by a nontranslated
leader sequence, and then a single long protein-coding region (~7000
nucleotides), followed by a poly-A tail. Observations were made that used
radioactive amino acid analogues. Short period use of the radioactive amino
acids result in labeling of only very long proteins, while longer periods of
labeling result in several different short polypeptides. What conclusion is
most consistent with the results of the radioactive labeling experiment?
end, the RNA genome has a viral protein (VPg)
instead of a cap. This is followed by a nontranslated
leader sequence, and then a single long protein-coding region (~7000
nucleotides), followed by a poly-A tail. Observations were made that used
radioactive amino acid analogues. Short period use of the radioactive amino
acids result in labeling of only very long proteins, while longer periods of
labeling result in several different short polypeptides. What conclusion is
most consistent with the results of the radioactive labeling experiment?
A)
Host cell ribosomes only translate the viral code into short polypeptides.
B)
The RNA is only translated into a single long polypeptide, which is then
cleaved into shorter ones.
C)
The RNA is translated into short polypeptides, which are subsequently assembled
into large ones.
D)
The large radioactive polypeptides are coded by the host, whereas the short
ones are coded for by the virus.
Use
the following figure and information to answer the question(s) below.
Cells
were infected with approximately 1000 copies of either virus A or virus B at
the 0 time point. At five-minute intervals, a sample of the virus and cell mixture
was removed. The intact cells were removed from the sample, and the number of
viruses per milliliter of culture was determined.
18)
Using the data in the figure above, how long does it take for virus A to go
through one lytic cycle?
A)
15 minutes
B)
30 minutes
C)
45 minutes
D)
90 minutes
19)
Using the data in the figure above, how long does it take for virus B to go
through one lytic cycle?
A)
15 minutes
B)
30 minutes
C)
45 minutes
D)
60 minutes
20)
The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virions (virus
particles) during _____.
A)
the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all known host organisms
B)
the lysogenic cycle only
C)
the lytic cycle only
D)
the lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria
21)
Which of the following viruses would most likely have reverse transcriptase?
A)
an RNA-based lytic virus
B)
an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)
a DNA-based lytic virus
D)
a DNA-based lysogenic virus
22)
If a viral host cell has a mutation that interferes with the addition of
carbohydrates to proteins in the Golgi, which of the following could likely
result?
A)
The viral envelope proteins would not be glycosylated and might not arrive at
the host plasma membrane.
B)
The viral capsid proteins would not be glycosylated and might not arrive at the
host plasma membrane.
C)
The viral core proteins would not be glycosylated and might not arrive at the
host plasma membrane.
D)
The virus would be unable to reproduce within the host cell.
23)
HIV is inactivated in the laboratory after a few minutes of sitting at room
temperature, but the flu virus is still active after sitting for several hours.
What are the practical consequences of these findings?
A)
HIV can be transmitted more easily from person to person than the flu virus
B)
The flu virus can be transmitted more easily from person to person than HIV
C)
This property of HIV makes it more likely to be a pandemic than the flu virus
D)
Disinfecting surfaces is more important to reduce the spread of HIV than the
flu
24)
Viruses use the host's machinery to make copies of themselves. However, some
human viruses require a type of replication that humans do not normally have.
For example, humans normally do not have the ability to convert RNA into DNA.
How can these types of viruses infect humans, when human cells cannot perform a
particular role that the virus requires?
A)
The virus causes mutations in the human cells, resulting in the formation of
new enzymes that are capable of performing these roles.
B)
The viral genome codes for specialized enzymes not in the host.
C)
The virus infects only those cells and species that can perform all the
replication roles necessary.
D)
Viruses can stay in a quiescent state until the host cell evolves this ability.
25)
The first class of drugs developed to treat AIDS, such as AZT, were known as
reverse transcriptase inhibitors. They worked because they _____.
A)
targeted and destroyed the viral genome before it could be reverse transcribed
into DNA
B)
bonded to the dsDNA genome of the virus in such a way that it could not
separate for replication to occur
C)
bonded to the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme, thus preventing the virus
from making a DNA copy of its RNA genome
D)
prevented host cells from producing the enzymes used by the virus to replicate
its genome
26)
A virus consisting of a single strand of RNA, which is transcribed into
complementary DNA, is a _____.
A)
protease
B)
retrovirus
C)
RNA replicase virus
D)
nonenveloped virus
27)
Which of the following could use reverse transcriptase to transcribe its
genome?
A)
ssRNA
B)
dsRNA
C)
ssDNA
D)
dsDNA
28)
To make a vaccine against mumps, measles, or rabies, which type of viruses
would be useful?
A)
dsDNA viruses
B)
negative-sense ssRNA viruses
C)
positive-sense ssRNA viruses
D)
dsRNA viruses
29)
Which of the following human diseases is caused by a virus that requires
reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome inside the host cell?
A)
herpes
B)
AIDS
C)
smallpox
D)
influenza
30)
Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?
A)
RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides.
B)
Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading.
C)
RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases.
D)
RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.
31)
A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres
of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test
tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. We expect
that the plants would _____.
A)
develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection
B)
develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection
C)
not show any disease symptoms
D)
become infected, but the sap from these plants would be unable to infect other
plants
32)
Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral
infection in humans?
A)
taking vitamins
B)
getting vaccinated
C)
taking antibiotics
D)
taking drugs that inhibit transcription
33)
Viral infections in plants _____.
A)
can be controlled with antibiotics
B)
can spread within a plant via plasmodesmata
C)
have little effect on plant growth
D)
are not spread by animals
34)
Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids?
A)
Viruses infect many types of cells, whereas viroids infect only prokaryotic
cells.
B)
Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids.
C)
Viruses have genomes composed of RNA, whereas viroids have genomes composed of
DNA.
D)
Viruses cannot pass through plasmodesmata, whereas viroids can.
35)
The difference between vertical and horizontal transmission of plant viruses is
that vertical transmission is _____.
A)
transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal
transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant
B)
the spread of viruses from upper leaves to lower leaves of the plant, and
horizontal transmission is the spread of a virus among leaves at the same
general level
C)
the spread of viruses from trees and tall plants to bushes and other smaller
plants, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of
similar size
D)
the transfer of DNA from a plant of one species to a plant of a different
species, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of
the same species
36)
What are prions?
A)
mobile segments of DNA
B)
tiny circular molecules of RNA that can infect plants
C)
viral DNA that attaches itself to the host genome and causes disease
D)
misfolded versions of normal protein that can cause disease
37)
A person is most likely to recover from a viral infection if the infected cells
_____.
A)
can undergo normal cell division
B)
can carry on translation, at least for a few hours
C)
produce and release viral protein
D)
transcribe viral mRNA
38)
Effective antiviral drugs are usually associated with which of the following
properties?
A)
interference with viral replication
B)
prevention of the host from becoming infected
C)
removal of viral proteins
D)
removal of viral mRNAs
39)
Which of the following best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves
between species?
A)
The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in alternate arrangements so
that humans who eat the pig products can be infected.
B)
A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds
replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans.
C)
An influenza virus gains new sequences of DNA from another virus, such as a
herpesvirus; this enables it to be transmitted to a human host.
D)
An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic
recombination occurs, the new virus mutates, the virus is passed to a new
species such as a bird, and the virus mutates again and can now be transmitted
to humans.
Refer
to the treatments listed below to answer the following question(s).
You
isolate an infectious substance capable of causing disease in plants, but you
do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or
prion. You have four methods at your disposal to analyze the substance and
determine the nature of the infectious agent.
I. Treat
the substance with enzymes that destroy all nucleic acids and then determine
whether the substance is still infectious.
II. Filter
the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under
a light microscope.
III. Culture
the substance on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells.
IV. Treat
the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether
the substance is still infectious.
40)
If you already know that the infectious agent was either bacterial or viral,
which method(s) listed above would allow you to distinguish between these two
possibilities?
A)
I
B)
II
C)
II or III
D)
IV
41)
If you already know that the infectious agent was either a viroid or a prion,
which method(s) listed above would allow you to distinguish between these two
possibilities?
A)
I only
B)
II only
C)
IV only
D)
either I or IV
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
The
herpes viruses are important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in
vertebrates and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human forms
are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions,
and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of
these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly
mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes
are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can later reactivate,
replicate again, and infect others.
42)
If scientists are trying to use what they know about HSV to devise a means of
protecting other people from being infected, which of the following would have
the best chance of lowering the number of new cases of infection?
A)
vaccinate of all persons with preexisting cases of HSV
B)
interfere with new viral replication in preexisting cases of HSV
C)
treat HSV lesions to shorten the breakout
D)
educate people about avoiding sources of infection
43)
What is difference between an epidemic and a pandemic?
A)
An epidemic is a disease; a pandemic is a treatment.
B)
An epidemic is restricted to a local region; a pandemic is global.
C)
An epidemic has low mortality; a pandemic has higher mortality.
D)
An epidemic is caused by a bacterial infection; a pandemic is caused by a viral
infection.
44)
Will treating a viral infection with antibiotics affect the course of the
infection?
A)
No; antibiotics work by inhibiting enzymes specific to bacteria. Antibiotics
have no effect on eukaryotic or virally encoded enzymes.
B)
No; antibiotics do not kill viruses because viruses do not have DNA or RNA.
C)
Yes; antibiotics activate the immune system, and this decreases the severity of
the infection.
D)
Yes; antibiotics can prevent viral entry into the cell by binding to
host-receptor proteins.
45)
Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?
A)
HIV infected humans long before the 1980s, but it has now mutated to a more
deadly form.
B)
HIV mutates rapidly making the virus very different from HIV in the early
1980s.
C)
HIV suddenly became apparent and widespread in the 1980s.
D)
HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS, such as rare types of
cancers and pneumonias.
46)
A population of viruses with similar characteristics is called a _____.
A)
strain
B)
species
C)
type
D)
genome
47)
Evidence suggests that factors which contribute towards the virulence of E.
coli strain O157:H7, a bacterial strain reported to cause several food
poisoning deaths, are caused by genes from a virus that infects bacteria.
Considering this evidence, which statement most likely explains how the O157:H7
population acquired the genetic variation that distinguishes the strain from
harmless E. coli strains, such as those that reside in our intestines?
A)
The virus entered the bacterial cell and incorporated its DNA into the
bacterial genome, allowing the bacteria’s cellular machinery to create new
viruses.
B)
Viral envelope proteins bind to receptors on the bacterial membrane, allowing
the viral genetic material to enter the bacterium and become translated into
proteins.
C)
The virus entered the cell and acquired specific genes from the bacteria to
increase the virulence of the virus.
D)
The virus infected the bacterium, and allowed the bacterial population to
replicate with a copy of the phage genome in each new bacterium.
48)
Which of the following processes within viral replication is the greatest
source of genetic variation in RNA virus populations?
A)
High mutation rate due to lack of proofreading of RNA genome replication
errors.
B)
Transcription from the host cell RNA polymerase introduces numerous mutations.
C)
Capsid proteins from the host cell can replace the viral capsid.
D)
Viral RNA is translated by host cell ribosomes.
49)
In 2009, a flu pandemic was believed to have originated when viral transmission
occurred from pig to human, thereby earning the designation, "swine
flu." Although pigs are thought to have been the breeding ground for the
2009 virus, sequences from bird, pig, and human viruses were all found within
this newly identified virus. What is the most likely explanation of why this
virus contained sequences from bird, pig, and human viruses?
A)
The virus was descended from a common ancestor of bird, pig, and human flu
viruses.
B)
The infected individuals happened to be infected with all three virus types.
C)
Related viruses can undergo genetic recombination if the RNA genomes mix and
match during viral assembly.
D)
The human was likely infected with various bacterial strains that contained all
three RNA viruses.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 20 DNA
Tools and Biotechnology
1)
Bacterial cells protect their own DNA from restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
by _____.
A)
adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
B)
using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
C)
adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
D)
forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme
(endonuclease) from attaching
2)
What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid
and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform
bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut
the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes (endonucleases).
III. Extract
plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond
the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
V. Use
ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.
A)
II, III, V, IV, I
B)
III, II, IV, V, I
C)
III, IV, V, I, II
D)
IV, V, I, II, III
3)
A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a plasmid
and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria is that _____.
