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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 39 Plant
Responses to Internal and External Signals
1)
The detector of light during de-etiolation (greening) of a tomato plant is
(are) _____.
A)
carotenoids
B)
xanthophylls
C)
phytochrome
D)
auxin
2)
Plant hormones _____.
A)
in plant cells naturally exist in very large amounts
B)
change their shape in response to stimulus
C)
are unable to move from one cell to another
D)
affect only cells with the appropriate receptor
3)
Which of the following can function in signal transduction in plants ?
I) calcium
ions
II) nonrandom
mutations
III) receptor
proteins
IV) autochrome
V) secondary
messengers
A)
only I, III, and IV
B)
only I, II, and V
C)
only I, III, and V
D)
only II, III, and V
4)
Plant hormones produce their effects by _____.
I) altering
the expression of genes
II) modifying
the permeability of the plasma membrane
III) modifying
the structure of the nuclear envelope membrane
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
only I and II
5)
Plant hormonal regulation differs from animal hormonal regulation in that
_____.
A)
there are no dedicated hormone-producing organs in plants as there are in
animals
B)
all production of hormones is local in plants with little long-distance
transport
C)
only animal hormone concentrations are developmentally regulated
D)
only animal hormones may have either external or internal receptors
6)
Which of the following plant growth responses is primarily due to the action of
auxins?
A)
leaf abscission
B)
cell division
C)
the detection of photoperiod
D)
phototropism
7)
Auxins in plants are known to affect which of the following processes?
I) gravitropism
of shoots
II) maintenance
of seed dormancy
III) phototropism
of shoots
IV) inhibition
of lateral buds
V) apical
dominance
A)
only I and II
B)
only I, III and V
C)
only I, III, IV and V
D)
only II, III, IV and V
8)
Experiments on the positive phototropic response of plants indicate that
_____.
A)
light destroys auxin
B)
auxin moves down the plant apoplastically
C)
auxin is synthesized in the area where the stem bends
D)
auxin can move to the shady side of the stem
9)
Which of the following statements best summarizes the acid-growth hypothesis in
an actively growing shoot?
A)
Auxin stimulates proton pumps in the plasma membrane and tonoplast.
B)
Auxin-activated proton pumps lower the pH of the cell wall, which breaks bonds
and makes the walls more flexible.
C)
Auxins and gibberellins together act as a lubricant to help stretch cellulose
microfibrils.
D)
Auxins activate aquaporins that increase turgor pressure in the cells.
10)
Which of the following conclusions is supported by the research of both Went
and Charles and Francis Darwin on shoot responses to light?
A)
When shoots are exposed to light, a chemical substance migrates toward the
light.
B)
A chemical substance involved in shoot bending is produced in shoot tips.
C)
Once shoot tips have been cut, normal growth cannot be induced.
D)
Light stimulates the synthesis of a plant hormone that responds to light.
11)
An eccentric millionaire botanist has offered a $25,000 scholarship to anyone
who can successfully get a plant to grow through a vertical maze in complete
darkness. The maze is not in a box; the maze is simply drawn on the wall, and
the contestants must get their plant to grow in a pattern that matches the path
through the maze. You need the money and feel confident that you can accomplish
this task. Which of the following techniques will help you succeed?
A)
Apply auxin directly to the shoot tip on the side to which you want the tip to
bend.
B)
Apply auxin directly to the part of the stem just below the tip opposite from
the direction you want the stem to bend.
C)
Inject compounds that block auxin receptors into the part of the stem opposite
from the direction you want the stem to bend.
D)
Plant the roots in two different pots, and apply auxin to the root bucket that
is on the same side as the direction you want the plant to bend.
12)
You have a small tree in your yard that is the height that you want it, but
does not have as many branches as you want. How can you prune it to trigger it
to increase the number of branches?
A)
Cut off the leaves at the ends of several branches.
B)
Cut off the tips of the main shoots.
C)
Cut off lower branches.
D)
Cut off the leaves at the base of most of the branches.
13)
As cytokinins are primarily produced in roots, what route would they travel to
influence lateral shoot formation in a recently topped tree?
A)
symplastic
B)
trachieds/vessels
C)
phloem
D)
apoplastic
14)
Who might be interested in using cytokinins?
A)
grocers, to spray on fruit to enhance ripening in the store
B)
consumers, to spray on fruit before eating to enhance taste
C)
florists, to dip stems in to keep leaves green longer
D)
farmers, to spray on fruit after picking to stall ripening
15)
If a farmer wanted more loosely packed clusters of grapes, he would most likely
spray the immature bunches with _____.
A)
auxin
B)
gibberellins
C)
cytokinins
D)
abscisic acid
16)
A researcher found a beautiful plant while traveling in Alaska and collected
its seeds. When she came back to Florida, she soaked some seeds in pure water
and some in water with a hormone. When she put the seeds in soil to grow, only
the seeds that had been soaked with the hormone germinated. The hormone most
likely was _____.
A)
gibberellin
B)
abscisic acid (ABA)
C)
auxin
D)
ethylene
17)
_____ prevents seeds from germinating until conditions are favorable for the
growth of the plant.
A)
Ethylene
B)
Zeaxanthin
C)
Gibberellin
D)
Abscisic acid
18)
A population of plants experiences several years of severe drought. Much of the
population dies due to lack of water, but a few individuals survive. You set
out to discover the physiological basis for their adaptation to such an extreme
environmental change. You hypothesize that the survivors have the ability to
synthesize higher levels of _____ than their siblings do.
A)
auxin
B)
gibberellin
C)
cytokinin
D)
abscisic acid
19)
If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of miles away,
which of the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants'
environment?
A)
carbon dioxide
B)
cytokinins
C)
ethylene
D)
auxin
20)
In the fall, the leaves of some trees change color. This happens because
chlorophyll breaks down and the accessory pigments become visible. What hormone
is responsible for this?
A)
phototropin
B)
abscisic acid
C)
cytokinin
D)
ethylene
21)
Which type of mutant would be most likely to produce a bushier phenotype?
A)
auxin overproducer
B)
strigolactone overproducer
C)
cytokinin underproducer
D)
strigolactone underproducer
22)
Plant growth regulators _____.
A)
only act by altering gene expression
B)
often have a multiplicity of effects
C)
function independently of other hormones
D)
affect the division and elongation, but not the differentiation, of cells
23)
Vines in tropical rain forests must grow toward large trees before being able
to grow toward the sun. To reach a large tree, the most useful kind of growth
movement for a tropical vine presumably would be _____.
A)
negative thigmotropism
B)
negative phototropism
C)
negative gravitropism
D)
the opposite of circadian rhythms
24)
In lettuce seeds, blue light initiates germination. If you measured hormone
levels within the seed, which hormone would be produced upon exposure to blue
light?
A)
gibberellin
B)
ethylene
C)
abscisic acid
D)
cytokinins
25)
Upon exposure to blue light, plants not only begin to grow toward the light,
but move their chloroplasts to the sunny side of each cell. The adaptive
advantage of moving chloroplasts to the sunny side of each cell _____.
A)
maximizes light absorption by the chloroplasts for photosynthesis
B)
increases production of phototropic hormones
C)
maximizes heat absorption by the chloroplasts for cellular respiration
D)
increases adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production during the light-independent
reactions
26)
Mammalian eyes sense light because the photoreceptor cells have molecules
called opsins, which change structure when exposed to light. Which of the
following plant molecules would be analogous to mammalian opsins in their
light-sensing ability?
A)
auxin and phytochrome
B)
auxin and Pfr
C)
Pfr and
phytochrome
D)
cytokinins and phototropins
27)
Seed packets give a recommended planting depth for the enclosed seeds. The most
likely reason some seeds are to be covered with only 
-inch of soil is that the _____.
-inch of soil is that the _____.
A)
seedlings do not have an etiolation response
B)
seeds require light to germinate
C)
seeds require a higher temperature to germinate
D)
seeds are very sensitive to waterlogging
28)
Suppose a plant had a photosynthetic pigment that absorbed far-red wavelengths
of light. In which of the following environments could that plant thrive?
A)
on the surface of a lake
B)
on the forest floor, beneath a canopy of taller plants
C)
on the ocean floor, in very deep waters
D)
on mountaintops, closer to the Sun
29)
The biological clock controlling circadian rhythms must ultimately _____.
A)
depend on environmental cues
B)
affect gene transcription
C)
stabilize on a 24-hour cycle
D)
speed up or slow down with increasing or decreasing temperature
30)
Many plants flower in response to day-length cues. Which of the following
statements best summarizes this phenomenon?
A)
As a rule, short-day plants flower in the summer.
B)
As a rule, long-day plants flower in the spring or fall.
C)
Long-day plants flower in response to long days, not short nights.
D)
Flowering in short-day and long-day plants is controlled by phytochrome.
31)
Plants often use changes in day length (photoperiod) to trigger events such as
dormancy and flowering. It is logical that plants have evolved this mechanism
because photoperiod changes _____.
A)
are more predictable than air temperature changes
B)
predict moisture availability
C)
are modified by soil temperature changes
D)
can reset the biological clock
32)
A gardener in Canada wants to surprise his mother on her birthday and make her
favorite hibiscus bush flower in May instead of at the end of June. The bush is
growing in the greenhouse. Which of the following might make the hibiscus bush
flower early?
A)
grafting leaves of a hibiscus that was exposed to long night
B)
grafting leaves of a hibiscus that was exposed to short night
C)
exposing flower buds of the hibiscus bush to long nights
D)
exposing flower buds of the hibiscus bush to short nights
33)
Which of the following can be sensed by plants?
I) gravity
II) pathogens
III) wind
IV) light
A)
only I and III
B)
only I, II, and IV
C)
only II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III, and IV
34)
You have discovered a previously unidentified plant, and you cultivate it in
your lab. You notice that its flowers close when people are talking, yet are
open when the lab is relatively quiet. You suspect that this plant may have the
ability to hear! Which of the following hypotheses is (are) the most reasonable
to explain this phenomenon?
I) There
is a cell-surface protein on the epidermal cells that becomes phosphorylated in
response to vibration by sound waves.
II) There
are tiny hairs on epidermal cells that bend in response to the vibration of
sound waves, triggering an action potential in epidermal cells.
III) There
is a cell-surface receptor on root cells that becomes phosphorylated when the
soil vibrates in response to sound waves.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D)
I, II, and III
35)
Shoots that grow vertically toward the sun can be characterized as _____.
A)
positive for phototropism and negative for gravitropism
B)
neutral for phototropism and positive for gravitropism
C)
negative for phototropism and positive for gravitropism
D)
positive for phototropism and neutral for gravitropism
36)
Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the
ground as shown in the figure above. Several hours after the change in
position, where in the root cells (position A, B, or C in the figure above)
would you find the amyloplasts?
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
37)
The rapid leaf movements resulting from a response to touch (thigmotropism)
primarily involve _____.
A)
potassium channels
B)
nervous tissue
C)
aquaporins
D)
stress proteins
38)
In extremely cold regions, woody species may survive freezing temperatures by
_____.
A)
emptying water from the vacuoles to prevent freezing
B)
decreasing the numbers of phospholipids in cell membranes
C)
decreasing the fluidity of all cellular membranes
D)
increasing cytoplasmic levels of specific solute concentrations, such as sugars
39)
Most scientists agree that global warming is underway; thus, it is important to
know how plants respond to heat stress. Which of the following would be a
useful line of inquiry to try and improve plant response and survival to heat
stress?
A)
the production of heat-stable carbohydrates
B)
increased production of heat-shock proteins
C)
the opening of stomata to increase evaporational heat loss
D)
protoplast fusion experiments with xerophytic plants
40)
When an arborist prunes a limb off a valuable tree, he or she may paint the cut
surface. The primary purpose of the paint is to _____.
A)
minimize water loss by evaporation from the cut surface
B)
improve the appearance of the cut surface
C)
stimulate growth of the cork cambium to "heal" the wound
D)
block entry of pathogens through the wound
41)
You are out working in your garden, and you notice that one of your favorite
flowering plants has black, dead spots on the leaves. You immediately suspect
that the plant has been invaded by a pathogen and has initiated a(n) _____.