A)
prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes
B)
bacteria translate only mRNAs that have multiple messages
C)
bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns
D)
bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA
4)
Yeast cells are frequently used as hosts for cloning because they _____.
A)
easily form colonies
B)
can remove exons from mRNA
C)
do not have plasmids
D)
are eukaryotic cells
5)
Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is
most important because _____.
A)
it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a "better"
nematode, which is resistant to disease
B)
it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about
C)
a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is
likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates
D)
a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to
have acquired the introns from higher organisms
6)
To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a
mouse, you would most likely be successful with which of the following methods?
A)
electroporation followed by recombination
B)
introducing a plasmid into the cell
C)
infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
D)
transcription and translation
7)
Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?
A)
Before amplification, DNA fragments are likely to bind to RNA and no longer be
able to be analyzed.
B)
A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA.
C)
Restriction enzymes (endonucleases) cut DNA into fragments that are too small.
D)
A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone.
8)
Pax-6 is a gene that is involved in eye formation in many invertebrates,
such as Drosophila. Pax-6 is also found in vertebrates. A Pax-6
gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a
compound fly eye. This information suggests which of the following?
A)
Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence.
B)
PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences.
C)
Pax-6 is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry.
D)
PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes.
9)
The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that _____.
A)
it is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR
B)
only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR
C)
it binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers
D)
it has regions that are complementary to the primers
Use
the figure below to answer the following question.
10)
Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure above?
A)
ligase
B)
a restriction enzyme (endonuclease)
C)
RNA polymerase
D)
DNA polymerase
Use
the figure below to answer the following question.
11)
The segment of DNA shown in the figure above has restriction sites I and II,
which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by
electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of
these fragments?
A)
B)
C)
D)
12)
A laboratory might use dideoxyribonucleotides to _____.
A)
separate DNA fragments
B)
produce cDNA from mRNA
C)
sequence a DNA fragment
D)
visualize DNA expression
13)
Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of
_____.
A)
plasmid replication
B)
bacterial cell replication
C)
transformation
D)
plasmid and bacterial cell replication
14)
Which of the following sequences is most likely to be cut by a restriction
enzyme?
A)
AATTCT
TTAAGA
B)
AATATT
TTATAA
C)
AAAATT
TTTTAA
D)
ACTACT
TGATGA
15)
What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
itself?
A)
The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
B)
The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
C)
The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified
must be known.
D)
The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified
and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be
known.
16)
Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of polymerase
chain reaction (PCR)?
A)
Denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; anneal primers; add dNTPs; extend primers.
B)
Anneal primers; denature DNA; extend primers.
C)
Extend primers; anneal primers; denature DNA.
D)
Denature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers.
17)
The final step in a Sanger DNA sequencing reaction is to run the DNA fragments
on a gel. What purpose does this serve?
A)
It adds ddNTP to the end of each DNA fragment.
B)
It changes the length of the DNA fragments.
C)
It separates DNA fragments based on their charge.
D)
It separates DNA fragments generated during the sequencing reaction based on
one-nucleotide differences in their size.
18)
DNA sequencing has transformed our understanding of genes, genomes and
evolution. Which of the following
statements comparing two common sequencing techniques, the chain termination
method and next generation sequencing is TRUE?
A)
The chain termination method is faster and more efficient, so it is used to
generate large-scale sequences, while next generation synthesis is used for
routine, small-scale jobs.
B)
The chain termination method employs the polymerase chain reaction, but next
generation sequencing does not.
C)
In the chain termination method, the order of bases is detected by
fluorescently labeling each dideoxy-nucleotide in a different color, while next
generation sequencing determines the order of bases by detecting the release of
PPi during the formation of the phosphodiester bond.
D)
Next generation sequencing employs electrophoresis, but the chain termination
method does not.
19)
A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for
genetic engineering purposes by using _____.
A)
a restriction enzyme (endonuclease) to cut the gene into shorter pieces
B)
reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA
C)
DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product
D)
DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular
polypeptide
20)
Which of the following is required to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
A)
restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
B)
gene cloning
C)
DNA ligase
D)
reverse transcriptase
21)
DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they _____.
A)
can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome
B)
can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells
C)
allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be
compared at once
D)
allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time
22)
RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger breakdown of a
specific mRNA or inhibit its translation. For which of the following might this
technique be useful?
A)
to decrease the production from a harmful mutated gene
B)
to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
C)
to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its
progeny
D)
to raise the concentration of a desired protein
23)
A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and
then has reinserted the mutated gene into a cell. To have the mutated sequence
disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?
A)
recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
B)
use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
C)
replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid
D)
transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC
24)
Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference (RNAi). Which
of the following questions would NOT be answered with this process?
A)
What is the function of gene 432 in a particular species of annelid?
B)
What will happen in a particular insect's digestion if gene 173 is not able to
be translated?
C)
Is gene HA292 expressed in individuals for a disorder in humans?
D)
Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause
similar results?
25)
In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans we look for _____.
A)
lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population
B)
SNPs where one allele is found more often in persons with a particular disorder
than in healthy controls
C)
SNPs where one allele is found in families with particular introns sequence
D)
SNPs where one allele is found in two or more adjacent genes
26)
For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made from the mRNAs
of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. The researchers will be looking for
_____.
A)
a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples
B)
a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are over proliferating
C)
a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene
expression differing from control samples
D)
a group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast cancer control samples from the
same population
27)
Imagine that you compare two DNA sequences found in the same location on
homologous chromosomes. On one of the homologs, the sequence is AACTACGA. On
the other homolog, the sequence is AACTTCGA. Within a population, you discover
that each of these sequences is common. These sequences _____.
A)
contain an SNP that may be useful for genetic mapping
B)
identify a protein-coding region of a gene
C)
cause disease
D)
do none of the listed actions
28)
Which of the following uses labeled probes to visualize the expression of genes
in whole tissues and organisms?
A)
RT-PCR
B)
in situ hybridization
C)
DNA microarrays
D)
RNA interference
29)
Which of the following is most like the formation of identical twins?
A)
cell cloning
B)
therapeutic cloning
C)
use of adult stem cells
D)
organismal cloning
30)
In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?
A)
replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
B)
separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which
was incubated in a surrogate ewe
C)
fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by
incubation in a surrogate
D)
isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote
equivalent
31)
Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature
death of the clones?
A)
use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
B)
use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA
C)
abnormal gene regulation due to variant methylation
D)
the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
32)
Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical.
However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of
opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation?
A)
The use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than the use
of embryonic stem cells.
B)
Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for
many.
C)
Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than
reproductive cloning.
D)
A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA.
33)
Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem
cells?
A)
They normally differentiate into only eggs and sperm.
B)
They can give rise to all cell types in the organism.
C)
They can continue to reproduce for an indefinite period.
D)
One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.
34)
A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells
from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding?
A)
The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation.
B)
Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts.
C)
The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in
microarrays.
D)
The nonstem cells have fewer repressed genes.
35)
In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic
cloning?
A)
Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does
not.
B)
Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning
does not.
C)
Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated
nonfertilized eggs.
D)
Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
36)
The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked
significantly different from her female parent because _____.
A)
the cloning was done poorly and it was likely that some contaminating cat DNA
became part of Carbon Copy’s genome
B)
fur color genes in cats is determined by differential acetylation patterns
C)
cloned animals have been found to have a higher frequency of transposon
activation
D)
X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns
37)
In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become
pluripotent stem cells (iPS). To make this conversion, what has been done to
the adult cells?
A)
A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes.
B)
The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.
C)
Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
D)
The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.
38)
Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem
cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people
with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still be problems?
I. the
possibility that, once introduced into the patient, the iPS cells produce
nonpancreatic cells
II. the
failure of the iPS cells to take up residence in the pancreas
III. the
inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals
A)
I only
B)
II only
C)
III only
D)
I, II, and III
39)
Genetically engineered plants _____.
A)
are more difficult to develop than genetically engineered animals
B)
include transgenic rice plants that can grow in water of high salinity
C)
are used in research but not yet in commercial agricultural production
D)
are banned throughout the world
40)
Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA
technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?
A)
Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to
ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
B)
Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply.
C)
Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize.
D)
Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been
banned.
41)
Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is
problematic?
A)
Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
B)
Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
C)
Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
D)
mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
42)
One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins,
such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be
overcome?
A)
prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients
B)
prevention of vaccine-containing plants being consumed by insects
C)
use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA
D)
inability of the human digestive system to accept plant-derived protein
43)
What characteristic of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it useful for DNA
fingerprinting?
A)
The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.
B)
The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to
individual.
C)
The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in
different environments.
D)
Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
44)
Transgenic mice are useful to human researchers because they _____.
A)
can be valuable animal models of human disease
B)
are essential for mapping human genes
C)
are now used in place of bacteria for cloning human genes
D)
were instrumental in pinpointing the location of the huntingtin gene
45)
Gene therapy requires _____.
A)
knowledge and availability of the normal allele of the defective gene
B)
the ability to introduce the normal allele into the patient
C)
the ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level, time, and
tissue site within the patient
D)
knowledge and availability of the normal allele of the defective gene, an
ability to introduce the normal allele into the patient, and an ability to
express the introduced gene at the correct level, and time, and tissue site
within the patient
46)
For applications in gene therapy, what is the most favorable characteristic of
retroviruses?
A)
Retroviruses have an RNA genome.
B)
Retroviruses possess reverse transcriptase.
C)
DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the
infected cell.
D)
Retroviruses mutate often.
47)
Using retroviral vectors for gene therapy might increase the patient's risk of
developing cancer because they might _____.
A)
introduce proteins from the virus
B)
not express the genes that were introduced into a patient's cells
C)
not integrate their recombinant DNA into the patient's genome
D)
integrate recombinant DNA into the genome in ways that misregulate the
expression of genes at or near the site of integration
48)
In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined
immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)-X1, the genetic engineering of human cells is
done by _____.
A)
injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bloodstream
B)
injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bone marrow
C)
treating a relative's cultured bone marrow cells with genetically engineered
viruses and then injecting these cells into the patient's bone marrow
D)
isolating the patient's bone marrow cells, infecting them with genetically
engineered viruses, and injecting them back into the patient's bone marrow
49)
One predicted aspect of climate change is that climates, including
precipitation and temperature, over most of the Earth will become more
variable. Which of the following is a good crop genetic engineering strategy if
this is true?
A)
Only plant crops that are genetically engineered.
B)
Genetically engineer most crops to withstand very long droughts.
C)
Genetically engineer several genotypes within single crop types.
D)
Genetically engineer the fastest growing crops possible.
50)
Plasmids are used as vectors in plant and bacterial genetic engineering.
However, there is a major difference in the fate of genes introduced into
bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on tumor-inducing (Ti)
plasmids. What is this difference?
A)
In bacteria, genes are stably expressed; in plants, gene expression is always
lost quickly.
B)
Gene expression tends to decrease rapidly and unpredictably in bacteria; gene
expression is much more stable in plants.
C)
Bacterial plasmids are circular DNAs; Ti plasmid DNA is linear.
D)
Bacterial plasmids and the genes they carry usually are not integrated into the
chromosome; Ti plasmids and the genes they carry are integrated into the
chromosome.
51)
In an experiment, DNA from the linear form of the bacteriophage Lambda was cut
into fragments using the restriction enzyme Hind III. Restriction enzymes are
isolated from bacteria and cut DNA in specific locations. Hind III cuts the
Lambda DNA between the adenine nucleotides on the complimentary strands in a
specific sequence, as indicated in the diagram, producing eight different size
fragments. These fragments are then separated with an electrical current based
on size after the DNA fragments are placed in a porous gel, a process called
gel electrophoresis.
cut
site
↓
5’
A A G C T T 3’
3’
T T C G A A 5’
↑
cut
site
Select
an observation that best describes a correct aspect of the two processes of
restriction
digest
and gel electrophoresis:
A)
When separated on a gel, the pattern of DNA bands will be characteristic of
those cut with Hind III, different restriction enzymes will not produce these
same fragments.
B)
The sequence AAGCTT is found eight times in the Lambda genome and the
restriction enzyme Hind III finds each location.
C)
If an electrical current is not used, eight separate DNA bands would be
visible, but they would not be separated as much as when an electrical current
is used.
D)
Only the restriction enzyme Hind III can be used to cut Lambda DNA since
restriction enzymes are specific to the type of DNA they can cut.
52)
Organisms share many conserved core processes and features, including
transcription and translation using a uniform genetic code. Scientists have
used these shared processes and features in biotechnology. For example, for the
process of some transformations, a plasmid is constructed when a eukaryotic
gene of interest is added with an antibiotic resistant gene such
beta-lactamase, which is used for ampicillin resistance. This plasmid is then
inserted into a prokaryotic bacterial cell, such as E-coli, through a
transformation process that leads to the production of the product protein from
the eukaryotic organism. To culture the bacteria and obtain the protein
product, the bacteria must grow.
Select
the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the E-coli
bacterial cell.
A)
Nutrient broth to which no antibiotic has been added.
B)
Water to which ampicillin has been added.
C)
Nutrient broth to which ampicillin has been added.
D)
Nutrient broth to which other resistant bacteria have been added.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 21 Genomes
and Their Evolution
1)
What is metagenomics?
A)
genomics as applied to a species that most typifies the average phenotype of
its genus
B)
the sequencing of one or two representative genes from several species
C)
the sequencing of only the most highly conserved genes in a lineage
D)
sequencing DNA from a group of species from the same ecosystem
2)
An early step in shotgun sequencing is to _____.
A)
break genomic DNA at random sites
B)
map the position of cloned DNA fragments
C)
randomly select DNA primers and hybridize these to random positions of
chromosomes in preparation for sequencing
3)
Using modern techniques of sequencing by synthesis and the shotgun approach,
sequences are assembled into chromosomes by ______.
A)
placing them on previously generated genetic maps.
B)
cloning them into plasmid vectors.
C)
computer analysis looking for sequence overlaps.
D)
cloning them into plasmid vectors, placing them on previously generated genetic
maps, followed by computer analysis looking for sequence overlaps.
C
4)
Proteomics is defined as the _____.
A)
linkage of each gene to a particular protein
B)
study of the full protein set encoded by a genome
C)
totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
D)
study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein
5)
Bioinformatics can be used to scan for short sequences that specify known
mRNAs, called _____.
A)
expressed sequence tags
B)
multigene families
C)
proteomes
D)
short tandem repeats
6)
What is gene annotation in bioinformatics?
A)
finding transcriptional start and stop sites, RNA splice sites, and ESTs in DNA
sequences
B)
assigning names to newly discovered genes
C)
describing the functions of noncoding regions of the genome
D)
matching the corresponding phenotypes of different species
7)
Bioinformatics includes _____.
I. using
computer programs to align DNA sequences
II. creating
recombinant DNA from separate species
III. developing
computer-based tools for genome analysis
IV. using
mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems
A)
I and II
B)
II and III
C)
II and IV
D)
I, III, and IV
8)
After finding a new medicinal plant, a pharmaceutical company decides to
determine if the plant has genes similar to those of other known medicinal
plants. To do this, the company annotates the genome of the new plant to _____.
A)
determine what proteins are produced
B)
determine what mRNA transcripts are produced
C)
identify genes and determine their functions
D)
identify the location of mRNA within the plant cells
C
9)
If the sequence of a cDNA has matches with DNA sequences in the genome, then
this genomic DNA is likely to _____.
A)
code for a protein
B)
code for an rRNA
C)
be part of an intron
D)
be a regulatory sequence
10)
In what sense are studies by nineteenth-century naturalists and those by early
twenty-first-century genomic biologists similar?
A)
Both focused on cellular evolution.
B)
Both worked to understand how genes evolved.
C)
Both took a reductionist approach by studying only one small part of a complex
system.
D)
Both focused on observing and describing what exists in their realms of
investigation.
11)
Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate to test the
hypothesis that humans and chimps differ in the expression of a large set of
shared genes?
A)
DNA microarray analysis
B)
polymerase chain reactin (PCR)
C)
DNA sequencing
D)
protein-protein interaction assays
12)
A DNA microarray is a tool that owes its existence to earlier genomics investigations.
What essential contribution of genomics makes microarrays possible?
A)
recently improved RNA sequencing technologies
B)
continuously improving methods of gene cloning
C)
more efficient techniques for cDNA synthesis
D)
knowledge of which DNA sequences to synthesize for the array
13)
What can proteomics reveal that genomics cannot?
A)
the number of genes characteristic of a species
B)
the patterns of alternative splicing
C)
the set of proteins present within a cell or tissue type
D)
the movement of transposable elements within the genome
14)
A sequence database such as GenBank could be used to do all of the following
EXCEPT
A)
Compare cow and human insulin protein sequences.
B)
Construct a tree to determine the evolutionary relationships between various
bird species.
C)
Search for genes in a fruit fly that are similar to a human gene.
D)
Compare patterns of gene expression in cancerous and non-cancerous cells.
15)
Current analysis indicates that less than 2% of the human genome codes for proteins. Based on the systems approach employed by the
ENCODE project, what percentage of the genome is estimated to contain
functional elements (includes functional RNAs and regulatory sequences)?
A)
Less than 2%
B)
About 50%
C)
At least 80%
D)
100%
16)
Which of the following is a representation of gene density?
A)
Humans have 2900 Mb per genome.
B)
C. elegans has ~20,000 genes.
C)
Humans have ~20,000 protein-encoding genes in 2900 Mb.
D)
Fritillaria has a genome 40 times the size of a human.
17)
Why might the cricket genome have eleven times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila
melanogaster?
A)
Crickets have higher gene density.
B)
Drosophila are more complex organisms.
C)
Crickets must have more noncoding DNA.
D)
Crickets must make many more proteins.
18)
The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal
species has led to many conclusions, including that _____.
A)
the density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals
B)
the number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far more than the
number of its genes
C)
most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA
D)
the genomes of most other organisms are significantly smaller than the human
genome
19)
It is more difficult to identify eukaryotic genes than prokaryotic genes
because in eukaryotes _____.
A)
the proteins are larger than in prokaryotes
B)
the coding portions of genes are shorter than in prokaryotes
C)
there are no start codons
D)
there are introns
20)
If alternative splicing did NOT occur then _____.
A)
the human genome would likely contain many more genes
B)
the E. coli genome would contain many fewer genes
C)
there would be little correlation between the complexity of organisms and
genome size
D)
there would be many fewer genes devoted to metabolism in Arabidopsis and
yeast
21)
A multigene family is composed of _____.
A)
multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed
B)
genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication
C)
a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways
D)
a highly conserved gene found in a number of different species
22)
Retrotransposons _____.
A)
use an RNA molecule as an intermediate in transposition
B)
are found only in animal cells
C)
generally move by a cut-and-paste mechanism
D)
contribute a significant portion of the genetic variability seen within a
population of gametes
23)
In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity
for oxygen than that of adults. This is due to _____.
A)
nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during
development.
B)
pseudogenes, which interfere with gene expression in adults.
C)
the attachment of methyl groups to cytosine following birth, which changes the
type of hemoglobin produced.
D)
histone proteins changing shape during embryonic development.
24)
Sequencing eukaryotic genomes is more difficult than sequencing genomes of
bacteria or archaea because of the _____.
A)
large size of eukaryotic proteins
B)
hard-to-find proteins
C)
high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA
D)
large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive
DNA
25)
Because they both produce a reverse transcriptase, long interspersed nuclear
elements (LINEs) as transposable elements may be related to _____.
A)
plasmids
B)
retroviruses
C)
poliovirus
D)
parasitic bacteria
26)
Although transposable elements and short tandem repeats (STRs) are repetitive
DNAs, they differ in that _____.
A)
STRs occur within exons; transposable elements occur within introns
B)
STRs occur within introns; transposable elements occur within exons
C)
the repeated unit in STRs is clustered one after another; transposable element
repeats are scattered throughout the genome
D)
the repeated unit in STRs is much larger than the repeated unit of transposable
elements
C
27)
Which of the following can be duplicated in a genome?
A)
only DNA sequences
B)
only entire sets of chromosomes
C)
only entire chromosomes
D)
DNA sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
28)
Unequal crossing over during prophase I can result in one sister chromosome
with a deletion and another with a duplication. A mutated form of hemoglobin,
so-called hemoglobin Lepore, exists in the human population. Hemoglobin Lepore
has a deleted series of amino acids. If this mutated form was caused by unequal
crossing over, what would be an expected consequence?
A)
There should also be persons whose hemoglobin contains two copies of the series
of amino acids that is deleted in hemoglobin Lepore.
B)
Each of the genes in the hemoglobin gene family must show the same deletion.
C)
The deleted gene must have undergone exon shuffling.
D)
The deleted region must be located in a different area of the individual's
genome.
The
figure above shows a diagram of blocks of genes on human chromosome 16 and the
locations of blocks of similar genes on four chromosomes of the mouse.
29)
The movement of these blocks suggests that _____.
A)
during evolutionary time, these sequences have separated and have returned to
their original positions
B)
DNA sequences within these blocks have become increasingly divergent
C)
sequences represented have duplicated at least three times
D)
chromosomal translocations have moved blocks of sequences to other chromosomes
30)
Humans have twenty-three pairs of chromosomes and chimps have twenty-four pairs
of chromosomes. What is the most likely explanation for these differences in
human and chimp genomes?
A)
The common ancestor of humans and chimps had twenty-four pairs of chromosomes.
After the two groups evolved, two human chromosomes fused end to end
B)
In the evolution of chimps, new adaptations resulted from additional
chromosomal material.
C)
At some point in evolution, human and chimp ancestors reproduced with each
other.
D)
Errors in mitosis resulted in an additional pair of chromosomes in chimps.
31)
Exon shuffling occurs during _____.
A)
splicing of DNA
B)
DNA replication
C)
meiotic recombination
D)
translation
32)
When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a
genome, what has occurred?
A)
pseudogene creation
B)
creation of a gene cluster
C)
creation of a polyploid
D)
creation of a diploid
33)
Mutations that occur in one member of a gene pair that arose from gene
duplication may create _____.
A)
a pseudogene
B)
a gene with a new function
C)
a gene family with two distinct but related members
D)
a pseudogene, a gene with a new function, and a gene family with two distinct
but related members
34) Based on the data in the Amino Acid Identity
Table, which two members of the human globin gene family are the most
divergent?
A)
a1 and ß
B)
? and ß
C)
a1 and a2
D)
a1 and G?
35)
Fragments of DNA have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly
mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. These can now be used to _____.
A)
introduce certain mammoth traits into relatives, such as elephants
B)
clone live woolly mammoths
C)
appreciate the reasons why mammoths went extinct
D)
better understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related taxa
36)
Homeotic genes contain a homeobox sequence that is highly conserved among very
diverse species. The homeobox is the code for that domain of a protein that
binds to DNA in a regulatory developmental process. Therefore, you would expect
that _____.
A)
homeotic genes are selectively expressed as an organism develops
B)
homeoboxes cannot be expressed in nonhomeotic genes
C)
homeotic genes in apes and humans are very different
D)
all organisms must have homeotic genes
37)
A recent study compared the Homo sapiens genome with that of
Neanderthals. The results of the study indicated that there was a mixing of the
two genomes at some period in evolutionary history. Additional data consistent
with this hypothesis could be the discovery of _____.
A)
some Neanderthal sequences not found in living humans
B)
a few modern H. sapiens with some Neanderthal sequences
C)
duplications of several Neanderthal genes on a Neanderthal chromosome
D)
some Neanderthal chromosomes that are shorter than their counterparts in living
humans
38)
Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different
times in development. What mechanism could allow for this?
A)
exon shuffling
B)
pseudogene activation
C)
differential translation of mRNAs
D)
differential gene regulation over time
39)
Biologists now routinely test for homology between genes in different species.
If genes are determined to be homologous, it means that they are related _____.
A)
by descent from a common ancestor
B)
because of convergent evolution
C)
by chance mutations
D)
in function but not structure
40)
A current view of how the human and chimpanzee can share most of their
nucleotide sequence yet exhibit significant phenotypic differences is that many
of the most important sequence differences alter _____.