A)
avirulence response
B)
hypersensitive response
C)
resistance response
D)
virulence response
42)
Generalized defense responses in organs distant from the infection site are
called _____.
A)
hyperactive responses
B)
systemic acquired resistance
C)
pleiotropy
D)
hyperplasia
43)
A certain bacterium infects a plant's upper leaves. A few days later, bacteria
of the same species attempt to infect the same plant's roots but are
unsuccessful. What process is responsible for the plant's ability to prevent
this infection?
A)
antivirulence response
B)
pathogenesis resistance
C)
systemic acquired resistance
D)
sequential immunity
44)
A particular species of virus carries a gene for salicylate hydroxylase, an
enzyme that breaks down salicylic acid. Will this virus be more or less
virulent to plants than other viruses?
A)
more
B)
less
C)
This will not make the virus more or less virulent.
45)
Which event during the evolution of land plants favored the synthesis of
secondary compounds?
A)
the greenhouse effect throughout the Devonian period
B)
the reverse-greenhouse effect during the Carboniferous period
C)
the association of the roots of land plants and fungi
D)
the rise of herbivory
46)
The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to _____.
A)
attract pollinators for seed dispersal
B)
attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits
C)
defend the plant against herbivores
D)
defend the plant against microbes
47)
For a plant to initiate chemical responses to herbivory, before it is directly
affected by herbivores, _____.
A)
a plant must have already flowered at least once
B)
volatile "signal" compounds must be perceived
C)
gene-for-gene intraspecific recognition must occur
D)
phytoalexins must be released
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
Some
plants have continually produced secondary defense compounds. Other plants are
induced to form secondary defense compounds when they are injured. Corn
seedling leaves that are chewed on by the caterpillars of a type of cutworm
moth emit immediate volatile chemicals (LOX products), and after six hours
large amounts of terpenoid compounds are released into the air. The terpenoids
are released not only from the leaf being chewed, but from all leaves of the
plant. The terpenoid compounds attract a parasitoid wasp female that lays her
eggs on the caterpillar. When the wasp larvae hatch, they eat and kill the moth
caterpillar. (T.C.J. Turlings, J. H. Loughrin, P. J. McCall, U. S. R. Rose, W.
J. Lewis, and J. H. Tumlinson. 1995. How caterpillar-damaged plants protect
themselves by attracting parasitic wasps. Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences 92:4169-74.)
48)
Refer to the paragraph on how caterpillar-damaged plants protect themselves by
attracting parasitic wasps. What can you conclude based only on the information
in the preceding paragraph?
A)
The attracting terpenoid compounds are always present in the corn seedling.
B)
Physical injury by the caterpillar mouthparts results in the immediate release
of terpenoids.
C)
Chemical signals from the caterpillar saliva attract the parasitic wasp.
D)
The parasitoid wasp is attracted by compounds produced by an injured corn
plant.
49)
Refer to the paragraph on how caterpillar-damaged plants protect themselves by
attracting parasitic wasps. To test the hypothesis that caterpillar saliva and
a wound are both necessary to attract the parasitoid wasps you would need to
include which of the following in your experiment?
I) Slash
the corn leaves with a razor blade.
II) Put
caterpillar saliva on a leaf wound.
III) Put
caterpillar saliva on an intact leaf.
A)
only I
B)
only II
C)
only III
D) I, II, and III
50)
You may have observed plants rotate towards a light source, thereby increasing
the plant’s ability to intercept light energy and increase photosynthesis. You,
however, are given the task of preventing grass seedlings from rotating toward
the light. Using your knowledge of phototropism, which of the following
experimental procedures would you use to complete your task?
A)
Cover the growing tip of the grass seedling with black paper.
B)
Supply the seedlings with very dim light. (red light does not induce a bend)
C)
Cover the portion of the seedling below the tip with a black shield.
D)
Supply the seedling with nutrient-rich fertilizer solution.
51)
A plant scientist was hired by a greenhouse operator to devise a way to force
iris plants to bloom in the short days of winter. Iris normally blooms as
long-day (short-night) plants. Which of the following has the best chance of
creating iris blooms in winter?
A)
Artificially increase the period of darkness in the greenhouse.
B)
Increase the temperature to more closely follow summer temperatures.
C)
Alternate four hours of darkness with four hours of light repeatedly over each
24-hour period.
D)
Interrupt the long winter nights with a brief period of light.
52)
An individual plant was discovered that could not grow towards light. After
some research, it was determined that the reason was a defective gene that did
not allow for the level of cell elongation necessary for a phototropic response.
This mutation greatly reduces the fitness of the individual plant. Which reason
best describes the reason for the loss of fitness?
A) The plant was too short to attract insects
for pollination.
B)
The plant could not adjust to directional light, which reduced photosynthetic
activity and therefore energy available for reproduction.
C)
Because the plant grew much taller and straighter, resources that could be used
for reproduction were used for growth.
D)
The loss of a phototropic response meant that the plant’s seeds could not
germinate so reproduction would be unsuccessful.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 40 Basic
Principles of Animal Form and Function
1)
Penguins, seals, and tuna have body forms that permit rapid swimming, because
_____.
A)
all share a recent common ancestor
B)
all of their bodies have been compressed since birth by intensive underwater
pressures
C)
the shape is a convergent evolutionary solution, which reduces drag while
swimming
D)
this is the only shape that will allow them to maintain a constant body
temperature in water
2)
As the size of some animals has evolved to greater sizes, the effectiveness of
their adaptations that promote exchanges with the environment have also
increased. For example, in many larger organisms, evolution has favored lungs
and a digestive tract with _____.
A)
more branching or folds
B)
increased thickness
C)
larger cells
D)
decreased blood supply
3)
Much of the coordination of vertebrate body functions via chemical signals is
accomplished by the _____.
A)
respiratory system
B)
endocrine system
C)
integumentary system
D)
excretory system
4)
Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has _____.
A)
less surface area
B)
less surface area per unit of volume
C)
a smaller average distance between its mitochondria and the external source of
oxygen
D)
a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio
5)
If you were to view a sample of animal tissue under a light microscope and
notice an extensive extracellular matrix surrounding a tissue, which tissue
type would you most suspect?
A)
connective
B)
epithelial
C)
nervous
D)
striated muscle
6)
Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger
as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size?
A)
The young of these animals are much more active than the adult, which leads to
a higher BMR (basal metabolic rate) and, therefore, a higher need for oxygen.
B)
Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they
can transport all the oxygen they need.
C)
The young have a higher basal metabolic rate.
D)
Relative to their surface area, the young have more body volume in which they
can store oxygen for long periods of time.
7)
Evolutionary adaptations that help diverse animals directly exchange matter
between cells and the environment include _____.
A)
a gastrovascular activity, a two-layered body, and a torpedo-like body shape
B)
an external respiratory surface, a small body size, and a two-cell-layered body
C)
a large body volume, a long, tubular body, and a set of wings
D)
an unbranched internal surface, a small body size, and thick covering
8)
All animals, whether large or small, have _____.
A)
an external body surface that is dry
B)
a basic body plan that resembles a two-layered sac
C)
a body surface covered with hair to keep them warm
D)
most of their cells in contact with an aqueous medium
9)
Interstitial fluid is _____.
A)
the internal environment inside animal cells
B)
identical to the composition of blood
C)
a common site of exchange between blood and body cells
D)
found only in the lumen of the small intestine
10)
Of the following choices, the epithelium with the shortest diffusion distance
is _____.
A)
simple squamous epithelium
B)
simple columnar epithelium
C)
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D)
stratified squamous epithelium
11)
Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with _____.
A)
connective tissue
B)
smooth muscle cells
C)
neural tissue
D)
epithelial tissue
12)
Connective tissues typically have _____.
A)
little space between the membranes of adjacent cells
B)
the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses
C)
the ability to shorten upon stimulation
D)
relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix
13)
If you gently bend your ear, and then let go, the shape of your ear will return
because the cartilage of your ear contains_____.
A)
collagenous fibers
B)
elastic fibers
C)
reticular fibers
D)
adipose tissue
14)
Blood is best classified as connective tissue because _____.
A)
its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix
B)
it contains more than one type of cell
C)
its cells can move from place to place
D)
it is found within all the organs of the body
15)
Most types of communication between cells utilize _____.
A)
the exchange of cytosol between the cells
B)
the movement of the cells
C)
chemical or electrical signals
D)
the exchange of DNA between the cells
16)
All types of muscle tissue have _____.
A)
striated banding patterns seen under the microscope
B)
cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated
C)
a response that can be consciously controlled
D)
interactions between actin and myosin
17)
Cardiac muscle cells are both _____.
A)
striated and interconnected by intercalated disks
B)
smooth and under voluntary control
C)
striated and under voluntary control
D)
smooth and under involuntary control
18)
The type of muscle tissue surrounding the intestines and blood vessels is
_____.
A)
skeletal muscle
B)
cardiac muscle
C)
intercalated cells
D)
smooth muscle
19)
Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by _____.
A)
cardiac muscle
B)
smooth muscle
C)
striated muscle
D)
skeletal muscle
20)
The cells lining the air sacs in the lungs make up a _____.
A)
simple squamous epithelium
B)
stratified squamous epithelium
C)
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D)
simple columnar epithelium
21)
The body tissue that consists largely of material located outside of cells is
_____.
A)
epithelial tissue
B)
connective tissue
C)
skeletal muscle
D)
nervous tissue
22)
You are looking through a microscope at a slide of animal tissue and see a
single layer of flat, closely packed cells that cover a surface. This specific
tissue is most likely _____.
A)
adipose
B)
a tendon
C)
epithelial
D)
a neuron
23)
Environmental influences appear to contribute to cellular mutations that lead
to tumor growth. For example, certain diets lead to higher incidence of colon
cancers, and overexposure to sunlight leads to higher incidence of skin
cancers. The tissues in closest contact with a carcinogen or mutagen (anything
that causes genetic mutations) are obviously the ones most likely to develop
tumors. Carcinomas and melanomas account for well over half of all cancers.
What type of tissue would you guess the term carcinoma and melanoma is
most closely associated with?
A)
connective
B)
muscle
C)
epithelial
D)
nervous
24)
Which of the following is a true statement about body size and physiology?
A)
The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and
waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass.
B)
The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is
independent of its volume.
C)
Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an
animal's body mass increases cubically while its surface area increases as a
squared function.
D)
The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles and triple as its
surface area triples.
25)
An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the
same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade
and rest, which animal will cool down faster?
A)
The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
B)
The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio.
C)
The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
D)
They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.
26)
You have a cube of modeling clay in your hands. Which of the following changes
to the shape of this cube of clay will decrease its surface area relative to
its volume?
A)
Pinch the edges of the cube into small folds.
B)
Flatten the cube into a pancake shape.
C)
Round the clay up into a sphere.
D)
Stretch the cube into a long, shoebox shape.
27)
If an organism was discovered that had no epithelial tissues, it would require
adaptations to maintain homeostasis in which of the following areas? The
organism would require adaptations _____.
A)
in its skeleton for structure
B)
in its nervous system for sensing external stimuli
C)
that would prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment
D)
in its muscular system for movement
The
crucian carp (Carassius carassius) is a Northern European freshwater
fish often inhabiting ponds that become hypoxic (have reduced oxygen levels)
and even anoxic (have no oxygen) when the surface freezes during the winter.
Surprisingly, when oxygen levels are normal, these fish lack the lamellae that
provide a large surface area for gas exchange between water and blood: their
gills are smooth. Yet when the level of oxygen in the water falls, the gill
morphology undergoes a change: packing cells stop dividing and programmed cell
death is induced, exposing gill lamellae that were buried in other tissue. With
lamellae exposed, the gills have increased surface area for gas exchange. These
changes in gill lamellar profile are reversible: investigators observed that
the gills return to their normal structure within seven days after returning
the fish to well-oxygenated water. (Jørund Sollid, Paula De Angelis, Kristian
Gundersen, and Göran E. Nilsson. 2003. Hypoxia induces adaptive and reversible
gross morphological changes in crucian carp gills. Journal of Experimental
Biology 206:3667-73.)