A)
structural genes
B)
the number of repeated sequences
C)
regulatory sequences
D)
environmental factors
41)
Studies in knockout mice have demonstrated an important role of the FOXP2
transcription factor in the development of vocalizations. Recent sequence comparisons of the FOXP2
gene in Neanderthals and modern humans show that while the DNA sequence may be
different, the protein sequence it codes for is identical. What might logically be inferred from this
information?
A)
There was a problem with the experiment because different DNA sequences cannot
result in the same protein sequence.
B)
The differences in DNA sequence support the hypothesis that Neanderthals were
primitive beings that could only grunt.
C)
Human and Neanderthal vocalizations may have been more similar than previously
thought.
D)
The experiments in mice demonstrating the function of the FOXP2 gene are not
relevant to humans and Neanderthals because they are not primates.
42)
Comparisons of DNA sequences within the human species have revealed many
variations. Which of the following
variations involves duplication of relatively long stretches of chromosomes,
often including the duplication of protein-coding genes?
A)
CNVs
B)
SNPs
C)
STRs
D)
Transposable elements
43)
A microarray is a tool used in genetic research to determine the mRNAs being
produced in a particular tissue, and their relative level of expression. Known
genes can therefore be assayed for their expression in different situations.
One use of the technology is in cancer diagnosis and treatment. If a known gene
functions as a tumor suppressor, predict which of the following pieces of
evidence would be most useful in diagnosis of a cancer due to a mutation in
this tumor-suppressor gene.
A)
The tissue sample shows a high level of gene expression relative to a control
(noncancerous) sample.
B)
The tissue sample responds to treatment with a mitosis-promoting compound.
C)
The mRNAs for the targeted tumor suppressor sequence are not being produced.
D)
The mRNAs for cyclins and kinases show unusually high levels of expression.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 22 Descent
with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
1)
Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection was revolutionary
because it _____.
A)
was the first theory to refute the ideas of special creation
B)
proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time
C)
dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of
variation and change in populations
D)
was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time
2)
Catastrophism was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of _____.
A)
evolution
B)
the fossil record
C)
uniformitarianism
D)
the origin of new species
3)
With what other idea of his time was Cuvier's theory of catastrophism most in
conflict?
A)
the scala naturae
B)
the fixity of species
C)
island biogeography
D)
uniformitarianism
4)
Prior to the work of Lyell and Darwin, the prevailing belief was that Earth is
_____.
A)
a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging
B)
a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change
C)
millions of years old, and populations rapidly change
D)
millions of years old, and populations are unchanging
5)
During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks,
"The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its
offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most
likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception?
A)
Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on
through genes.
B)
Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.
C)
Only favorable adaptations have survival value.
D)
Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.
6)
When Cuvier considered the fossils found in the vicinity of Paris, he concluded
that the extinction of species _____.
A)
occurs, but that there is no evolution
B)
and the evolution of species both occur
C)
and the evolution of species do not occur
D)
does not occur, but evolution does occur
7)
In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat
plants, exposed to increasingly colder temperatures, would eventually give rise
to more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most
in agreement with the ideas of _____.
A)
Cuvier
B)
Lamarck
C)
Darwin
D)
Lyell
The
following questions refer to the figure below, which shows an outcrop of
sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A-D.
8)
If x indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species,
then fossils of their most-recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in
which stratum?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
9)
If x indicates the fossils of two closely related species, neither of
which is extinct, then their remains may be found in how many of these strata?
A)
one stratum
B)
two strata
C)
three strata
D)
four strata
The
following questions refer to the evolutionary tree in the figure below.
The
horizontal axis of the cladogram depicted below is a timeline that extends from
100,000 years ago to the present; the vertical axis represents nothing in
particular. The labeled branch points on the tree (V-Z) represent various
common ancestors. Let's say that only since 50,000 years ago has there been
enough variation between the lineages depicted here to separate them into
distinct species, and only the tips of the lineages on this tree represent
distinct species.
10)
Which pair of scientists below would probably have agreed with the process that
is depicted by this tree?
A)
Cuvier and Lamarck
B)
Lamarck and Wallace
C)
Aristotle and Lyell
D)
Wallace and Linnaeus
11)
The cow Bos primigenius (which is bred for meat and milk) has a smaller
brain and larger eyes than closely related wild species of ungulates. These
traits most likely arose by _____.
A)
natural selection, because these traits evolved in the population over time
B)
natural selection, because these traits were not consciously selected by humans
C)
artificial selection, because changes in these traits co-occurred with human
selection for high milk output and high muscle content
D)
artificial selection, because these animals differ from their close relatives
and common ancestor
12)
Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea, breeders have created
the strains known as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. Therefore,
which of the following statements is correct?
A)
In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these
different varieties.
B)
Heritable variation is low in wild mustard—otherwise this wild strain would
have different characteristics.
C)
Natural selection is rare in wild populations of wild mustard.
D)
In wild mustard, most of the variation is due to differences in soil or other
aspects of the environment.
13)
Which of the following scientists argued that variation among individuals
allows evolution to occur?
A)
Aristotle
B)
Lamarck
C)
Linnaeus
D)
Wallace
14)
Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to
natural selection?
Condition
1: The population must vary in traits that are heritable.
Condition
2: Some heritable traits must increase reproductive success.
Condition
3: Individuals pass on most traits that they acquire during their lifetime.
A)
Condition 1 only
B)
Condition 2 only
C)
Conditions 1 and 2
D)
Conditions 2 and 3
15)
A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first
few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after
several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these
explanations best explains what happened?
A)
The herbicide company lost its triazine formula and started selling
poor-quality triazine.
B)
Natural selection caused the pigweed to mutate, creating a new
triazine-resistant species.
C)
Triazine-resistant pigweed has less-efficient photosynthesis metabolism.
D)
Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce.
16)
After the drought of 1977, researchers on the island of Daphne Major
hypothesized that medium ground finches that had large, deep beaks, survived
better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and
eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. If this hypothesis is correct,
what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches
colonizes a nearby island where Tribulus cistoides is the most abundant
food for the next 1000 years? Assume that (1) even the survivors of the 1977
drought sometimes had difficulty cracking the tough T. cistoides fruits
and would eat other seeds when offered a choice; and (2) food availability is
the primary limit on finch fitness on this new island.
A)
evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time
B)
evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time
C)
random fluctuations in beak size and shape
D)
no change in beak size and shape
17)
After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on the Galápagos
island Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived
better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and
eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. A tourist company sets up
reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and
sizes) so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of these
events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on this island?
A)
evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time, until all birds have
relatively large, deep beaks
B)
evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time, until all birds have relatively
small, pointy beaks
C)
increased variation in beak size and shape over time
D)
no change in beak size and shape over time
The
following question is based on information from Frank M. Frey, "Opposing
Natural Selection from Herbivores and Pathogens May Maintain Floral-Color
Variation in Claytonia virginica (Portulacaceae)," Evolution
58(11), 2004: 2426-37.
18)
Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary
from white to pale pink to bright pink. Slugs prefer to eat pink-flowering over
white-flowering plants (due to chemical differences between the two), and
plants experiencing severe herbivory are more likely to die. The bees that
pollinate this plant also prefer pink to white flowers, so that Claytonia
with pink flowers have greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with
white flowers. A researcher observes that the percentage of different flower
colors remains stable in the study population from year to year. Given no other
information, if the researcher removes all slugs from the study population,
what do you expect to happen to the distribution of flower colors in the
population over time?
A)
The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time.
B)
The percentage of white flowers should increase over time.
C)
The distribution of flower colors should not change.
D)
The distribution of flower colors should randomly fluctuate over time.
19)
Parasitic species tend to have simple morphologies. Which of the following
statements best explains this observation?
A)
Parasites are lower organisms, and this is why they have simple morphologies.
B)
Parasites do not live long enough to inherit acquired characteristics.
C)
Simple morphologies convey some advantage in most parasites.
D)
Parasites have not yet had time to progress, because they are young
evolutionarily.
20)
Darwin and Wallace were the first to propose _____.
A)
that evolution occurs
B)
a mechanism for how evolution occurs
C)
that Earth is older than a few thousand years
D)
natural selection as the mechanism of evolution
21)
A population of organisms will not evolve if _____.
A)
all individual variation is due only to environmental factors
B)
the environment is changing at a relatively slow rate
C)
the population size is large
D)
the population lives in a habitat without competing species present
22)
Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings
of Thomas Malthus?
A)
Technological innovation in agricultural practices will permit exponential
growth of the human population into the foreseeable future.
B)
Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally
allows.
C)
Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.
D)
The environment is responsible for natural selection.
23)
Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct
sequence of the following events under the influence of natural selection?
1. Well-adapted
individuals leave more offspring than do poorly adapted individuals.
2. A
change occurs in the environment.
3. Genetic
frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly
adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
A)
2 → 4 → 1 → 3
B)
4 → 2 → 1 → 3
C)
4 → 2 → 3 → 1
D)
2 → 4 → 3 → 1
24)
A biologist studied a population of squirrels for fifteen years. During that
time, the population was never fewer than thirty squirrels and never more than
forty-five. Her data showed that over half of the squirrels born did not
survive to reproduce, because of both competition for food and predation. In a
single generation, 90% of the squirrels that were born lived to reproduce, and
the population increased to eighty. Which inference(s) about this most recent
surge in the population size might be true?
A)
The amount of available food may have increased.
B)
The parental generation of squirrels developed better eyesight due to improved
diet; the subsequent squirrel generation inherited better eyesight.
C)
The number of predators that prey upon squirrels may have decreased.
D)
The amount of available food may have increased and/or the predators that prey
upon squirrels may have decreased.
25)
Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can
act upon that population?
A)
genetic variation among individuals
B)
variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
C)
sexual reproduction
D)
the population has predators
26)
Which of Darwin's ideas had the strongest connection to his reading of
Malthus's essay on human population growth?
A)
descent with modification
B)
variation among individuals in a population
C)
struggle for existence
D)
that the ancestors of the Galápagos finches had come from the South American
mainland
27)
If Darwin had been aware of genes and their typical mode of transmission to
subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in
agreement?
A)
If natural selection can change gene frequency in a population over
generations, given enough time and genetic diversity, then natural selection
can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones.
B)
If an organism's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more
fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring.
C)
If an organism acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another
organism, then a new genetic species will result.
D)
A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete, if inherited by future
generations, will produce a new species.
28)
The role that humans play in artificial selection is to _____.
A)
determine who lives and who dies
B)
create genetic diversity
C)
choose which organisms reproduce
D)
perform artificial insemination
29)
Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are classified in the genus Loxodonta,
and a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which
statement should be true?
A)
Species X and Y are not related to species Z.
B)
Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than
either does with species Z.
C)
Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is alive today.
D)
Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection.
30)
In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators
of large, adult algae-eating fish (in other words, they locate their prey by
sight). The population of algae-eaters experiences predatory pressure from
pike-cichlids. Which of the following is least likely to result in the
algae-eater population in future generations?
A)
selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters
B)
selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night)
C)
selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and
larger, young
D)
selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body
sizes
31)
Currently, two of the living elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus
Loxodonta and a third surviving species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas.
Assuming this classification reflects evolutionary relatedness, which of the
following is the most accurate phylogenetic tree?
A)
B)
C)
D)
32)
Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on
their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer
hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the
hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should
_____.
A)
test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B)
look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
C)
determine if hair length is heritable
D)
test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
33)
Fossils of Thrinaxodon, a species that lived during the Triassic period,
have been found in both South Africa and Antarctica. Thrinaxodon had a
reptile-like skeleton and laid eggs, but small depressions on the front of its
skull suggest it had whiskers and, therefore, fur. Thrinaxodon may have
been warm-blooded. The fossils of Thrinaxodon are consistent with the
hypothesis that _____.
A)
fossils found in a given area look like the modern species in that same area
B)
the environment where it lived was very warm
C)
mammals evolved from a reptilian ancestor
D)
Antarctica and South Africa separated after Thrinaxodon went extinct
34)
Many crustaceans (for example, lobsters, shrimp, and crayfish) use their tails
to swim, but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not
used in swimming. This is an example of _____.
A)
convergent evolution
B)
a homologous structure
C)
natural selection
D)
a vestigial trait
35)
Which of the following, if discovered, could refute our current understanding
of the pattern of evolution?
A)
no fossils of soft-bodied animals
B)
a modern bird having reptile-like scales on its legs
C)
radioactive dating of rocks showing that rocks closer to the Earth's surface
are younger than lower rock strata
D)
diverse fossils of mammals in Precambrian rock
36)
Researchers discovered that a new strain of bacteria that cause tuberculosis (M.
tuberculosis) taken from a dead patient has a point mutation in the rpoB
gene that codes for part of the RNA polymerase enzyme. This mutant form of RNA
polymerase does not function as well as the more common form of RNA polymerase.
A commonly used antibiotic called rifampin does not affect the mutant rpoB
bacteria.
A
researcher mixes M. tuberculosis with and without the rpoB
mutation and adds the bacteria to cell cultures. Half the cell cultures contain
only standard nutrients, while the other half of the cell cultures contain
rifampin and the standard nutrients. After many cell generations, the researcher
finds that _____.
A)
very few M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry
the rpoB gene mutation, but almost all of the M. tuberculosis in
the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation
B)
almost all M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry
the rpoB gene mutation, but very few of the M. tuberculosis in
the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation
C)
very few M. tuberculosis in any of the cell cultures carry the rpoB
gene mutation
D)
almost all of the M. tuberculosis in both types of cell cultures carry
the rpoB mutation
37)
Scientific theories _____.
A)
are nearly the same things as hypotheses
B)
are supported by, and make sense of, many observations
C)
cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once
D)
are predictions of future events
38)
DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently
eradicate insect pests. Instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects.
Which of these would have prevented this evolution of DDT resistance in insect
pests?
A)
All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time.
B)
The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.
C)
None of the insect pests would have genetic variations that resulted in DDT
resistance.
D)
DDT application should have been continual.
39)
If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for
maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen in
environments that lack antibiotics?
A)
These genes would be maintained in case the antibiotics appear.
B)
These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost
these genes.
C)
These bacteria would try to make the cost worthwhile by locating and migrating
to microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.
D)
The number of genes conveying antibiotic resistance would increase in these
bacteria.
40)
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the bones in the
wing of a bird?
A)
bones in the hind limb of a kangaroo
B)
chitinous struts in the wing of a butterfly
C)
bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish
D)
bones in the flipper of a whale
41)
Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain
many of the same bones, which develop from similar embryonic tissues. These
structural similarities are an example of _____.
A)
homology
B)
convergent evolution
C)
the evolution of common structure as a result of common function
D)
the evolution of similar appearance as a result of common function
42)
Over long periods of time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes.
Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs.
How can natural selection account for these losses?
A)
Natural selection cannot account for losses, but accounts only for new
structures and functions.
B)
Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse.
C)
Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these
structures presented greater costs than benefits.
D)
The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them
to lose these structures.
43)
Which of the following evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all
life on Earth? All organisms _____.
A)
require energy
B)
use essentially the same genetic code
C)
reproduce
D)
show heritable variation
44)
Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they
use in a similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following
would suggest that the relationship more likely represents homology instead of
convergent evolution?
A)
The two species live at great distance from each other.
B)
The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences
that code for these proteins are almost identical.
C)
The structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D)
Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.
45)
What must be true of any organ described as vestigial?
A)
It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B)
It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
C)
It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
D)
It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
46)
Pseudogenes are _____.
A)
composed of RNA, rather than DNA
B)
the same things as introns
C)
unrelated genes that code for the same gene product
D)
nonfunctional vestigial genes
47)
It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely
related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as
evidence that ____.
A)
island forms are descended from mainland forms
B)
common environments are inhabited by the same organisms
C)
island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools
D)
the island forms and mainland forms are converging
48)
Given what we know about evolutionary biology, we expect to find the largest
number of endemic species in which of the following geological features, which
have existed for at least a few million years?
A)
an isolated ocean island in the tropics
B)
an extensive mountain range
C)
a grassland in the center of a large continent, with extreme climatic
conditions
D)
a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast
49)
The greatest number of endemic species is expected in environments that are
_____.
A)
easily reached and ecologically diverse
B)
isolated and show little ecological diversity
C)
isolated and ecologically diverse
D)
easily reached and show little ecological diversity
The
following questions refer to the evolutionary tree in the figure below.
The
horizontal axis of the cladogram depicted below is a timeline that extends from
100,000 years ago to the present; the vertical axis represents nothing in particular.
The labeled branch points on the tree (V-Z) represent various common ancestors.
Let's say that only since 50,000 years ago has there been enough variation
between the lineages depicted here to separate them into distinct species, and
only the tips of the lineages on this tree represent distinct species.
50)
How many distinct species, both living and extinct, are depicted in this tree?
A)
five
B)
six
C)
nine
D)
eleven
51)
Which of the five common ancestors, labeled V-Z, is the common ancestor of the
greatest number of species, both living and extinct?
A)
V
B)
W
C)
Y
D)
Z
52)
Which of the five species, labeled V-Z, is the common ancestor of the fewest
number of species?
A)
V
B)
W
C)
Y
D)
Z
53)
Evolutionary trees such as this are properly understood by scientists to be
_____.
A)
theories
B)
hypotheses
C)
dogmas
D)
facts
54)
About thirteen different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands
today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland
that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct
lineages, but the thirteen species are currently classified among three genera.
The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch
(genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus),
followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six
ground finch species (genus Geospiza). If the six ground finch species
have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction?
A)
They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the
sea.
B)
Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the
five tree finch species.
C)
They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share
with the tree finches.
D)
The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less
than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species.
The
questions below refer to the following evolutionary tree, in which the
horizontal axis represents time (present time is on the far right) and the
vertical axis represents morphological change.
55)
Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)
V is most closely related to species W.
B)
X is most closely related to species W.
C)
Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)
It is not possible to say from this tree.
56)
Which of these is the extant (that is, living) species most closely related to
species X?
A)
V
B)
W
C)
Y
D)
Z
57)
Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships
depicted by an evolutionary tree?
A)
Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats.
B)
The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (in
other words, some bones were missing).
C)
Transitional fossils had not been found.
D)
Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match
relationships between skeletal patterns.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 23 The
Evolution of Populations
1)
Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution?
A)
descent with modification
B)
change in the number of genes in a population over time
C)
survival of the fittest
D)
inheritance of acquired characters
2)
Which variable is likely to undergo the largest change in value resulting from
a mutation that introduces a new allele into a population at a locus for which
all individuals formerly had been fully homozygous?
A)
average heterozygosity
B)
nucleotide variability
C)
geographic variability
D)
average number of loci
3)
Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major
during prolonged drought is true?
A)
Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted.
B)
Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its
beak as the drought persisted.
C)
Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper,
stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation.
D)
The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought
persisted.
4)
Which statement about variation is true?
A)
All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.
B)
All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.
C)
All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.
D)
All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.
5)
Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely)
with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the
corresponding polypeptide.
1. insertion
mutation deep within an intron
2. substitution
mutation at the third position of an exonic codon
3. substitution
mutation at the second position of an exonic codon
4. deletion
mutation within the first exon of the gene
A)
1, 2, 3, 4
B)
4, 3, 2, 1
C)
2, 1, 4, 3
D)
3, 1, 4, 2
6)
Genetic variation _____.
A)
is created by the direct action of natural selection
B)
arises in response to changes in the environment
C)
must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the
population
D)
tends to be reduced by when diploid organisms produce gametes
The
questions below refer to the following paragraph.
HIV's
genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that
acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The
HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection
by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT
and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called
nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease
inhibitors (PI) act against PR.
7)
Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the
evolution of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side
effects)?
A)
using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week
B)
using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week
C)
using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one
day
D)
using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several
months
8)
Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one RNA molecule
become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other RNA
molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true?
A)
There are now fewer genes within the viral particle.
B)
There are now more genes within the viral particle.
C)
A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome.
D)
One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of
translocation.
The
following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).
A
researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs
are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees
are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs
that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But
caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs.
How
does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars
on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female
moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one
egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least
two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and
light conditions listed below.
In
each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the
other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4
environments × 2 diets).
9)
Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible
hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in
this population?
A)
The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B)
The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike
caterpillars.
C)
Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the
development of different types of caterpillars.
D)
Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
10)
Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak
flowers look like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on
oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the following
hypotheses?
A)
The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B)
Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
C)
Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D)
The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike
caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
11)
Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were
exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental
design tested which of the following hypotheses?
A)
The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B)
Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
C)
Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D)
The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike
caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
12)
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes
death during the teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease,
what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles
according to the Hardy-Weinberg model?
A)
f(A1)
= 0.9997, f(A2)
= 0.0003
B)
f(A1)
= 0.9800, f(A2)
= 0.0200
C)
f(A1)
= 0.9700, f(A2)
= 0.0300
D)
f(A1)
= 0.9604, f(A2)
= 0.0392
13)
Suppose 64% of a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC)
and must, therefore, have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele.
If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene, what
percentage of the population must be heterozygous for this trait?
A)
16%
B)
32%
C)
40%
D)
48%
14)
For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which
Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet?
A)
no selection
B)
no genetic drift
C)
no gene flow
D)
no mutation
15)
For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg
condition is easiest to meet?
A)
no selection
B)
no genetic drift
C)
no gene flow
D)
no mutation
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Researchers
studying a small milkweed population note that some plants produce a toxin and
other plants do not. They identify the gene responsible for toxin production.
The dominant allele (T) codes for an enzyme that makes the toxin, and
the recessive allele (t) codes for a nonfunctional enzyme that cannot
produce the toxin. Heterozygotes produce an intermediate amount of toxin. The
genotypes of all individuals in the population are determined (see chart) and
used to determine the actual allele frequencies in the population.
16)
Refer to the figure above. Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A)
Yes.
B)
No; there are more heterozygotes than expected.
C)
No; there are more homozygotes than expected.
D)
More information is needed to answer this question.
17)
If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then
the average homozygosity of the species should be _____.
A)
23%
B)
46%
C)
54%
D)
92%
18)
The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population,
the lower are that population's _____.
A)
nucleotide variability
B)
chromosome number
C)
average heterozygosity
D)
nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity
19)
Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular
locus, _____.
A)
the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next
B)
natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change an
allele's frequency
C)
two alleles are present in equal proportions
D)
individuals within the population are evolving
20)
In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the "2"
in the term 2pq is necessary because _____.
A)
the population is diploid
B)
heterozygotes can come about in two ways
C)
the population is doubling in number
D)
heterozygotes have two alleles
21)
In the formula for determining a population’s genotype frequencies, the "pq"
in the term 2pq is necessary because _____.
A)
the population is diploid
B)
heterozygotes can come about in two ways
C)
the population is doubling in number
D)
heterozygotes have two alleles
22)
In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that
are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the
frequency of individuals that are homozygous for this allele?
A)
0.09
B)
0.49
C)
0.9
D)
9.0
23)
In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that
are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the
frequency of individuals that are heterozygous for this allele?
A)
0.020
B)
0.04
C)
0.16
D)
0.32
24)
In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that
are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the
frequency of individuals with AA genotype?
A)
0.20
B)
0.32
C)
0.42
D)
0.81
25)
You sample a population of butterflies and find that 56% are heterozygous at a
particular locus. What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this
population?
A)
0.08
B)
0.09
C)
0.70
D)
Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.
26)
In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r
= white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering plants and 64
white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value
of q for this population?
A)
0.36
B)
0.64
C)
0.75
D)
0.80
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
A
large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a
number of generations. After several generations, 25% of the animals display a
recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the
breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with
heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants.
27)
What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the fact that the
frequency of the recessive trait (aa) has not changed over time?
A)
The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory conditions.
B)
The genotype AA is lethal.
C)
There has been a high rate of mutation of allele A to allele a.
D)
There has been sexual selection favoring allele a.
28)
What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)
0.25
B)
0.50
C)
0.75
D)
0.125
29)
What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this
trait?
A)
0.05
B)
0.25
C)
0.50
D)
0.75
30)
Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that _____.
A)
does little to change allele frequencies
B)
is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
C)
happens in all populations
D)
has no effect on genetic variation
The
following question(s) are based on information in Hopi E. Hoekstra, Kristen E.