28)
Refer to the paragraph on crucian carp. Gills serve multiple functions in fish
in addition to gas exchange. Given the large surface area of gills with
lamellae, what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover
protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?
A)
to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water
B)
to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water
C)
to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water
D)
to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water
29)
Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and
frequency, causing more contractions to occur until delivery. The increasing
labor contractions of childbirth are an example of which type of regulation?
A)
positive feedback
B)
negative feedback
C)
feedback inhibition
D)
enzymatic catalysis
30)
When the body's blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin and,
as a result, the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is
low, the pancreas secretes glucagon and, as a result, the blood glucose level
rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose level is the result of _____.
A)
catalytic feedback
B)
positive feedback
C)
negative feedback
D)
protein-protein interactions
31)
The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal
environment is termed _____.
A)
balanced equilibrium
B)
physiological chance
C)
homeostasis
D)
static equilibrium
32)
An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when
_____.
A)
the core body temperature of a runner rises gradually from 37°C to 45°C
B)
the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise
C)
a blood cell shrinks when placed in a solution of salt and water
D)
the blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume
33)
Positive feedback differs from negative feedback in that _____.
A)
positive feedback benefits the organism, whereas negative feedback is
detrimental
B)
the positive feedback's effector responses are in the same direction as the
initiating stimulus rather than opposite of it
C)
the effector's response increases some parameter (such as body temperature),
whereas in negative feedback it can only decrease the parameter
D)
positive feedback systems have only effectors, whereas negative feedback
systems have only receptors
34)
Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
A)
During birthing contractions, oxytocin (a hormone) is released and acts to
stimulate further contractions.
B)
When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a
subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin (a hormone that stimulates
lactation).
C)
After a blood vessel is damaged, signals are released by the damaged tissues
that activate platelets in the blood. These activated platelets release
chemicals that activate more platelets.
D)
When the level of glucose in the blood increases, the pancreas produces and
releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood
glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases as
blood glucose decreases.
35)
You discover a new species of bacteria that grows in aquatic environments with
high salt levels. While studying these bacteria, you note that their internal environment
is similar to the salt concentrations in their surroundings. You also discover
that the internal salt concentrations of the bacteria change as the salt
concentration in their environment changes. The new species can tolerate small
changes in this way, but dies from large changes because it has no mechanism
for altering its own internal salt levels. What type of homeostatic mechanism
is this species using to regulate its internal salt levels?
A)
conformation
B)
regulation
C)
integration
D)
assimilation
36)
Chum salmon (Oncorhynchus keta) are born in freshwater environments and
then migrate to the sea. Near the end of their lives, they return to the
freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In freshwater, water
constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt
water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the
water. A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt in or out of the body
to maintain homeostasis. In response to the salmon's moves between freshwater
and salt water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed.
These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an
individual salmon are an example of which of the following?
A)
evolution
B)
trade-off
C)
acclimatization
D)
adaptation
37)
To prepare flight muscles for use on a cool morning, hawkmoths _____.
A)
relax the muscles completely until after they launch themselves into the air
B)
decrease their standard metabolic rate
C)
rapidly contract and relax these muscles to generate metabolic warmth
D)
reduce the metabolic rate of the muscles to rest them before flight
38)
In a cool environment, an ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended
period of food deprivation than would an equally sized endotherm because the
ectotherm _____.
A)
maintains a higher basal metabolic rate
B)
expends more energy per kilogram of body mass than does the endotherm
C)
invests little energy in temperature regulation
D)
has greater insulation on its body surface
39)
Sweating allows a person to lose heat through the process of _____.
A)
conduction
B)
convection
C)
radiation
D)
evaporation
40)
An example of an ectothermic organism that has few or no behavioral
options when it comes to its ability to adjust its body temperature is a _____.
A)
sea star living deep in the ocean
B)
bass living in a farm pond
C)
hummingbird flying through a prairie
D)
honeybee in a hive on a rural farm
41)
The panting responses that are observed in overheated birds and mammals
dissipate excess heat by _____.
A)
countercurrent exchange
B)
acclimation
C)
vasoconstriction
D)
evaporation
42)
Most land-dwelling invertebrates and all of the amphibians _____.
A)
are ectothermic organisms with variable body temperatures
B)
alter their metabolic rates to maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C
C)
are endotherms but become thermoconformers when they are in water
D)
become more active when environmental temperatures drop below 15°C
43)
The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the
_____.
A)
thyroid gland
B)
hypothalamus
C)
subcutaneous layer of the skin
D)
liver
44)
The metabolic breakdown of specialized brown fat depots in certain animals is
substantially increased during _____.
A)
acclimatization
B)
torpor
C)
nonshivering thermogenesis
D)
shivering thermogenesis
45)
A moth preparing for flight on a cold morning may warm its flight muscles via
_____.
A)
acclimatization
B)
torpor
C)
evaporative cooling
D)
shivering thermogenesis
46)
The thin horizontal arrows in the figure above show that the _____.
A)
warmer arterial blood can bypass the legs as needed, when the legs are too cold
to function well
B)
warmer venous blood transfers heat to the cooler arterial blood
C)
warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood
D)
arterial blood is always cooler in the abdomen, compared to the temperature of
the venous blood in the feet of the goose
47)
Examine the figure above. Near a goose's abdomen, the countercurrent
arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels causes the _____.
A)
temperature difference between the contents of the two sets of vessels to be
minimized
B)
venous blood to be as cold near the abdomen as it is near the feet
C)
blood in the feet to be as warm as the blood in the abdomen
D)
loss of the maximum possible amount of heat to the environment
48)
Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an
animal and its environment?
A)
feathers or fur
B)
vasoconstriction
C)
wind blowing across the body surface
D)
blubber or fat layer
49)
You are studying a large tropical reptile that has a high and relatively stable
body temperature. How would you determine whether this animal is an endotherm
or an ectotherm?
A)
You know from its high and stable body temperature that it must be an
endotherm.
B)
You know that it is an ectotherm because it is not a bird or mammal.
C)
You subject this reptile to various temperatures in the lab and find that its
body temperature and metabolic rate change with the ambient temperature. You
conclude that it is an ectotherm.
D)
You note that its environment has a high and stable temperature. Because its
body temperature matches the environmental temperature, you conclude that it is
an ectotherm.
50)
A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of
her body heat by _____.
A)
radiation
B)
convection
C)
conduction
D)
evaporation
51)
There are advantages and disadvantages to adaptations. Animals that are
endothermic are likely to be at the greatest disadvantage in _____.
A)
very cold environments
B)
very hot environments
C)
environments with a constant food source
D)
environments with variable and limited food sources
52)
Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why
birds look larger in colder weather because they fluff their feathers?
A)
Fluffing feathers results in less cooling by radiation because feathers emit
less infrared radiation than other tissues do.
B)
Fluffing decreases the amount of heat lost by conduction when the bird makes
contact with cold objects in its environment.
C)
Fluffing creates a pocket of air near the bird that acts as insulation.
D)
Fluffing decreases the surface-area-to-volume ratio, thus decreasing the amount
of heat lost to the environment.
53)
Snake behavior in Wisconsin changes throughout the year. For example, a snake
is _____.
A)
less active in winter because the food supply is decreased
B)
less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators
C)
more active in summer because that is the period for mating
D)
more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction
54)
Standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BMR) are _____.
A)
used differently: SMR is measured during exercise, whereas BMR is measured at
rest
B)
used to compare metabolic rates during feeding and other active conditions
C)
both measured across a wide range of temperatures for a given species
D)
both measured in animals in a resting and fasting state
55)
Independent of whether an organism is an endotherm or ectoderm, the LEAST
reliable indicator of an animal's metabolic rate is the amount of _____.
A)
food eaten in one day
B)
heat generated in one day
C)
oxygen used in mitochondria in one day
D)
water consumed in one day
56)
Consider the energy budgets for a human, an elephant, a penguin, a mouse, and a
snake. The _____ would have the highest total annual energy expenditure, and
the _____ would have the highest energy expenditure per unit mass.
A)
elephant; mouse
B)
elephant; human
C)
human; penguin
D)
mouse; snake
57)
An animal's inputs of energy and materials would exceed its outputs if _____.
A)
the animal is an endotherm, which must always take in more energy because of
its high metabolic rate
B)
it is actively foraging for food
C)
it is hibernating
D)
it is growing and increasing its mass
58)
Which of the following animals most likely uses the largest percentage of its
energy budget for homeostatic regulation?
A)
a marine jelly (an invertebrate) living deep in the ocean
B)
a snake in a tropical forest
C)
a shark swimming in the open ocean
D)
a bird living year round in a desert
59)
A researcher is setting up an experiment to measure basal metabolic rate in
prairie voles (Microtus ochrogaster–a small rodent). Which of the
following would be the best set of conditions for the voles immediately before
and during the measurement?
A)
House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress;
conduct measurements in a warmer room than the room where housed.
B)
House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress;
conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed.
C)
House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement;
conduct measurements in a colder room than the room where housed, and exercise
the voles.
D)
House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement;
conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed.
60)
Hummingbirds are small birds that require a regular food supply. When
hummingbirds are faced with a situation that decreases their food supply, such
as a storm, which of the following adaptations would be most useful for the
bird to survive such an unpredictable and short-term absence of food resources?
A)
shivering
B)
torpor
C)
hibernation
D)
burrowing into soil
61)
Organisms maintain dynamic homeostasis (internal balance) through behavioral
and physiological mechanisms. Which of the following statements is an accurate
explanation of a negative feedback mechanism used by animals to regulate body
temperature?
A)
Squirrels are able to cool themselves during warmer months by producing more
brown fat, which contains abundant mitochondria and a rich blood supply.
B)
Desert jackrabbits have unusually large
ears that serve as solar heat collectors to enable them to maintain their body
temperatures.
C)
A ground squirrel’s hypothalamus detects changes in environmental temperatures
and responds by activating or suppressing metabolic heat production.
D)
A goldfish slows its movements when the water temperature is lower.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 41 Animal
Nutrition
1)
The following table shows the contents of a multivitamin supplement and its
percentage of recommended daily values (%DV).
|
Dietary
Supplement
|
% DV
|
|
Vitamin
A
|
70
|
|
Vitamin
C
|
100
|
|
Vitamin
D
|
100
|
|
Vitamin
E
|
150
|
|
Vitamin
K
|
13
|
|
Vitamin
B1
|
100
|
|
Vitamin
B2
|
100
|
|
Folic
acid
|
100
|
|
Vitamin
B12
|
41.7
|
|
Calcium
|
20
|
|
Phosphorus
|
5
|
|
Iodine
|
100
|
|
Magnesium
|
25
|
|
Zinc
|
100
|
|
Copper
|
100
|
|
Chromium
|
125
|
|
Molybdenum
|
100
|
|
Iron
|
0
|
The
most likely reason that some of the vitamins and minerals in this supplement
are found at less than 100% is that _____.
A)
it would be chemically impossible to add more
B)
these vitamins and minerals are too large in size to reach 100%
C)
it is too easy to overdose on minerals such as phosphorus and calcium
D)
it is dangerous to overdose on fat-soluble vitamins such as A and K
2)
In a well-fed human eating a Western diet, the richest source of stored
chemical energy in the body is _____.
A)
fat in adipose tissue
B)
glucose in the blood
C)
protein in muscle cells
D)
glycogen in muscle cells
3)
Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic
benefit of storing chemical energy as _____.
A)
proteins
B)
minerals
C)
carbohydrates
D)
fats
4)
Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some
animals because _____.
A)
only those animals use those nutrients
B)
these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients
C)
the nutrients are necessary coenzymes
D)
only certain foods contain them
5)
Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate
vitamin?
A)
blood clotting — vitamin C
B)
normal vision — vitamin A
C)
synthesis of cell membranes — vitamin D
D)
production of white blood cells — vitamin K
6)
Folic acid supplements have become especially important for pregnant women
because _____.
A)
folic acid supplies vitamins that only pregnant women can use
B)
the fetus makes high levels of folic acid
C)
folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube abnormalities in a fetus
D)
folic acid deprivation is a cause of heart abnormalities in a newborn
7)
What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in the diet?
A)
They are most commonly used to meet energy demands of cells.
B)
Proteins serve a variety of functions, and the body does not store excess
quantities of protein.
C)
They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute
quantities.
D)
Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
8)
Three groups of cyclists consumed three different types of diets:
high-carbohydrate; a diet mixed in carbohydrates, fat, and protein; or a diet
higher in protein and fat. The average time each group could spend cycling over
a six-hour period is shown in the above graph. What conclusion from the data
would help an athlete or trainer improve performance?
A)
Endurance is entirely related to diet.
B)
Maintaining elevated blood sugar improves performance.
C)
An early 50 percent drop in blood glucose is associated with improved
endurance.
D)
Diet is not at all related to endurance.
9)
Which of the following animals is correctly paired with its feeding mechanism?
A)
baleen whale — fluid feeder
B)
aphid — suspension feeder
C)
clam — substrate feeder
D)
snake — bulk feeder
10)
The process of obtaining food is known as _____ and requires specialized
mouthparts.
A)
ingestion
B)
digestion
C)
absorption
D)
excretion
11)
In marine sponges, intracellular digestion of peptides is usually immediately
preceded by _____.
A)
hydrolysis
B)
phagocytosis
C)
absorption
D)
secretion
12)
An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is
that the complete system _____.
A)
excludes the need for extracellular digestion
B)
allows for specialized regions with specialized functions
C)
allows extensive branching
D)
facilitates intracellular digestion
13)
Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of
macromolecules, animals need to have mechanisms for _____.
A)
dehydration synthesis
B)
enzymatic hydrolysis
C)
regurgitation
D)
demineralization
14)
Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields
amino acids; both digestive processes _____.
A)
are catalyzed by the same enzyme
B)
use water molecules when breaking bonds (hydrolysis)
C)
require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH
D)
require adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source
15)
Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body.
This process is known as _____.
A)
ingestion
B)
digestion
C)
hydrolysis
D)
absorption
16)
The function of mechanical digestion is to break down large chunks of food into
smaller pieces. Why is this important? Smaller pieces of food _____.
A)
do not taste as good as larger pieces of food
B)
have more surface area for chemical digestion than do larger pieces of food
C)
are easier to excrete than are larger pieces of food
D)
are more easily stored in the stomach than are larger pieces of food
17)
The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates _____.
A)
secretion
B)
absorption
C)
filtration
D)
temperature regulation
18)
In the digestive system, peristalsis is _____.
A)
a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine
B)
voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation
C)
the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel
D)
smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus
19)
Among mammals, it is generally true that _____.
A)
all types of foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth
B)
after leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx
C)
the epiglottis prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea
D)
the trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach
20)
Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The agents that
help emulsify fats are produced in location _____.
A)
1
B)
3
C)
8
D)
9
21)
Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The highest rate
of nutrient absorption occurs at location_____.
A)
1
B)
4
C)
5
D)
8
22)
Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. Most of the
digestion of fats occurs in structure(s) _____.
A)
3 only
B)
4 only
C)
1 and 4
D)
3 and 4
23)
Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. Bacteria that
produce vitamins are found in the greatest concentration in location _____.
A)
3
B)
4
C)
5
D)
8
24)
The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the _____.
A)
stomach
B)
pharynx
C)
rectum
D)
epiglottis
25)
Which of the following organs is correctly paired with its function?
A)
stomach — protein digestion
B)
large intestine — bile production
C)
small intestine — starch digestion
D)
pancreas — starch digestion
26)
Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting
activities in the stomach by having _____.
A)
a sufficient colony of H. pylori
B)
a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells
C)
a high level of secretion of enzymes by chief cells
D)
a cell wall impermeable to acid
27)
Villi and microvilli in the small intestine _____.
A)
neutralize stomach acid
B)
activate trypsinogen
C)
increase the surface area to increase the efficiency of nutrient absorption
D)
emulsify lipid molecules
28)
Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells _____.
A)
initiate the chemical digestion of protein in the stomach
B)
initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach
C)
initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach
D)
delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine
29)
Historically inaccurate diagnosis of acid reflux disorders and gastric ulcers
has been improved by _____.
A)
pH monitoring
B)
X-ray technology
C)
screening for H. pylori infections
D)
sonography
30)
What is the importance of the mucins that are released by salivary glands?
A)
They aid in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides.
B)
They are beginning the process of starch digestion.
C)
They are hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the
stomach in anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth.
D)
They are glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through
the esophagus.
31)
Jahasz-Pocsine and co-workers found a correlation between gastric bypass
surgery and neurological complications. Surgeons performed gastric bypass
surgery on 150 patients at the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences
Neurology Clinic. Of the 150 patients, 26 experienced neurological
complications related to the surgery. What is the most likely cause for the
neurological complications?
A)
sudden weight loss and caloric deficiency interfering with neurological
function
B)
nutrient (for example, vitamin and mineral) deficiencies
C)
sloppy surgical technique of physicians performing the bypass surgery
D)
infections following surgical intervention
32)
Why did scientists originally hypothesize that proteolytic enzymes such as
pepsin and trypsin are secreted in inactive form?
A)
These proteolytic enzymes, in active form, would digest the very tissues that
synthesize them.
B)
They identified the hormone that activates pepsin and trypsin.
C)
The stomach is too acidic to maintain these enzymes in their active form.
D)
Pepsin and trypsin have never been isolated in their fully activated form.
33)
Over-the-counter medications for acid reflux or heartburn block the production
of stomach acid. Which of the following cells are directly affected by this
medication?
A)
goblet cells
B)
chief cells
C)
parietal cells
D)
smooth muscle cells
34)
Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and
digestive disturbances. How might they survive the acid pH of the stomach?
A)
They secrete buffers to neutralize acid.
B)
They burrow under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium.
C)
They take over the parietal cells.
D)
They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach.
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
35)
The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is
absorbed by attaching to enzymes that digest fat. Which of the following are
potential targets of orlistat?
A)
salivary amylase
B)
pepsidase
C)
pancreatic lipase
D)
secretin
36)
The pancreas is involved in the digestion of _____.
I) protein
II) fat
III) nucleic
acids
IV) carbohydrates
A)
I and III
B)
I, II, and IV
C)
II, III, and IV
D)
I, II, III, and IV
37)
Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the _____.
A)
small intestine
B)
stomach
C)
pancreas
D)
liver
38)
The bile salts _____.
A)
are enzymes
B)
are manufactured by the pancreas
C)
emulsify fats in the duodenum
D)
are normally an ingredient of gastric juice
39)
The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that _____.
A)
fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are
absorbed from the small intestine
B)
carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats
do not
C)
most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates
directly enter the blood
D)
fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption
40)
Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that _____.
A)
promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine
B)
speeds up movement of material in the large intestine
C)
decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine
D)
stimulates peristalsis
41)
A significant contribution of intestinal bacteria to human nutrition is the
benefit of bacterial _____.
A)
production of vitamins A and C
B)
absorption of organic materials
C)
production of vitamin K
D)
recovery of water from fecal matter
42)
After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially
careful to restrict dietary intake of _____.
A)
protein
B)
sugar
C)
fat
D)
water
43)
When a woman has her gallbladder removed, she should probably reduce her
consumption of _____.
A)
proteins
B)
carbohydrates
C)
fats
D)
proteins and carbohydrates
44)
If you place a small piece of a cracker on your tongue, what would you expect
to happen?
A)
The vitamins in the cracker are immediately absorbed.
B)
Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.
C)
The proteins in the cracker begin to be digested.
D)
The flavor becomes less noticeable because the sugars are digested.
45)
A relatively long cecum is characteristic of animals that are_____.
A)
carnivores
B)
herbivores
C)
autotrophs
D)
omnivores
46)
Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant
material because cattle _____.
A)
are autotrophic
B)
re-ingest their feces
C)
manufacture all fifteen amino acids out of sugars in the liver
D)
have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs
47)
A zoologist analyzes the jawbones of an extinct mammal and concludes that it
was an herbivore. The zoologist most likely came to this conclusion based upon
_____.
A)
the position of muscle attachment sites
B)
the shape of the teeth
C)
the size of the mouth opening
D)
the angle of the teeth in the mouth
48)
An enlarged cecum is typical of _____.
A)
rabbits, horses, and herbivorous bears
B)
carnivorous animals
C)
tubeworms that digest via symbionts
D)
humans and other primates
49)
Coprophagy is important for the nutritional balance of _____.
A)
ruminants such as cows
B)
insects and arthropods
C)
rabbits and their relatives
D)
squirrels and some rodents
50)
If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and
scissor-like, what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?
A)
grass
B)
flesh of another animal
C)
nectar
D)
blood
51)
You are most likely to observe coprophagy in _____.
A)
carnivores
B)
herbivores
C)
fluid feeders
D)
suspension feeders
52)
Obesity in humans is most clearly linked to _____.
A)
type 1 diabetes and prostate cancer
B)
type 2 diabetes and muscle hypertrophy
C)
type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease
D)
type 2 diabetes and decreased appetite
53)
If you were to jog one kilometer a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel
would you probably tap?
A)
muscle proteins
B)
liver glycogen and muscle glycogen
C)
fat stored in adipose tissue
D)
blood proteins
54)
Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment. When the
food is released from the stomach into the small intestine, why is the
environment no longer acidic?
A)
Secretin increases the flow of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into the
small intestine to neutralize the stomach acid.
B)
Enterokinase activates trypsinogen, thus neutralizing the stomach acid.
C)
Bile salts from the gallbladder neutralize the stomach acid.
D)
When pepsinogen activates pepsin, one result is the neutralization of stomach
acid in the stomach.
55)
The Pimas are a group of people living in the southwestern United States and
Mexico. Although Pima Indians living in the United States and Mexico have a
similar genetic background, a five-fold increase in the incidence of type II
diabetes mellitus among U.S. Pima has been reported. The body mass index of
Mexicans of non-Pima descent, Mexicans of Pima descent, and Pimas living in the
United States is shown in the figure above. Based on this information and the
graph above, what can you infer about the incidence of type II diabetes mellitus?
A)
Obesity is a risk factor for development of type II diabetes mellitus.
B)
If you maintain a normal body weight (body mass index less than 25), you will
not get type II diabetes mellitus.
C)
The incidence of type II diabetes mellitus has increased in the past ten years.
D)
People who develop type II diabetes mellitus are typically diagnosed in
childhood or adolescence.
56)
In a healthy person, after a large meal, the production of _____ will increase.
After fasting, the production of _____ will increase.
A)
trypsin; trypsinogen
B)
glucagon; glucose
C)
glucagon; pepsinogen
D)
insulin; glucagon
57)
If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family,
how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder?
A)
monitor your blood glucose levels daily
B)
take oral insulin daily
C)
maintain a healthy weight, eat a balanced direct, and exercise
D)
eat complex carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets
58)
When the digestion and absorption of organic carbohydrates results in more
energy-rich molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is
_____.
A)
eliminated in the feces
B)
stored as starch in the liver
C)
stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles
D)
oxidized and converted to ATP
59)
A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet draws on
its stored resources in which order?
A)
fat, then glycogen, then protein
B)
glycogen, then protein, then fat
C)
liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat
D)
muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 42
Circulation and Gas Exchange
1)
The circulatory systems of bony fishes, rays, and sharks are most similar to
_____.
A)
those of birds, with a four-chambered heart
B)
the portal systems of mammals, where two capillary beds occur sequentially,
without passage of blood through a pumping chamber
C)
those of sponges, where gas exchange in all cells occurs directly with the
external environment
D)
those of humans, where there are four pumping chambers to drive blood flow
2)
Organisms with a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that
directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have _____.