Drumm, and Michael W. Nachman, "Ecological Genetics of Adaptive Color
Polymorphism in Pocket Mice: Geographic Variation in Selected and Neutral
Genes," Evolution 58(6), 2004: 1329-41.
31)
The figure above shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors in several
Arizona populations found either on light-colored granite substrate or on dark
volcanic rock (dark substrate). The Melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r)
alleles, D and d, differ by four amino acids. Mice with DD
and Dd genotypes have dark coats, whereas mice with the dd
genotype are light colored. What sort of genotype frequencies might you expect
to find in the Xmas, Mid, and O'Neill populations?
A)
Xmas-high DD frequency; Mid-high Dd frequency, O'Neill-high dd
frequency
B)
Xmas-high Dd frequency; Mid-high DD frequency, O'Neill-high dd
frequency
C)
Xmas-high dd frequency; Mid-high Dd frequency, O'Neill-high DD
frequency
D)
Xmas-high dd frequency; Mid-high DD frequency, O'Neill-high Dd
frequency
32)
Refer to the figure above. In their investigation of natural selection on Mc1r
alleles (the gene that determines coat color) in Arizona pocket mice, Hoekstra
et al. determined the frequency of the D and d alleles in each
population. They also determined the frequency of alleles for two neutral
mitochondrial DNA genes (genes that do not affect and are not linked to coat
color). Why did the researchers include the mitochondrial DNA genes as part of
their experimental design?
A)
Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as an experimental group
and gives information on any general background genetic difference among these
populations.
B)
Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a control and
determines coat-color differences among these populations.
C)
Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as an experimental
group and gives information on coat-color differences among these populations.
D)
Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a control and gives
information on any general background genetic difference among these
populations.
33)
Soon after the island of Hawaii rose above the sea surface (somewhat less than
one million years ago), the evolution of life on this new island should have
been most strongly influenced by _____.
A)
a genetic bottleneck
B)
sexual selection
C)
habitat differentiation
D)
the founder effect
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
In
1983 a population of dark-eyed junco birds became established on the campus of
the University of California, San Diego (UCSD), which is located many miles
from the junco's normal habitat in the mixed-coniferous temperate forests in
the mountains. Juncos have white outer tail feathers that the males display
during aggressive interactions and during courtship displays. Males with more
white in their tail are more likely to win aggressive interactions, and females
prefer to mate with males with more white in their tails. Females have less
white in their tails than do males, and display it less often. (Pamela J. Yeh.
2004. Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following population
establishment in a novel habitat. Evolution 58[1]:166-74.)
34)
Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds. The UCSD campus male junco
population tails were, on average, 36% white, whereas the tails of males from
nearby mountain populations averaged 40-45% white. If this observed trait
difference were due to a difference in the original colonizing population, it
would most likely be due to _____.
A)
mutations in the UCSD population
B)
gene flow between populations
C)
a genetic bottleneck
D)
a founder effect
35) Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed
junco birds. The UCSD campus male junco population tails are about 36% white,
whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations are about 40-45%
white. The founding stock of UCSD birds was likely from the nearby mountain
populations because some of those birds overwinter on the UCSD campus each
year. Population sizes on the UCSD campus have been reasonably large, and there
are significant habitat differences between the UCSD campus and the mountain
coniferous forests; UCSD campus has a more open environment (making birds more
visible) and a lower junco density (decreasing intraspecific competition) than
that in the mountain forests. Given this information, which of the following
evolutionary mechanisms do you think is most likely responsible for the
difference between the UCSD and mountain populations?
A)
natural selection
B)
genetic drift
C)
gene flow
D)
mutation
36)
The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in
the mid-1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate
community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene
frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations including those in their
original homeland. Which of the following likely explains the genetic
uniqueness of this population?
A)
population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B)
heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C)
mutation and natural selection
D)
founder effect and genetic drift
37)
An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of the
squirrels. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes, on
average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically
determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during
the earthquake?
A)
directional selection
B)
disruptive selection
C)
a founder event
D)
a genetic bottleneck
38)
Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow
between two populations?
A)
lower average fitness in both populations
B)
higher average fitness in both populations
C)
increased genetic difference between the two populations
D)
decreased genetic difference between the two populations
39)
In 1986, a nuclear power accident in Chernobyl, USSR (now Ukraine), led to high
radiation levels for miles surrounding the plant. The high levels of radiation
caused elevated mutation rates in the surviving organisms, and evolutionary
biologists have been studying rodent populations in the Chernobyl area ever
since. Based on your understanding of evolutionary mechanisms, which of the
following most likely occurred in the rodent populations following the accident?
A)
Mutations caused major changes in rodent physiology over time.
B)
Mutation led to increased genetic variation.
C)
Mutation caused genetic drift and decreased fitness.
D)
Mutation caused the fixation of new alleles.
40)
Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has
altered the course of human evolution by increasing _____.
A)
nonrandom mating
B)
geographic isolation
C)
genetic drift
D)
gene flow
41)
You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by
transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After
several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased
greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to
decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to _____.
A)
cross your flies with flies from another lab
B)
reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation
C)
transfer only the largest flies
D)
change the temperature at which you rear the flies
42)
The inability of organisms to evolve anything that could be an advantage
reflects _____.
A)
the limits of historical constraints
B)
the inability to compromise
C)
the consequences of random mutations
D)
the consequences of inbreeding
43)
Which of the following is a fitness trade-off (compromise)?
A)
In some hornbill species, the male helps seal the female in a tree with her
nest until the young are ready to fledge.
B)
Hummingbirds are the best pollinators of certain flowers, but bees are the best
pollinators for orchids.
C)
The strong, thick beak of a woodpecker helps it find insects in trees.
D)
Turtle shells provide protection but are heavy and burdensome when moving.
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
On
the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various,
now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some
predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts;
other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a
long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of
female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences.
44)
If one builds a canal linking a predator-rich pond to a predator-poor pond,
then what type(s) of selection should subsequently be most expected among the
mosquitofish in the original predator-rich pond, and what type(s) should be
most expected among the mosquitofish in the formerly predator-poor pond?
A)
stabilizing selection; directional selection
B)
stabilizing selection; stabilizing selection
C)
less-intense directional selection; more-intense directional selection
D)
less-intense disruptive selection; more-intense disruptive selection
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Martin
Wikelski and L. Michael Romero (Body size, performance and fitness in Galápagos
marine iguanas, Integrative and Comparative Biology 43 [2003]:376-86)
measured the snout-to-vent (anus) length of Galápagos marine iguanas and
observed the percent survival of different-sized animals, all of the same age.
The graph shows the log snout-vent length (SVL, a measure of overall body size)
plotted against the percent survival of these different size classes for males
and females.
45)
Examine the figure above. What type of selection for body size appears to be
occurring in these marine iguanas?
A)
directional selection
B)
stabilizing selection
C)
disruptive selection
D)
You cannot determine the type of selection from the above information.
46)
Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks.
Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation, although small
iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. If predators (for example, cats)
that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island,
iguana body size is likely to _____ in the absence of other factors; the
iguanas would then be under _____ selection.
A)
increase; directional
B)
increase; disruptive
C)
decrease; directional
D)
decrease; disruptive
47)
Three-spined stickleback fish (Gasterosteus aculeatus) show substantial
heritable variation in gill-raker length related to differences in their diets.
Longer gill rakers appear to function better for capturing open-water prey, while
shorter gill rakers function better for capturing shallow-water prey. Which of
the following types of selection is most likely to be found in a large lake
(open water in the middle and shallow water around the sides) with a high
density of these fish?
A)
directional selection
B)
stabilizing selection
C)
disruptive selection
D)
sexual selection
48)
A biologist doing a long-term study on a wild spider population observes
increased variation in silk thickness. Which of the following could the spider
population be experiencing?
A)
directional selection
B)
stabilizing selection
C)
disruptive selection
D)
genetic drift
49)
In some jacana species, males take care of the eggs and young, and females
compete among themselves for territories that contain one to several males.
Female jacanas are significantly larger than males. Which of these statements
would you predict to be true of this bird species?
1. Male
jacana fitness is primarily limited by ability to take care of eggs and raise
young.
2. Female
jacana fitness is limited by the number of males in her territory with which a
female mates.
3. Variation
in reproductive success should be greater in male jacanas than in females.
4. Variation
in reproductive success should be greater in female jacanas than in males.
5. Males
and females have equal variation in reproductive success.
A)
1 and 3
B)
2 and 4
C)
1, 2, and 4
D)
5
50)
The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack
by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes.
The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because
bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose
genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become
more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not
methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The
outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time
results from _____.
A)
frequency-dependent selection
B)
evolutionary imbalance
C)
heterozygote advantage
D)
neutral variation
51)
The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack
by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes.
The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because
bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose
genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become
more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not
methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. Over
the course of evolutionary time, what should occur?
A)
Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial species.
B)
Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
C)
Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
D)
Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria
and bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time.
52)
Arrange the following in order from most general to most specific.
1 natural
selection
2. microevolution
3. intrasexual
selection
4. evolution
5. sexual
selection
A)
4, 1, 2, 3, 5
B)
4, 2, 1, 3, 5
C)
4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D)
1, 4, 2, 5, 3
53)
Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans,
which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of
the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward
decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx size in adult
males, then _____.
A)
sexual dimorphism was evolving over time in these species
B)
intrasexual selection seems to have occurred in both species
C)
stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx size
D)
selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype
54)
Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Starlings
producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following
terms best describes this situation?
A)
directional selection
B)
stabilizing selection
C)
disruptive selection
D)
sexual selection
55)
When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes
(that is, other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often
receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the
offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of _____.
A)
sexual selection
B)
balancing selection
C)
stabilizing selection
D)
frequency-dependent selection
56)
A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more
functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals
as horses, whales, and bats. The actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem
to be optimally arranged because _____.
A)
natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in
each case, but will do so given enough time
B)
in many cases, phenotype is determined by genotype and the environment
C)
though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements
and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection
ultimately produces the best design
D)
natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were
present in previous generations and in previous species
57)
Anopheles mosquitoes, which carry the malaria parasite, cannot live above
elevations of 5900 feet. In addition, oxygen availability decreases with higher
altitude. Consider a hypothetical human population that is adapted to life on
the slopes of Mt. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania, a country in equatorial Africa. Mt.
Kilimanjaro's base is about 2600 feet above sea level and its peak is 19,341
feet above sea level. If the incidence of the sickle-cell allele in the
population is plotted against altitude (feet above sea level), which of the
following distributions is most likely, assuming little migration of people up
or down the mountain?
A)
B)
C)
D)
In
a very large population, a quantitative trait has the following distribution
pattern.
58)
If there is no gene flow, the curve shifts to the left or to the right, and the
population size consequently increases over successive generations, which of
the following is most likely occurring?
A)
immigration or emigration
B)
directional selection
C)
disruptive selection
D)
genetic drift
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
In
those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the
sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the β hemoglobin alleles in the human
gene pool.
59)
In the United States, the parasite that causes malaria is not present, but
African-Americans whose ancestors were from equatorial Africa are present. What
should be happening to the sickle-cell allele in the United States, and what
should be happening to it in equatorial Africa?
A)
stabilizing selection; disruptive selection
B)
disruptive selection; stabilizing selection
C)
directional selection; disruptive selection
D)
directional selection; stabilizing selection
60)
Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which
can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it
is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined.
If the human flu virus contributes a gene for Tamiflu resistance (Tamiflu is an
antiviral drug) to the new virus, and if the new virus is introduced to an
environment lacking Tamiflu, then what is most likely to occur?
A)
The new virus will maintain its Tamiflu-resistance gene, in case of future
exposure to Tamiflu.
B)
The Tamiflu-resistance gene will undergo mutations that convert it into a gene
that has a useful function in this environment.
C)
If the Tamiflu-resistance gene involves a cost, it will experience directional
selection leading to reduction in its frequency.
D)
If the Tamiflu-resistance gene confers no benefit in the current environment,
and has no cost, the virus will increase in frequency.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 24 The
Origin of Species
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Two
populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides
of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these
birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce
young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring
will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all
offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees.
1)
What keeps the two populations separate?