A)
an open circulatory system
B)
a closed circulatory system
C)
a gastrovascular cavity
D)
branched tracheae
3)
In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous
circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body?
A)
annelids
B)
fishes
C)
frogs
D)
insects
4)
The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to
body tissues without first returning to the heart are the _____.
A)
amphibians
B)
fishes
C)
mammals
D)
reptiles
5)
To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange
surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism
would need a(n) _____.
A)
open circulatory system
B)
hemocoel
C)
two-chambered heart
D)
four-chambered heart
6)
An anthropologist discovers the fossilized heart of an extinct animal. The
evidence indicates that the organism's heart was large, was well-formed, and
had four chambers, with no connection between the right and left sides. A
reasonable conclusion supported by these observations is that the _____.
A)
animal had evolved from birds
B)
animal was endothermic and had a high metabolic rate
C)
animal was most closely related to alligators and crocodiles
D)
species had little to no need to regulate blood pressure
7)
In an open circulatory system, blood is _____.
A)
always inside of vessels and is under higher pressure than in closed
circulatory systems
B)
not always confined to blood vessels and is under higher pressure than in
closed circulatory systems
C)
always inside of vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed circulatory
systems
D)
not always confined to blood vessels and is under lower pressure than in closed
circulatory systems
8)
Circulatory systems compensate for _____.
A)
temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue
B)
the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances
C)
the problem of communication systems involving only the nervous system
D)
the need to cushion animals from trauma
9)
Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the
mammalian aorta?
A)
systole of the left atrium
B)
diastole of the right ventricle
C)
systole of the left ventricle
D)
diastole of the right atrium
10)
Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in birds and
mammals?
A)
left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
B)
vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein
C)
pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit
D)
vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery
11)
A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute, a
stroke volume of 70 mL/beat (milliliters per beat), and a respiratory rate of
25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac output of _____.
A)
1,000 mL/minute
B)
1,750 mL/minute
C)
2,800 mL/minute
D)
4,900 mL/minute
12)
Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans _____.
A)
would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers
B)
would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance
C)
would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions
D)
would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta
13)
A stroke volume of 70 mL/cycle in a heart with a pulse of 72 cycles per minute
results in a cardiac output of about _____.
A)
5 liters per minute
B)
50 milliliters per minute
C)
0.5 liters per minute
D)
50 liters per minute
14)
Atria contract _____.
A)
just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)
during diastole
C)
immediately after systole
D)
during systole
15)
The greatest difference in the concentration of respiratory gases is found in
which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels?
A)
the pulmonary vein and the jugular vein
B)
the veins from the right and left legs
C)
the pulmonary artery and the inferior vena cava
D)
the pulmonary vein and the aorta
16)
A human red blood cell in an artery of the left arm is on its way to deliver
oxygen to a cell in the thumb. To travel from the artery to the thumb and then
back to the left ventricle, this red blood cell must pass through _____.
A)
one capillary bed
B)
two capillary beds
C)
three capillary beds
D)
four capillary beds
17)
If a molecule of carbon dioxide released into the blood in your left toe is
exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A)
the pulmonary vein
B)
an alveolus
C)
the trachea
D)
the right atrium
18)
Among the following choices, which organism likely has the highest systolic
pressure?
A)
mouse
B)
human
C)
hippopotamus
D)
giraffe
19)
The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because _____.
A)
the capillaries have internal valves that slow the flow of blood
B)
the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at
a high flow rate
C)
the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower
cardiac output than the right ventricle
D)
the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total
cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory
system
20)
A species that has a normal resting systolic blood pressure of greater than 260
mm Hg is likely to be _____.
A)
an animal that is small and compact, without the need to pump blood very far
from the heart
B)
a species that has very wide diameter veins
C)
an animal that has a very long distance between its heart and its brain
D)
an animal that makes frequent, quick motions
21)
Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with
_____.
A)
increased activity of the immune system
B)
blood sugar that is abnormally high
C)
dehydration
D)
sodium depletion
22)
What will be the long-term effect of blocking the lymphatic vessels associated
with a capillary bed?
A)
more fluid entering the venous capillaries
B)
an increase in the blood pressure in the capillary bed
C)
the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas
D)
the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small
23)
Which of the following conditions would most likely be due to high blood
pressure in a mammal?
A)
bursting of blood vessels in capillary beds
B)
inability of the right ventricle to contract
C)
reversal of normal blood flow direction in arteries
D)
destruction of red blood cells
24)
Which of the following mechanisms are used to regulate blood pressure in the
closed circulatory system of vertebrates?
I) changing
the force of heart contraction
II) constricting
and relaxing sphincters in the walls of arterioles
III) adjusting
the volume of blood contained in the veins
A)
only I and II
B)
only I and III
C)
only II and III
D)
I, II, and III
25)
Blood is pumped at high pressures in arteries from the heart to ensure that all
parts of the body receive adequate blood flow. Capillary beds, however, would
hemorrhage under direct arterial pressures. How does the design of the circulatory
network contribute to reducing blood pressure to avoid this scenario?
A)
Blood flow through the capillaries is essentially frictionless, and this
reduces the amount of pressure on their walls.
B)
The total cross-sectional diameter of the arterial circulation increases with
progression from artery to arteriole to capillary, leading to a reduced blood
pressure.
C)
Fluid loss from the arteries is high enough that pressure drops off
significantly by the time blood reaches the capillaries.
D)
Capillary beds have the thickest walls of any blood vessel to resist these high
pressures.
Lymph
hearts are pumping structures that drive lymph through the lymphatic system,
returning it to the circulatory system at the large veins entering the heart.
Researchers examined rate and strength of pumping of lymph hearts in two
species of amphibians, a toad (Bufo marinus) and a frog (Rana
catesbiana). During hemorrhage or dehydration, the volume of blood in the
circulatory system falls. (E. A. DeGrauw and S. S. Hillman. 2004. General
function and endocrine control of the posterior lymph hearts in Bufo marinus
and Rana catesbiana. Physiological and Biochemical Zoology
77(4):594-600.)
26)
Refer to the paragraph on lymph hearts. What effect would increasing lymph
heart pressure have first?
A)
Blood volume would increase.
B)
Blood volume would decrease.
C)
Hemorrhage would increase.
D)
Hemorrhage would decrease.
27)
If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of
capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then _____.
A)
hemoglobin will not release oxygen
B)
fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues
C)
the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase
D)
plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries
28)
Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out,
resulting in the _____.
A)
loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries
B)
development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls
C)
loss of fluid from capillaries
D)
increased diffusion of hemoglobin
29)
The production of red blood cells is stimulated by _____.
A)
low-density lipoproteins
B)
immunoglobulins
C)
erythropoietin
D)
epinephrine
30)
To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules
of oxygen must cross _____.
A)
one membrane—that of the lining in the lungs—and then bind directly to
hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood
B)
two membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung—and then bind directly to
hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood
C)
four membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the
endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary—and then bind directly to
hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood
D)
five membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the
endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary, and into the red blood cell—to
bind with hemoglobin
31)
The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the _____.
A)
measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries
B)
measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood
C)
percentage of blood volume made up of platelets
D)
blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or greater than 90 mm
Hg diastolic
32)
Cyanide poisons mitochondria by blocking the final step in the electron
transport chain. Human red blood cells placed in an isotonic solution
containing cyanide are likely to _____.
A)
retain the normal cell shape, but the mitochondria will be poisoned
B)
lyse as the cyanide concentration increases inside the cell
C)
switch to anaerobic metabolism
D)
be unaffected
33)
A normal event in the process of blood clotting is the _____.
A)
production of erythropoietin
B)
conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen
C)
activation of prothrombin to thrombin
D)
synthesis of hemoglobin
34)
You cut your finger, and after putting pressure on the wound for several
minutes, you notice that it is still bleeding profusely. What may be the
problem?
A)
Platelets are not functioning properly, or there are too few to be effective.
B)
Mast cells are not releasing their chemical messengers.
C)
There are too many antigens to allow clotting.
D)
Hemoglobin levels are too high to allow clotting.
35)
The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells, and the organ
where this hormone is synthesized, are _____.
A)
growth hormone and pancreas, respectively
B)
erythropoietin and kidney, respectively
C)
cortisol and adrenal gland, respectively
D)
acetylcholine and bone marrow, respectively
36)
Countercurrent exchange is evident in the flow of _____.
A)
water across the gills of a fish and the blood within those gills
B)
blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae
C)
air within the primary bronchi of a human and the blood within the pulmonary
veins
D)
water across the skin of a frog and the blood flow within the ventricle of its
heart
37)
Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize _____.
A)
blood pressure
B)
diffusion
C)
active transport
D)
osmosis
38)
Which of the following statements comparing respiration in fish and in mammals
is correct?
A)
The respiratory medium for fish carries more oxygen than the respiratory medium
of mammals.
B)
A countercurrent exchange mechanism between the respiratory medium and blood
flow is seen in mammals but not in fish.
C)
The movement of the respiratory medium in mammals is bidirectional, but in fish
it is unidirectional.
D)
In blood, oxygen is primarily transported by plasma in fish, but by red blood
cells in mammals.
39)
Flying insects typically _____.
A)
decrease metabolism as much as 200-fold during flight
B)
switch from diffusion of tracheal gases to active transport during flight
C)
utilize high numbers of mitochondria in flight muscles
D)
generate fuel molecules from catabolism of carbon dioxide
40)
When the air in a testing chamber is specially mixed so that its oxygen content
is 10 percent and its overall air pressure is 400 mm Hg, then is _____.
is _____.
A)
400 mm Hg
B)
82 mm Hg
C)
40 mm Hg
D)
4 mm Hg
41)
The sun shining on a tidal pool during a hot day heats the water. As some water
evaporates, the pool becomes saltier, causing _____.
A)
an increase in its carbon dioxide content
B)
a decrease in its oxygen content
C)
an increase in its ability to sustain aerobic organisms
D)
a decrease in the water's density
42)
An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and
other insects because it _____.
A)
blocks the openings into the tracheal system
B)
interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries
C)
clogs their bronchi
D)
prevents gases from leaving the atmosphere
43)
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to a column of 760 mm Hg. Oxygen
makes up 21 percent of the atmosphere by volume. The partial pressure of oxygen
() in such conditions is _____.
) in such conditions is _____.
A)
160 mm Hg
B)
16 mm Hg
C)
21/760
D)
760/21
44)
Some human infants, especially those born prematurely, suffer serious
respiratory failure because of _____.
A)
the sudden change from the uterine environment to the air
B)
the overproduction of surfactants
C)
lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant
D)
mutations in the genes involved in lung formation
45)
At the summit of a high mountain, the atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg. If the
atmosphere is still composed of 21percent oxygen, then the partial pressure of
oxygen at this altitude is about _____.
A)
80 mm Hg
B)
160 mm Hg
C)
380 mm Hg
D)
760 mm Hg
46)
Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood
reaching these muscle cells in arteries has a _____.
A)
higher
B)
greater bicarbonate concentration
C)
lower pH
D)
lower osmotic pressure
47)
A rabbit taken from a meadow near sea level and moved to a meadow high on a
mountainside would have some trouble breathing. Why?
A)
The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea
level.
B)
The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea
level.
C)
The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at
sea level.
D)
The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at
sea level.
48)
What would be the consequences if we were to reverse the direction of water
flow over the gills of a fish, moving water inward past the operculum, past the
gills, the out the mouth? This reversal of water flow would _____.
A)
reduce efficiency of gas exchange
B)
change the exchange of gases in the body from carbon dioxide out and oxygen in
to carbon dioxide in and oxygen out
C)
increase the efficiency of gas exchange
49)
Under identical atmospheric conditions, freshwater _____.
A)
has more oxygen than seawater
B)
has less oxygen than seawater
C)
can hold 10-40 times more carbon dioxide than air
D)
can hold 10-40 times more oxygen than air
50)
Which of the following statements comparing respiration in fish and in mammals
is correct?