A)
temporal reproductive isolation
B)
lack of hybrid viability
C)
behavioral reproductive isolation
D)
habitat isolation
2)
The two populations are _____.
A)
different subspecies, under the morphological species concept
B)
different species, under the biological species concept
C)
different species, under the phylogenetic species concept
3)
Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship
songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely
serve if the populations came in contact?
A)
a temporal reproductive isolating mechanism
B)
a postzygotic isolating mechanism
C)
a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism
D)
a gametic reproductive isolating mechanism
4)
Many songbirds breed in North America in the spring and summer and then migrate
to Central and South America in the fall. They spend the winter in these warmer
areas, where they feed and prepare for the spring migration north and another
breeding season. Two hypothetical species of sparrow, A and B, overwinter
together in mixed flocks in Costa Rica. In spring, species A goes to the east
coast of North America, and species B goes to the west coast. What can you say
about the isolating mechanisms of these two species?
A)
They must have strong postzygotic isolating mechanisms to spend winter in such
close proximity.
B)
They must have strong prezygotic isolating mechanisms to spend winter in such
close proximity.
C)
Their winter habitat has no bearing on their degree of reproductive isolation.
D)
Reinforcement must be occurring when they winter together.
5)
The peppered moth provides a well-known example of natural selection. The
light-colored form of the moth was predominant in England before the Industrial
Revolution. In the mid-nineteenth century, a dark-colored form appeared. The
difference is produced by a dominant allele of one gene. By about 1900,
approximately 90% of the moths around industrial areas were dark colored,
whereas light-colored moths were still abundant elsewhere. Apparently, birds
could readily find the light moths against the soot-darkened background in
industrial areas and, therefore, were eating more light moths. Recently, use of
cleaner fuels has greatly reduced soot in the landscape, and the dark-colored
moths have been disappearing. Should the two forms of moths be considered
separate species?
A)
Yes, because natural selection has affected the frequency of the two different
forms.
B)
Yes, because they have completely different coloration.
C)
Yes, because they are reproductively isolated based on habitat.
D)
No.
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
About
3 million years ago, the Isthmus of Panama (a narrow strip of land connecting
North and South America) formed, dividing marine organisms into Pacific and
Caribbean populations. Researchers have examined species of snapping shrimp on
both sides of the isthmus. Based on the morphological species concept, there
appeared to be seven pairs of species, with one species of each pair in the
Pacific and the other in the Caribbean. The different species pairs live at
somewhat different depths in the ocean. Using mitochondrial DNA sequences, the
researchers estimated phylogenies and found that each of these species pairs,
separated by the isthmus, were indeed each other's closest relatives. The
researchers investigated mating in the lab and found that many species pairs
were not very interested in courting with each other, and any that did mate
almost never produced fertile offspring. (N. Knowlton, L. A. Weigt, L. A.
Solorzano, D. K. Mills, and E. Bermingham. 1993. Divergence in proteins,
mitochondrial DNA, and reproductive incompatibility across the Isthmus of
Panama. Science 260:1629-32.)
6)
Refer to the paragraph about the formation of the Isthmus of Panama. The sister
populations on opposite sides of the isthmus are true species under which
species concept?
A)
the morphological species concept
B)
the biological species concept
C)
the phylogenetic species concept
D)
the morpholoogical species, biological species, and phylogenetic species
concepts
7)
The common edible frog of Europe is a hybrid between two species, Rana lessonae
and Rana ridibunda. The hybrids were first described in 1758 and have a
wide distribution, from France across central Europe to Russia. Both male and
female hybrids exist, but when they mate among themselves, they are rarely
successful in producing offspring. What can you infer from this information?
A)
Postzygotic isolation exists between the two frog species.
B)
Prezygotic isolation exists between the two frog species.
C)
These two species are likely in the process of fusing back into one species.
D)
The hybrids form a separate species under the biological species concept.
8)
The approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of
which species concept?
A)
morphological species concept
B)
biological species concept
C)
phylogenetic species concept
9)
Macroevolution is _____.
A)
the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species
B)
evolution above the species level
C)
defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms that can be
seen with the naked eye
D)
defined as a change in allele or gene frequency over the course of many
generations
10)
Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on the
degree of genetic exchange between their gene pools?
A)
phylogenetic
B)
ecological
C)
biological
D)
morphological
11)
There is still some controversy among biologists about whether Neanderthals
should be placed within the same species as modern humans or into a separate
species of their own. Most DNA sequence data analyzed so far indicate that
there was probably little or no gene flow between Neanderthals and Homo
sapiens. Which species concept is most applicable in this example?
A)
phylogenetic
B)
ecological
C)
morphological
D)
biological
12)
You are confronted with a box of preserved grasshoppers of various species that
are new to science and have not been described. Your assignment is to separate
them into species. There is no accompanying information as to where or when
they were collected. Which species concept will you have to use?
A)
biological
B)
phylogenetic
C)
ecological
D)
morphological
13)
Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds
apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of
the following reproductive isolating mechanisms?
A)
temporal isolation
B)
behavioral isolation
C)
habitat isolation
D)
gametic isolation
14)
Rank the following in order from most general to most specific:
1. gametic
isolation
2. reproductive
isolating mechanism
3. sperm-egg
incompatibility in sea urchins
4. prezygotic
isolating mechanism
A)
2, 3, 1, 4
B)
2, 4, 1, 3
C)
4, 1, 2, 3
D)
4, 2, 1, 3
15)
Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the
embryos stop developing after a day and then die. These two frog species
separate by _____.
A)
reduced hybrid viability
B)
hybrid breakdown
C)
reduced hybrid fertility
D)
gametic isolation
16)
The production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female horses (mares)
and male donkeys (jacks) is an example of _____.
A)
reduced hybrid viability
B)
hybrid breakdown
C)
reduced hybrid fertility
D)
mechanical isolation
17)
Dogs (Canis lupus familiaris) and gray wolves (Canis lupus) can
interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. These species shared a common
ancestor recently (in geologic time) and have a high degree of genetic
similarity, although their anatomies vary widely. Judging from this evidence,
which two species concepts are most likely to place dogs and wolves together
into a single species?
A)
ecological and morphological
B)
ecological and phylogenetic
C)
biological and morphological
D)
biological and phylogenetic
18)
Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J.
monosperma) have overlapping ranges. Pollen grains (which contain sperm
cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female
ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species. These two juniper
species are kept separate by _____.
A) habitat isolation
B) temporal isolation
C) gametic isolation
D) behavioral isolation
19)
What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for
determining species boundaries?
A)
geographic isolation
B)
niche differences
C)
gene flow
D)
morphological similarity
20)
The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is _____.
A)
a population
B)
a species
C)
the entire range of a genus
D)
the hybrid zone
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
About
3 million years ago, the Isthmus of Panama (a narrow strip of land connecting
North and South America) formed, dividing marine organisms into Pacific and
Caribbean populations. Researchers have examined species of snapping shrimp on
both sides of the isthmus. Based on the morphological species concept, there
appeared to be seven pairs of species, with one species of each pair in the
Pacific and the other in the Caribbean. The different species pairs live at
somewhat different depths in the ocean. Using mitochondrial DNA sequences, the researchers
estimated phylogenies and found that each of these species pairs, separated by
the isthmus, were indeed each other's closest relatives. The researchers
investigated mating in the lab and found that many species pairs were not very
interested in courting with each other, and any that did mate almost never
produced fertile offspring. (N. Knowlton, L. A. Weigt, L. A. Solorzano, D. K.
Mills, and E. Bermingham. 1993. Divergence in proteins, mitochondrial DNA, and
reproductive incompatibility across the Isthmus of Panama. Science
260:1629-32.)
21)
Refer to the paragraph about the formation of the Isthmus of Panama. If the
isthmus formed gradually rather than suddenly, what pattern of genetic
divergence would you expect to find in these species pairs?
A)
similar percentages of difference in DNA sequence between all pairs of sister
species
B)
greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit
deep water than between species that inhabit shallow water
C)
greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit
shallow water than between species that inhabit deep water
22)
Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in allopatric
speciation?
A)
genetic drift, genetic isolation, divergence
B)
genetic isolation, divergence, genetic drift
C)
divergence, genetic drift, genetic isolation
D)
genetic isolation, genetic drift, divergence
23)
You want to study divergence of populations, and you need to maximize the rate
of divergence to see results within the period of your grant funding. You will
form a new population by taking some individuals from a source population and
isolating them so the two populations cannot interbreed. What combination of
characteristics would maximize your chance of seeing divergence in this study?
1. Choose
a random sample of individuals to form the new population.
2. Choose
individuals from one extreme to form the new population.
3. Choose
a species to study that produces many offspring.
4. Choose
a species to study that produces a few, large offspring.
5. Place
the new population in the same type of environment as the source population.
6. Place
the new population in a novel environment compared to that of the source
population.
A)
1, 3, and 6
B)
1, 4, and 6
C)
2, 3, and 5
D)
2, 3, and 6
24)
How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?
A)
sympatrically, by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior
B)
sympatrically, due to extensive inbreeding
C)
allopatrically, due to extensive inbreeding
D)
allopatrically, after the ancestral species has split into two populations
25)
House finches were found only in western North America until 1939, when a few
individuals were released in New York City. These individuals established a
breeding population and gradually expanded their range. The western population
also expanded its range somewhat eastward, and the two populations have
recently come in contact. If the two forms were unable to interbreed when their
expanding ranges met, it would be an example of _____.
A)
prezygotic isolation
B)
reinforcement
C)
allopatric speciation
D)
sympatric speciation
26)
Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many
generations to see changes, with the exception of _____.
A)
polyploidy
B)
reinforcement
C)
colonization
D)
natural selection
27)
Two researchers experimentally formed tetraploid frogs by fertilizing diploid
eggs from Rana porosa brevipoda with diploid sperm from Rana
nigromaculata. When they mated these tetraploid frogs with each other, most
of the offspring that survived to maturity were tetraploid, with chromosome
sets of both diploid parent species. Based on these results, if this type of
tetraploid formed in the wild, what would be the result? (Y. Kondo and A.
Kashiwagi. 2004. Experimentally induced autotetraploidy and allotetraploidy in
two Japanese pond frogs. Journal of Herpetology 38(3):381-92.)
A)
The two parent species would interbreed and fuse into one species.
B)
The two parent species would recognize each other as mates.
C)
The tetraploids would be reproductively isolated from both parent species.
D)
The tetraploids would be selected against.
28)
A researcher notices that in a certain moth species, some females prefer to
feed and lay eggs on domesticated solanaceous plants like potatoes and
tomatoes. Other females prefer to feed and lay eggs on wild solanaceous plants
like Datura. Both male and female moths primarily use scent to find
these plants from afar. Females tend to mate where they feed, and the
researcher finds a genetic basis for scent preference in these moths. Based on
the above information, what might be occurring in this moth species?
A)
divergence in sympatry
B)
divergence due to habitat fragmentation
C)
postzygotic isolation
D)
polyploidization
29)
Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United
States differ in ploidy: Hyla chrysoscelis is diploid, and Hyla
versicolor is tetraploid. The frogs are identical in appearance, but their
mating calls, which females use to find mates, differ. Which difference most
likely evolved first?
A)
polyploidy
B)
difference in mating calls
C)
Polyploidy and different mating calls must have evolved at the same time.
30)
In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on pronghorn
antelopes. In the western United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate
with one another in the same open rangeland. Some of these fleas develop a
strong preference for cattle blood and mate only with other fleas that prefer
cattle blood. The host mammal can be considered as the fleas' habitat. If this
situation persists, and new species evolve, this would be an example of _____.
A)
sympatric speciation and habitat isolation
B)
sympatric speciation and temporal isolation
C)
allopatric speciation and habitat isolation
D)
allopatric speciation and gametic isolation
31)
The difference between geographic isolation and habitat differentiation
(isolation) is the _____.
A)
relative locations of two populations as speciation occurs
B)
speed (tempo) at which two populations undergo speciation
C)
amount of genetic variation that occurs among two gene pools as speciation
occurs
D)
identity of the phylogenetic kingdom or domain in which these phenomena occur
32)
Among known plant species, which of these have been the two most commonly
occurring phenomena that have led to the origin of new species?