A)
The respiratory medium for fish carries more oxygen than the respiratory medium
of mammals.
B)
A countercurrent exchange mechanism between the respiratory medium and blood
flow is seen in mammals but not in fish.
C)
The movement of the respiratory medium in mammals is bidirectional, but in fish
it is unidirectional.
D)
In blood, oxygen is primarily transported by plasma in fish, but by red blood
cells in mammals.
51)
How has the avian lung adapted to the metabolic demands of flight?
A)
Airflow through the avian lung is bidirectional like in mammals.
B)
There is more dead space within the avian lung so that oxygen can be stored for
future use.
C)
Countercurrent circulation is present in the avian lung.
D)
Gas exchange occurs during both inhalation and exhalation.
52)
Carbon dioxide levels in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid affect pH. This
enables the organism to sense a disturbance in gas levels as _____.
A)
the brain directly measures and monitors oxygen levels and causes breathing
changes accordingly
B)
the medulla oblongata, which is in contact with cerebrospinal fluid, monitors
pH and uses this measure to control breathing
C)
the brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to force the animal to
retain more or less carbon dioxide
D)
stretch receptors in the lungs cause the medulla oblongata to speed up or slow
breathing
53)
A person with a tidal volume of 450 mL (milliliters), a vital capacity of 4000
mL, and a residual volume of 1000 mL would have a potential total lung capacity
of _____.
A)
1450 mL
B)
4000 mL
C)
4450 mL
D)
5000 mL
54)
During most daily activities, the human respiration rate is most closely linked
to the blood levels of _____.
A)
nitrogen
B)
oxygen
C)
carbon dioxide
D)
carbon monoxide
55)
An decrease from pH 7.4 to pH 7.2 causes hemoglobin to _____.
A)
release all bound carbon dioxide molecules
B)
bind more oxygen molecules
C)
increase its binding of H+
D)
give up more of its oxygen molecules
56)
The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by
changes in _____.
A)
the partial pressure of oxygen
B)
hemoglobin concentration
C)
temperature
D)
pH
57)
Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is _____.
A)
converted to bicarbonate ions by an enzyme in red blood cells
B)
bound to hemoglobin
C)
transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid
D)
simply dissolved in the plasma
58)
Which of the following events would be predicted by the Bohr shift effect as
the amount of carbon dioxide released from your tissues into the blood
capillaries increases? The amount of oxygen in _____.
A)
arterial blood would increase
B)
arterial blood would decrease
C)
venous blood would increase
D)
venous blood would decrease
59)
You are a physician, and you are seeing a patient who complains of abnormal
fatigue during exercise. You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of
carbon dioxide in the tissues. What is the most likely cause?
A)
abnormally shaped platelets
B)
abnormal carbonic anhydrase
C)
abnormal hemoglobin
D)
not enough hemoglobin
60)
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors cause less movement of carbonic acid toward
carbon dioxide production and are used as a prophylactic treatment of altitude
sickness. Altitude sickness occurs when a hiker ascends to altitudes where the
density of oxygen is low. How does this decrease the symptoms of high altitude
sickness?
A)
The excess hydrogen ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting loss of
acidity increases respiration rate.
B)
The excess bicarbonate ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting loss of
blood pressure increases respiration rate.
C)
The excess bicarbonate ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting
increase in blood acidity leads to an increase in ventilation.
D)
The excess bicarbonate ions in the blood increase the affinity of hemoglobin
for oxygen.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 43 The
Immune System
1)
Innate immunity _____.
A)
is activated immediately upon infection
B)
depends on an infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen
C)
is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens
D)
is found only in vertebrate animals
2)
A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is
protected by its _____.
A)
immunoglobulins
B)
antibodies
C)
antimicrobial peptides
D)
B cells
3)
Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity of vertebrates include _____.
I) neutrophils
II) macrophages
III) dendritic
cells
IV) natural
killer cells
A)
I and III
B)
II and IV
C)
I and IV
D)
I, II, and III
4)
The cells and signaling molecules involved in the initial stages of the
inflammatory response are _____.
A)
phagocytes and chemokines
B)
dendritic cells and interferons
C)
mast cells and histamines
D)
lymphocytes and interferons
5)
Inflammatory responses typically include _____.
A)
increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area
B)
reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma
C)
release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area
D)
inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow
6)
Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of
macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in or on certain
groups of pathogens, such as viral _____.
A)
double-stranded DNA
B)
double-stranded RNA
C)
glycoproteins
D)
phospholipids
7)
Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure,
is a response to _____.
A)
certain bacterial infections
B)
specific forms of viruses
C)
the presence of natural killer cells
D)
increased production of neutrophils
8)
The cells involved in innate immunity, whose absence increases the chances of
developing malignant tumors, are _____.
A)
cytotoxic T cells
B)
natural killer cells
C)
macrophages
D)
B cells
Mutant
fruit flies that make only one antimicrobial peptide were tested for survival
after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi or with Micrococcus
luteus bacteria.
9)
The results shown in the graphs support the hypothesis that _____.
A)
adding the defensin gene to such mutants protects them from death by fungal infection
B)
adding the drosomycin gene to such mutants protects them from death by fungal
infection
C)
wild-type flies with the full set of genes for antimicrobial peptides are
highly susceptible to these infective agents
D)
the presence of any single antimicrobial peptide protects against both
infective agents
10)
You and a friend were in line for a movie when you noticed the woman in front
of you sneezing and coughing. Both of you were equally exposed to the woman's
virus, but over the next few days, only your friend acquired flu-like symptoms
and was ill for almost a week before recovering. Which one of the following is
a logical explanation for this?
A)
Your friend had antibodies to that virus.
B)
You had an adaptive immunity to that virus.
C)
Your friend had an autoimmune disorder.
D)
Your friend had allergies.
11)
A boy falls while riding his bike. A scrape on his hand almost immediately
begins to bleed and becomes red, warm, and swollen. What response is occurring?
A)
inflammatory response
B)
lytic response
C)
adaptive immune response
D)
autoimmune response
12)
Acidity in human sweat is an example of _____.
A)
cell-mediated immune responses
B)
acquired immunity
C)
adaptive immunity
D)
innate immunity
13)
The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by
_____.
A)
interferons produced by immune cells
B)
the secretion of complement proteins
C)
the release of slightly alkaline secretions
D)
the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces
14)
The complement system is _____.
A)
a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity
B)
a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins
C)
a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion
D)
a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes
15)
Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin _____.
A)
inactivate the erythrocytes
B)
stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells
C)
stimulate release of interferons
D)
activate a group of proteins called complement
16)
Mucus occurs in both the respiratory and digestive tracts. What is its main
immunological function?
A)
sweeping away debris
B)
physically trapping pathogens
C)
destruction of pathogens because it is acidic
D)
increasing oxygen absorption
17)
Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA sequences between
variable regions and joining regions is accomplished by a(n)_____.
A)
RNA polymerase
B)
reverse transcriptase
C)
epitopase
D)
recombinase
18)
Clonal selection and differentiation of B cells activated by antigen exposure
leads to the production of _____.
A)
large quantities of the antigen initially recognized
B)
vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors
C)
long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen
D)
short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen
19)
A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most
likely _____.
A)
lack innate immunity
B)
be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors
C)
be unable to differentiate and mature T cells
D)
have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies
20)
Clonal selection is an explanation for how _____.
A)
V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged
B)
an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies
C) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
can disrupt the immune system
D)
macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells
21)
An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, with regions symbolized as
C or V, H or L, has a light chain made up of _____.
A)
one C region and one V region
B)
one H region and one L region
C)
three H regions and one L region
D)
two C regions and two V regions
22)
Immunological memory accounts for _____.
A)
the human body's ability to distinguish self from non-self
B)
the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever
cause more severe disease than others
C)
the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines
D)
the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could
safely care for those newly diseased
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
An
otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that
causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected
when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore
throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she
does not get sick.
23)
The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along
with _____.
A)
a complement
B)
antibodies
C)
class I MHC molecules
D)
class II MHC molecules
24)
Vaccination increases the number of _____.
A)
lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen
B)
epitopes that the immune system can recognize
C)
macrophages specific for a pathogen
D)
major histocompatability (MHC) molecules that can present an antigen
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
25)
If a patient is missing B and T cells, what would be absent from the immune
response?
A)
memory
B)
lysozymes
C)
cytokines
D)
defense against bacteria
26)
Lymphocytes mature in the _____.
I) spleen
II) thymus
III) bone
marrow
A)
only I and III
B)
only I and II
C)
only II and III
D)
I, II, and III
27)
Which of the following statements are fundamental to the clonal-selection
theory of how the adaptive immune system functions?
I) Each
lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen.
II) When
the lymphocyte binds an antigen, it is activated and begins dividing to form
many identical copies of itself.
III) Cloned
lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal
if they do not bind an antigen.
IV) Cloned
cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen
is eliminated.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and IV
D)
only II, III, and IV
28)
What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptive immunity?
A)
It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously
encountered.
B)
It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly the first time
they are encountered.
C)
It results in effector cells with specificity for a large number of antigens.
D)
It allows for the destruction of antibodies.
29)
Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells?
A)
One has a major role in antibody production, while the other has a major role
in cytotoxicity.
B)
One binds a receptor called BCR (B-cell receptor), while the other recognizes a
receptor called TCR (T-cell receptor).
C)
B cells are activated by free-floating antigens in the blood or lymph. T cells
are activated by membrane-bound antigens.
D)
T cells are produced in the thymus and B cells are produced in the bone marrow.
30)
A certain cell type has existed in the blood and tissue of its vertebrate
host's immune system for over twenty years. One day, it recognizes a newly
arrived antigen and binds to it, subsequently triggering a secondary immune
response in the body. Which of the following cell types most accurately
describes this cell?
A)
plasma cell
B)
thyroid cell
C)
memory cell
D)
macrophage
31)
Which of the following statements about epitopes are correct?
I) B-cell
receptors bind to epitopes.
II) T-cell
receptors bind to epitopes.
III) There
can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.
IV) There
is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and IV
C)
only I, II, and III
D)
only II, III, and IV
32)
Which of the following pairs of proteins shares the most overall similarity in
structure?
A)
B-cell receptors and T-cell receptors
B)
B-cell receptors and antibodies
C)
T-cell receptors and antibodies
D)
antibodies and antigens
33)
What type of immunity is associated with breast feeding?
A)
innate immunity
B)
active immunity
C)
passive immunity
D)
cell-mediated immunity
34)
Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells.
A)
B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
B)
body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I
MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C)
complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated →
cytokines released
D)
cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines
released → cell lysis
35)
Arrange in the correct sequence these components of the mammalian immune system
as it first responds to a pathogen.
I) Pathogen
is destroyed.
II) Lymphocytes
secrete antibodies.
III) Antigenic
determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV) Lymphocytes
specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V) Only
memory cells remain.
A)
I → III → II → IV → V
B)
II → I → IV → III → V
C)
IV → II → III → I → V
D)
III → IV → II → I → V
36)
A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T
cell being unable to _____.
A)
respond to T-independent antigens
B)
lyse tumor cells
C)
stimulate a cytotoxic T cell
D)
interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex
37)
CD4 and CD8 are _____.
A)
proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells
B)
receptors present on the surface of natural killer cells
C)
molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with major
histocompatability (MHC) molecules
D)
molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell
activity
38)
T cells of the immune system include _____.
A)
CD4, CD8, and plasma cells
B)
cytotoxic and helper cells
C)
plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells
D)
lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells
39)
B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
_____.
A)
B cells produce IgE antibodies
B)
B cells release cytokines
C)
cytotoxic T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their
surface
D)
helper T cells release cytokines
40)
When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results from _____.
A)
the antibody having at least two binding regions
B)
disulfide bridges between the antigens
C)
bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules
D)
denaturation of the antibodies
41)
Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by _____.
I) the
binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes
II) antibody-mediated
agglutination of microbes
III) the
release of cytokines by activated B cells
A)
only I and II
B)
only II and III
C)
only I and III
D)
I, II, and, III
42)
Naturally acquired passive immunity can result from the _____.
A)
injection of vaccine
B)
ingestion of interferon
C)
placental transfer of antibodies
D)
absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes
43)
Jenner's successful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the smallpox virus
was due to the fact that _____.
A)
the immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens
B)
the cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox
C)
there are some epitopes (antigenic determinants) common to both pox viruses
D)
cowpox and smallpox are caused by the same virus
44)
An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting
toxin would likely benefit from _____.
A)
vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin
B)
injection of antibodies to the toxin
C)
injection of interleukin-1
D)
injection of interferon
45)
For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it
is necessary that _____.
A)
the surface antigens of the pathogen stay the same
B)
all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified
C)
the pathogen has only one epitope
D)
the major histocompatability (MHC) molecules are heterozygous
46)
The switch of one B cell from producing one class of antibody to another class
of antibody that is responsive to the same antigen is due to _____.
A)
the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells
B)
a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune
response
C)
a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells
D)
the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region DNA
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
47)
The number of major histocompatability (MHC) protein combinations possible in a
given population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population
has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because _____.
A)
the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable
of rearranging in a number of ways
B)
MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II
C)
each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only
inherits two for each gene
D)
once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response
categories
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
48)
A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a
given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given
blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions, because _____.
A)
even though Jane's blood type is a match to Bob's, her major histocompatability
(MHC) proteins may not be a match
B)
a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant
because blood is more tolerant of change
C)
for each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles
D)
Jane's MHC class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow
49)
An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a
bacterium because _____.
A)
MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but
bacteria lack MHC molecules
B)
the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and
will not enter into an immune response
C)
a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body
cells
D)
the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient
Use
the following information to answer the question(s) below.
An
otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that
causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected
when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore
throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she
does not get sick.
50)
Her immune system's recognition of the second infection involves memory _____.
A)
helper T cells
B)
natural killer cells
C)
plasma cells
D)
cytotoxic T cells
51)
Which of the following should be the same in identical twins?
A)
the set of antibodies produced
B)
the set of major histocompatability (MHC) molecules produced
C)
the set of T cell antigen receptors produced
D)
the susceptibility to a particular virus
52)
Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune
response?
A)
memory cells
B)
presentation of MHC (major histocompatibility complex)-antigen complex on a
cell surface
C)
somatic hypermutation
D)
phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the
humoral response)
53)
Which of the following components of the immune system destroys bacteria in a
way similar to an antitank weapon destroying armored military tanks by punching
holes in the wall of the bacteria?
A)
complement protein
B)
macrophages
C)
plasma cells
D)
major histocompatibility complex proteins
54)
Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because _____.
A)
of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases
B)
the flu can generate anaphylactic shock
C)
surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the
second year
D)
rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host
cells
55)
A patient who has a high level of mast cell activity, dilation of blood
vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from _____.
A)
an autoimmune disease
B)
a typical skin allergy (contact dermatitis) that can be treated by
antihistamines
C)
an organ transplant, such as a skin graft
D)
anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen
56)
The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a period of time is
exemplified by _____.
A)
influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years
B)
herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by
physiological or emotional stress in the host
C)
Kaposi's sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS but rarely in
those not infected by HIV
D)
the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many
times in their lives
57)
A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a
flower bouquet as a birthday gift should first be treated with _____.
A)
a vaccine
B)
sterile pollen
C)
antihistamines
D)
monoclonal antibodies
58)
Which of the following would help a virus avoid triggering an effective
adaptive immune response?
I) having
frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins
II) building
the viral shell from host proteins
III) producing
proteins very similar to those of other viruses
IV) infecting
and killing helper T cells
A)
only I and III
B)
only I, II, and IV
C)
only I, II, and III
D)
only II, III, and IV
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
59)
Which of the following is the best definition of autoimmune disease?
A)
a condition in which B cells and T cells respond independently to antigens and
do not interact correctly
B)
a condition in which the adaptive immune system fails to recognize the second
infection by the same antigen
C)
a condition in which self molecules are treated as non-self
D)
a condition in which the immune system creates random antibodies without being
triggered by an antigen
60)
Which of the following would prevent allergic attacks?
A)
blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells
B)
blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies
C)
reducing the number of helper T cells in the body
D)
reducing the number of cytotoxic cells
61)
In a humoral or antibody-mediated immune response, specific B cells are
stimulated by Helper T cells to transform into plasma cells that secrete
antibodies. What would be an important feature added to B cells In this
transition process?
A)
Duplication of specific gene sequences for the appropriate antibody.
B)
Increased rough endoplasmic reticulum in order to have the surface area needed
for antibody production.
C)
Duplication of lysosomes in order to store the antibodies before transport.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 44
Osmoregulation and Excretion
1)
The force driving simple diffusion is _____, while the energy source for active
transport is _____.
A)
the concentration gradient; ADP
B)
the concentration gradient; ATP
C)
transmembrane pumps; electron transport
D)
phosphorylated protein carriers; ATP
2)
To maintain homeostasis freshwater fish must _____.
A)
excrete large quantities of electrolytes
B)
consume large quantities of water
C)
excrete large quantities of water
D)
take in electrolytes through simple diffusion
3)
Single-celled Paramecium live in pond water (a hypotonic environment).
They have a structural feature, a contractile vacuole, which enables them to
osmoregulate. If you observed them in the following solutions, at which sucrose
concentration (in millimolars, mM) would you expect the contractile vacuole to
be most active?
A)
0.0 mM sucrose
B)
0.05 mM saline
C)
0.08 mM sucrose
D)
1.0 mM saline
4)
Sharks live in seawater. Their tissues are isotonic to seawater, but their
concentrations of sodium ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and
extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes. How is that
possible?
A)
Urea and trimethylamine oxide contribute to intra- and extracellular osmolarity
in shark tissues.
B)
Metabolic intermediates of sharks tie up intracellular chloride and potassium
ions.
C)
Their blood is hypotonic to their tissues.
D)
They excrete large quantities of electrolytes.
5)
Hagfish (Eptatretus cirrhauts) are a jawless marine vertebrate that are
isotonic with their environment and are considered to be osmoconformers. How
might this interesting adaptation limit the habitat that the hagfish can
tolerate?
A)
Hagfish are not limited by salinity.
B)
Osmoconformers do not face the same pressures as osmoregulators and can live in
any marine environment.
C)
Individual hagfish will adapt to different salinities over their lifetime and,
therefore, can inhabit any marine environment.
D)
Hagfish habitat is limited by the salinity of the environment.
6)
Tissues of sharks are isotonic to seawater, but their concentrations of sodium
ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are
similar to those of freshwater fishes. What can you infer about the movement of
sodium and chloride in these animals?
A)
To maintain homeostasis of sodium and chloride levels, the shark must take up
additional sodium and chloride from seawater.
B)
Sodium and chloride will diffuse into shark gills from seawater down their
concentration gradient.
C)
Sharks conserve sodium and chloride, limiting excretion.
D)
Sodium and chloride must be eliminated through the gills.
7)
What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony
skeletons?
A)
They actively transport chloride into the gills.
B)
They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills.
C)
They are involved in excretion of excess salt.
D)
They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal
gland.
8)
Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater. The fish then migrate to the ocean (a
hypertonic solution) and, after several years of feeding and growing, return to
freshwater to breed. How can these organisms make the transition from
freshwater to ocean water and back to freshwater?
A)
The rectal gland functions in the ocean water, and chloride cells function in
freshwater.
B)
Different gill cells are involved in osmoregulation in freshwater than in salt
water.
C)
Salmon in freshwater excrete dilute urine, and salmon in salt water secrete
concentrated urine.
D)
Their metabolism changes in salt water to degrade electrolytes.
9)
Terrestrial organisms lose water through evaporation. In what ecosystem might
an entomologist find a good study organism to examine the prevention of water
loss?
A)
wet rain forest
B)
desert
C)
prairie
D)
chaparral
10)
A necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was
mistakenly placed in fresh water would likely show that it died because _____.
A)
it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions
B)
it was so hypertonic to the fresh water that it could not osmoregulate
C)
its contractile vacuoles ruptured
D)
its cells dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize
11)
The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be _____ with its _____ environment
A)
isoosmotic; freshwater
B)
hyperosmotic; saltwater
C)
isoosmotic; saltwater
D)
hypoosmotic; saltwater
12)
Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are _____.
A)
hyperosmotic
B)
hypoosmotic
C)
isoosmotic
D)
hyperosmotic and isoosmotic
13)
The fluid with the highest osmolarity is _____.
A)
distilled water
B)
plasma in birds
C)
plasma in mammals
D)
seawater in a tidal pool
14)
A human who has no access to fresh water but is forced to drink seawater
instead will _____.
A)
thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his
life
B)
excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion
ingestion
C)
develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload
D)
risk becoming overhydrated within twelve hours
15)
Unlike most bony fishes, sharks maintain body fluids that are isoosmotic to
seawater, so they are considered by many to be osmoconformers. Nonetheless,
these sharks osmoregulate at least partially by _____.
A)
using their gills and kidneys to rid themselves of sea salts
B)
monitoring dehydration at the cellular level with special gated aquaporins
C)
tolerating high urea concentrations that are balanced with internal salt
concentrations to seawater osmolarity
D)
synthesizing trimethylamine oxide, a chemical that binds and precipitates salts
inside cells
16)
The necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a freshwater fish that died after being
placed accidentally in saltwater would likely show that _____.
A)
loss of water by osmosis from cells in vital organs resulted in cell death and
organ failure
B)
high amounts of salt had diffused into the fish's cells, causing them to swell
and lyse
C)
the kidneys were not able to keep up with the water removal necessary in this
hyperosmotic environment, creating an irrevocable loss of homeostasis
D)
the gills became encrusted with salt, resulting in inadequate gas exchange and
a resulting asphyxiation
17)
Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine
production?
A)
a vampire bat
B)
a salmon in fresh water
C)
a marine bony fish
D)
a shark inhabiting the Mississippi River
18)
One of the waste products that accumulates during cellular functions is carbon
dioxide. It is removed via the respiratory system. What is another waste
product that accumulates during normal physiological functions in vertebrates?
I) ammonia
II) uric
acid
III) urea
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and III
C)
only I and II
D)
I, II, and III
19)
Urea is produced in the _____.
A)
liver from NH3 and carbon dioxide
B)
liver from glycogen
C)
kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids
D)
bladder from uric acid and water
20)
Urea is _____.
A)
insoluble in water
B)
the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans
C)
the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds
D)
the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates
21)
Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
A)
ammonia
B)
ammonium ions
C)
urea
D)
uric acid
22)
Ammonia is likely to be the primary nitrogenous waste in living conditions that
include _____.
A)
lots of fresh water flowing across the gills of a fish
B)
lots of seawater, such as a bird living in a marine environment
C)
a terrestrial environment, such as that supporting crickets
D)
a moist system of burrows, such as those of naked mole rats
23)
Excessive formation of uric acid crystals in humans leads to _____.
A)
a condition called diabetes, where excessive urine formation occurs
B)
a condition of insatiable thirst and excessive urine formation
C)
gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints
D)
osteoarthritis, an inevitable consequence of aging
24)
Ammonia _____.
A)
is soluble in water
B)
has low toxicity relative to urea
C)
is metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea
D)
is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects
25)
The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is
that _____.
A)
urea can be exchanged for Na+
B)
urea is less toxic than ammonia
C)
urea does not affect the osmolar gradient
D)
less nitrogen is removed from the body
26)
In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of
_____.
A)
starch and cellulose
B)
triglycerides and steroids
C)
proteins and nucleic acids
D)
phospholipids and glycolipids
27)
Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid _____.
A)
is readily soluble in water
B)
is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products
C)
requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus reducing body mass
D)
can be reused by birds as a protein source
28)
Among the following choices, the most concentrated urine is excreted by _____.