A)
allopatric speciation and sexual selection
B)
allopatric speciation and polyploidy
C)
sympatric speciation and sexual selection
D) sympatric speciation and polyploidy
33)
Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright
orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while
inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes
more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle
prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle
variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer
possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has
driven it?
A)
allopatric speciation; ecological isolation
B)
sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation
C)
allopatric speciation; behavioral isolation
D)
sympatric speciation; allopolyploidy
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
On
the volcanic, equatorial West African island of Sao Tomé, two species of fruit
fly exist. Drosophila yakuba inhabits the island's lowlands, and is also
found on the African mainland, located about two hundred miles away. At higher
elevations, and only on Sao Tomé, is found the very closely related Drosophila
santomea. The two species can hybridize, though male hybrids are sterile. A
hybrid zone exists at middle elevations, though hybrids there are greatly
outnumbered by D. santomea. Studies of the two species' nuclear genomes
reveal that D. yakuba on the island is more closely related to mainland D.
yakuba than to D. santomea (2n = 4 in both species). Sao Tomé
rose from the Atlantic Ocean about fourteen million years ago.
34)
Using only the information provided in the paragraph, which of the following is
the best initial hypothesis for how D. santomea descended from D.
yakuba?
A)
allopolyploidy
B)
autopolyploidy
C)
habitat differentiation
D)
sexual selection
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
On
the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various,
now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some predator-rich
ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts; other
predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a long
time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of female
mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences.
35)
Which two of the following have operated to increase divergence between
mosquitofish populations on Andros?
1. improved
gene flow
2. bottleneck
effect
3. sexual
selection
4. founder
effect
5. natural
selection
A)
1 and 3
B)
2 and 3
C)
2 and 4
D)
3 and 5
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
In
the ocean, on either side of the Isthmus of Panama, are thirty species of
snapping shrimp; some are shallow-water species, others are adapted to deep
water. There are fifteen species on the Pacific side and fifteen different
species on the Atlantic side. The Isthmus of Panama started rising about ten
million years ago. The oceans were completely separated by the isthmus about
three million years ago.
In
the following figure, the isthmus separates the Pacific Ocean on the left (side
A) from the Atlantic Ocean on the right (side B). The seawater on either side
of the isthmus is separated into five depth habitats (1-5), with 1 being the
shallowest.
36)
Why should deepwater shrimp on different sides of the isthmus have diverged
from each other earlier than shallow-water shrimp?
A)
They have been geographically isolated from each other for a longer time.
B)
Cold temperatures, associated with deep water, have accelerated the mutation
rate, resulting in faster divergence in deepwater shrimp.
C)
The rise of the land bridge was accompanied by much volcanic activity. Volcanic
ash contains heavy metals, which are known mutagens. Ash fall caused high
levels of heavy metals in the ocean sediments underlying the deep water,
resulting in accelerated mutation rates and faster divergence in deepwater
shrimp.
D)
Fresh water entering the ocean from the canal is both less dense and cloudier
than seawater. The cloudy fresh water interferes with the ability of
shallow-water shrimp to locate mating partners, which reduces the frequency of
mating, thereby slowing the introduction of genetic variation.
37)
In which habitat should one find snapping shrimp most closely related to shrimp
that live in habitat A4?
A)
A3
B)
A5
C)
B4
D)
either A3 or A5
38)
Which of these habitats is likely to harbor the most recently diverged species?
A)
A5
B)
B4
C)
A3
D)
A1
39)
Which habitats should harbor snapping shrimp species with the greatest degree
of genetic divergence from each other?
A)
A1 and A5
B)
A1 and B5
C)
A5 and B5
D)
Both A1/A5 and B1/B5 should have the greatest, but equal amounts of, genetic
divergence.
40)
Which factor is most important for explaining why there are equal numbers of
snapping shrimp species on either side of the isthmus?
A)
the relative shortness of time they have been separated
B)
the depth of the ocean
C)
the number of actual depth habitats between the surface and the sea floor
D)
the elevation of the isthmus above sea level
41)
The Panama Canal was completed in 1914, and its depth is about fifty feet.
After 1914, snapping shrimp species from which habitats should be most likely
to form hybrids as the result of the canal?
A)
A5 and B5
B)
A3 and B3
C)
A1 and B1
D)
A1-A3 and B1-B3 have equal likelihoods of harboring snapping shrimp species
that can hybridize.
42)
Plant species A has a diploid number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid
number of 16. A new species, C, arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The
diploid number for species C would probably be _____.
A)
14
B)
16
C)
28
D)
56
43)
A small number of birds arrive on an island from a neighboring larger island.
This small population begins to adapt to the new food plants available on the
island, and their beaks begin to change. About twice a year, one or two more
birds from the neighboring island arrive. These new arrivals _____.
A)
speed up the process of speciation
B)
tend to promote adaptation to the new food plants
C)
tend to retard adaptation to the new food plants
D)
represent a colonizing event
44)
Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate.
Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South
America. If reinforcement is occurring, what would you expect if you compare
the calls of the two species in zones of sympatry versus zones of allopatry?
A)
Calls would be about the same in both areas.
B)
Calls would be more similar in areas of sympatry.
C)
Calls would be more different in areas of sympatry.
45)
Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate.
Researchers examined mating calls of closely related but separate species of
tree frogs in South America. What outcomes could possibly occur where the
ranges of two species overlap?
I) The
species will interbreed, eventually fusing over time.
II) A
stable hybrid zone will form if hybrids are better adapted to the area of
overlap than either parent species is.
III) Species
will continue to diverge and be isolated by behavioral or genetic mechanisms.
A)
I
B)
II
C)
III
D)
I, II, and III
46)
Reinforcement is most likely to occur when _____.
A)
the environment is changing
B)
hybrids have lower fitness than either parent population
C)
prezygotic isolating mechanisms are in place
D)
gene flow is low
47)
The phenomenon of fusion is likely to occur when, after a period of geographic
isolation, two populations meet again and _____.
A)
an increasing number of infertile hybrids is produced over the course of the
next one hundred generations
B)
no reproduction occurs in the hybrid zone
C)
an increasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of
the next one hundred generations
D)
a decreasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of the
next one hundred generations
48)
A hybrid zone is properly defined as _____.
A)
an area where the ranges of two closely related species overlap, but do not
interbreed
B)
an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing
viable offspring
C)
a zone where sterile hybrids form, kept separate by postzygotic barriers
D)
an area where members of two closely related species intermingle, but gene flow
is prevented by prezygotic barriers
49)
In hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring, we should see a decline in
_____.
A)
gene flow between distinct gene pools
B)
speciation
C)
the genetic distinctness of two gene pools
D)
mutation rates
50)
Other than predation by introduced Nile perch, the most likely explanation for
the recent decline in cichlid species diversity in Lake Victoria is _____.
A)
reinforcement
B)
fusion
C)
stability
D)
polyploidy
51)
A narrow hybrid zone separates the toad species Bombina bombina and Bombina
variegata. What is true of those alleles that are unique to the parental
species?
A)
Such alleles should be absent.
B)
Their allele frequency should be nearly the same as the allele frequencies in
toad populations distant from the hybrid zone.
C)
The alleles' heterozygosity should be higher among the hybrid toads than in
toad populations distant from the hybrid zone.
D)
Their allele frequency on one edge of the hybrid zone should roughly equal
their frequency on the opposite edge of the hybrid zone.
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
On
the volcanic, equatorial West African island of Sao Tomé, two species of fruit
fly exist. Drosophila yakuba inhabits the island's lowlands, and is also
found on the African mainland, located about two hundred miles away. At higher
elevations, and only on Sao Tomé, is found the very closely related Drosophila
santomea. The two species can hybridize, though male hybrids are sterile. A
hybrid zone exists at middle elevations, though hybrids there are greatly
outnumbered by D. santomea. Studies of the two species' nuclear genomes
reveal that D. yakuba on the island is more closely related to mainland D.
yakuba than to D. santomea (2n = 4 in both species). Sao Tomé
rose from the Atlantic Ocean about fourteen million years ago.
52)
The observation that island D. yakuba are more closely related to
mainland D. yakuba than island D. yakuba are to D. santomea
is best explained by proposing that D. santomea _____.
A)
descended from a now-extinct, non-African fruit fly
B)
arrived on the island before D. yakuba
C)
descended from a single colony of D. yakuba, which had been introduced
from elsewhere, with no subsequent colonization events
D)
descended from an original colony of D. yakuba, of which there are no
surviving members. The current island D. yakuba represent a second
colonization event from elsewhere.
Use
the following description to answer the question(s) below.
On
the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various,
now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some
predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts;
other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a
long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of
female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences.
53)
What is the best way to promote fusion between two related populations of
mosquitofish, one of which lives in a predator-rich pond and the other of which
lives in a predator-poor pond?
A)
Build a canal linking the two ponds that permits free movement of mosquitofish,
but not of predators.
B)
Transfer only female mosquitofish from a predator-rich pond to a predator-poor
pond.
C)
Perform a reciprocal transfer of females between predator-rich and predator-poor
ponds.
D)
Remove predators from a predator-rich pond and transfer them to a predator-poor
pond.
54)
Suppose that a group of male pied flycatchers migrated from a region where
there were no collared flycatchers to a region where both species were present.
Assuming events like this are very rare, which of the following scenarios is
LEAST likely?
A)
Migrant pied males would produce fewer offspring than would resident pied
males.
B)
Pied females would rarely mate with collared males.
C)
Migrant males would mate with collared females more often than with pied
females.
D)
The frequency of hybrid offspring would decrease.
The
following questions refer to this hypothetical situation.
A
female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far
out to sea. She is the first fly to arrive on this island and the only fly to
arrive in this way. Thousands of years later, her numerous offspring occupy the
island, but none of them resembles her. There are, instead, several species,
each of which eats only a certain type of food. None of the species can fly and
their balancing organs (halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male
members of each species bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to
their species. Females bear vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the
daughter species overlap.
55)
Fly species W, found in a certain part of the island, produces fertile
offspring with species Y. Species W does not produce fertile offspring with
species X or Z. If no other species can hybridize, then which of the following
statements about species W and Y are true?
I) Species
W and Y have genomes that are still similar enough for successful meiosis to
occur in hybrid flies.
II) Species
W and Y have more genetic similarity with each other than either did with the
other two species.
III) Species
W and Y may fuse into a single species if their hybrids remain fertile over the
course of many generations.
A)
Only I is correct.
B)
Only II is correct.
C)
Only III is correct.
D)
I, II, and III are correct.
56)
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden"
appearance of a new species in the fossil record means that _____.
A)
the species is now extinct
B)
speciation occurred in one generation
C)
speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time
D)
the species will consequently have a relatively short existence, compared with
other species
57)
According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, _____.
A)
natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution
B)
given enough time, most existing species will gradually give rise to new
species
C)
a new species accumulates most of its unique features as it comes into
existence
D)
evolution of new species features long periods during which changes are
occurring, interspersed with short periods of equilibrium, or stasis
58)
Speciation _____.
A)
occurs at such a slow pace that no one has ever observed the emergence of new
species
B)
occurs only by the accumulation of small genetic changes over vast expanses of
time
C)
must begin with the geographic isolation of a small, frontier population
D)
can involve changes to a single gene
59)
According to the biological species concept, for speciation to occur, _____.
A)
the number of chromosomes in the gene pool must change
B)
changes to centromere location or chromosome size must occur within the gene
pool
C)
large numbers of genes that affect numerous phenotypic traits must change
D)
at least one gene, affecting at least one phenotypic trait, must change
The
questions below refer to the following evolutionary tree, in which the
horizontal axis represents time (present time is on the far right) and the
vertical axis represents morphological change.
60)
Which conclusion can be drawn from this evolutionary tree?
A)
A single clade (that is, a group of species that share a common ancestor) can
include species that formed by gradualism and other species that formed by
punctuated equilibrium.
B)
A single clade (that is, a group of species that share a common ancestor) will
either include species that formed by gradualism or species that formed by
punctuated equilibrium.
C)
Assuming that the tip of each line represents a species, there are five extant
(that is, not extinct) species resulting from the earliest common ancestor.
D)
Species X and Z best represent species that evolved by punctuated equilibrium.
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