A)
frogs
B)
kangaroo rats
C)
humans
D)
freshwater bass
29)
African lungfish, which are often found in small, stagnant pools of fresh
water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this
adaptation?
A)
Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.
B)
Small, stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.
C)
The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.
D)
Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.
30)
Which of the following most accurately describes selective permeability?
A)
An input of energy is required for transport.
B)
Lipid-soluble molecules pass through a membrane.
C)
There must be a concentration gradient for molecules to pass through a
membrane.
D)
Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane.
31)
Through studies of insect Malpighian tubules, researchers found that K+ accumulated on the inner face of the tubule,
against its concentration gradient. What can you infer about the mechanism of
transport?
A)
Potassium transport is a passive process.
B)
Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an
energy-requiring process.
C)
Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the
lumen of the tubules.
D)
Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.
32)
A potassium ion gradient is set up in insect Malpighian tubules through an
active transport process. As a result, potassium concentration is higher in the
lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph. How would the potassium gradient affect
water movement?
A)
Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an
osmotic gradient.
B)
The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement.
C)
There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules.
D)
Water would be conserved, forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian
tubules.
33)
Why are the renal artery and vein critical to the process of osmoregulation in
vertebrates?
A)
The kidneys require constant and abnormally high oxygen supply to function.
B)
The renal artery delivers blood with nitrogenous waste to the kidney and the
renal vein brings blood with less nitrogenous wastes away from the kidneys.
C)
The kidneys require higher than normal levels of hormones.
D)
The renal artery and vein are the main pathways regulating how much is produced
by the kidneys.
34)
The figure above shows a nephron. Filtration takes place in the structure
labeled _____.
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
35)
The osmoregulatory/excretory system of a freshwater flatworm is based on the
operation of _____.
A)
protonephridia
B)
metanephridia
C)
Malpighian tubules
D)
nephrons
36)
Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following
processes?
A)
filtration
B)
selective reabsorption
C)
secretion
D)
excretion
37)
Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in _____.
A)
flatworms
B)
insects
C)
jellyfish
D)
sea stars
38)
The osmoregulatory process called secretion refers to the _____.
A)
reabsorption of nutrients from a filtrate
B)
selective elimination of excess ions and toxins from body fluids
C)
formation of an osmotic gradient along an excretory structure
D)
expulsion of urine from the body
39)
The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an earthworm is based on the operation
of _____.
A)
protonephridia
B)
metanephridia
C)
Malpighian tubules
D)
nephrons
40)
Choose a pair that correctly associates the mechanism for osmoregulation or
nitrogen removal with the appropriate animal.
A)
metanephridium — flatworm
B)
Malpighian tubule — frog
C)
flame bulb — snake
D)
exchange across the body surface — marine invertebrate
41)
An excretory system that is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high
hydrostatic pressure is the _____.
A)
flame bulb system of flatworms
B)
protonephridia of rotifers
C)
Malpighian tubules of insects
D)
kidneys of vertebrates
42)
The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule _____.
A)
results from active transport
B)
transfers large molecules as easily as small ones
C)
is very selective as to which subprotein-sized molecules are transferred
D)
is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus
43)
Within a normally functioning kidney, blood can be found in _____.
A)
the vasa recta
B)
Bowman's capsule
C)
the proximal tubule
D)
the collecting duct
44)
A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of
all body organs is that _____.
A)
they have membranes of varying permeability to water
B)
they operate an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps
C)
they are the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients
D)
they have an abundance of myogenic smooth muscle
45)
Which process in the nephron is LEAST selective?
A)
filtration
B)
reabsorption
C)
active transport
D)
secretion
46)
What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney? The osmotic
gradient allows for _____.
A)
electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP
B)
the precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes
C)
the loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein
D)
the filtration of large cells at the glomerulus
47)
The loop of Henle dips into the renal cortex. This is an important feature of
osmoregulation in terrestrial vertebrates because _____.
A)
absorptive processes taking place in the loop of Henle are hormonally regulated
B)
differential permeabilities of ascending and descending limbs of the loop of
Henle are important in establishing an osmotic gradient
C)
the loop of Henle plays an important role in detoxification
D)
additional filtration takes place along the loop of Henle
48)
Low selectivity of solute movement is a characteristic of _____.
A)
H+ pumping to control pH
B)
reabsorption mechanisms along the proximal tubule
C)
filtration from the glomerular capillaries
D)
secretion along the distal tubule
49)
If ATP production in a human kidney was suddenly halted, urine production would
_____.
A)
decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma
B)
increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma
C)
increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma
D)
decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
50)
Compared to wetland mammals, water conservation in mammals of arid regions is
enhanced by having more _____.
A)
juxtamedullary nephrons
B)
urinary bladders
C)
ureters
D)
podocytes
51)
Processing of filtrate in the proximal and distal tubules _____.
A)
achieves the conversion of toxic ammonia to less toxic urea
B)
maintains homeostasis of pH in body fluids
C)
regulates the speed of blood flow through the nephrons
D)
reabsorbs urea to maintain osmotic balance
52)
In humans, the transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle _____.
A)
are the largest epithelial cells in the body
B)
are not in contact with interstitial fluid
C)
have plasma membranes of low permeability to water
D)
are not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes
53)
The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following
EXCEPT _____.
A)
active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb
B)
the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons
C)
diffusion of urea from the collecting duct
D)
diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle
54)
Natural selection should favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary
nephrons in which of the following species?
A)
a river otter
B)
a mouse species living in a tropical rain forest
C)
a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest
D)
a mouse species living in a desert
55)
If you are hiking through the desert for several days, one would pack which of
the following to ensure proper hydration?
A)
a drink with a combination of water and electrolytes
B)
caffeinated beverages
C)
bottled water kept at room temperature
D)
bottled water that had been frozen to ensure that it would be as cold as
possible
56)
Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is likely after _____.
A)
drinking lots of pure water
B)
sweating-induced dehydration increases plasma osmolarity
C)
eating a small sugary snack
D)
blood pressure becomes abnormally high
57)
After blood flow is artificially reduced at one kidney, you would expect that
kidney to secrete more of the hormone known as _____.
A)
angiotensinogen
B)
renin
C)
antidiuretic hormone
D)
atrial natriuretic peptide
58)
After drinking alcoholic beverages, increased urine excretion is the result of
_____.
A)
increased aldosterone production
B)
increased blood pressure
C)
inhibited secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D)
increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule
59)
Osmoregulatory adjustment via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system can be
triggered by _____.
A)
sleeping for one hour
B)
severe sweating on a hot day
C)
eating a pizza with olives and pepperoni
D)
drinking several glasses of water
60)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (the
RAAS) work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of
the following ways?
A)
ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of
water, and the RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ and water reabsorption.
B)
ADH and the RAAS work antagonistically; ADH stimulates water reabsorption
during dehydration and the RAAS causes increased excretion of water when it is
in excess in body fluids.
C)
Both stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone, which increases both
blood volume and pressure via its receptors in the urinary bladder.
D)
ADH and the RAAS combine at the receptor sites of proximal tubule cells, where
reabsorption of essential nutrients takes place.
Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)
Chapter 44
Osmoregulation and Excretion
1)
The force driving simple diffusion is _____, while the energy source for active
transport is _____.
A)
the concentration gradient; ADP
B)
the concentration gradient; ATP
C)
transmembrane pumps; electron transport
D)
phosphorylated protein carriers; ATP
2)
To maintain homeostasis freshwater fish must _____.
A)
excrete large quantities of electrolytes
B)
consume large quantities of water
C)
excrete large quantities of water
D)
take in electrolytes through simple diffusion
3)
Single-celled Paramecium live in pond water (a hypotonic environment).
They have a structural feature, a contractile vacuole, which enables them to
osmoregulate. If you observed them in the following solutions, at which sucrose
concentration (in millimolars, mM) would you expect the contractile vacuole to
be most active?
A)
0.0 mM sucrose
B)
0.05 mM saline
C)
0.08 mM sucrose
D)
1.0 mM saline
4)
Sharks live in seawater. Their tissues are isotonic to seawater, but their
concentrations of sodium ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and
extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes. How is that
possible?
A)
Urea and trimethylamine oxide contribute to intra- and extracellular osmolarity
in shark tissues.
B)
Metabolic intermediates of sharks tie up intracellular chloride and potassium
ions.
C)
Their blood is hypotonic to their tissues.
D)
They excrete large quantities of electrolytes.
5)
Hagfish (Eptatretus cirrhauts) are a jawless marine vertebrate that are
isotonic with their environment and are considered to be osmoconformers. How
might this interesting adaptation limit the habitat that the hagfish can
tolerate?
A)
Hagfish are not limited by salinity.
B)
Osmoconformers do not face the same pressures as osmoregulators and can live in
any marine environment.
C)
Individual hagfish will adapt to different salinities over their lifetime and,
therefore, can inhabit any marine environment.
D)
Hagfish habitat is limited by the salinity of the environment.
6)
Tissues of sharks are isotonic to seawater, but their concentrations of sodium
ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are
similar to those of freshwater fishes. What can you infer about the movement of
sodium and chloride in these animals?
A)
To maintain homeostasis of sodium and chloride levels, the shark must take up
additional sodium and chloride from seawater.
B)
Sodium and chloride will diffuse into shark gills from seawater down their
concentration gradient.
C)
Sharks conserve sodium and chloride, limiting excretion.
D)
Sodium and chloride must be eliminated through the gills.
7)
What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony
skeletons?
A)
They actively transport chloride into the gills.
B)
They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills.
C)
They are involved in excretion of excess salt.
D)
They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal
gland.
8)
Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater. The fish then migrate to the ocean (a
hypertonic solution) and, after several years of feeding and growing, return to
freshwater to breed. How can these organisms make the transition from
freshwater to ocean water and back to freshwater?
A)
The rectal gland functions in the ocean water, and chloride cells function in
freshwater.
B)
Different gill cells are involved in osmoregulation in freshwater than in salt
water.
C)
Salmon in freshwater excrete dilute urine, and salmon in salt water secrete
concentrated urine.
D)
Their metabolism changes in salt water to degrade electrolytes.
9)
Terrestrial organisms lose water through evaporation. In what ecosystem might
an entomologist find a good study organism to examine the prevention of water
loss?
A)
wet rain forest
B)
desert
C)
prairie
D)
chaparral
10)
A necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was
mistakenly placed in fresh water would likely show that it died because _____.
A)
it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions
B)
it was so hypertonic to the fresh water that it could not osmoregulate
C)
its contractile vacuoles ruptured
D)
its cells dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize
11)
The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be _____ with its _____ environment
A)
isoosmotic; freshwater
B)
hyperosmotic; saltwater
C)
isoosmotic; saltwater
D)
hypoosmotic; saltwater
12)
Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are _____.
A)
hyperosmotic
B)
hypoosmotic
C)
isoosmotic
D)
hyperosmotic and isoosmotic
13)
The fluid with the highest osmolarity is _____.
A)
distilled water
B)
plasma in birds
C)
plasma in mammals
D)
seawater in a tidal pool
14)
A human who has no access to fresh water but is forced to drink seawater
instead will _____.
A)
thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his
life
B)
excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion
ingestion
C)
develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload
D)
risk becoming overhydrated within twelve hours
15)
Unlike most bony fishes, sharks maintain body fluids that are isoosmotic to
seawater, so they are considered by many to be osmoconformers. Nonetheless,
these sharks osmoregulate at least partially by _____.
A)
using their gills and kidneys to rid themselves of sea salts
B)
monitoring dehydration at the cellular level with special gated aquaporins
C)
tolerating high urea concentrations that are balanced with internal salt
concentrations to seawater osmolarity
D)
synthesizing trimethylamine oxide, a chemical that binds and precipitates salts
inside cells
16)
The necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a freshwater fish that died after being
placed accidentally in saltwater would likely show that _____.
A)
loss of water by osmosis from cells in vital organs resulted in cell death and
organ failure
B)
high amounts of salt had diffused into the fish's cells, causing them to swell
and lyse
C)
the kidneys were not able to keep up with the water removal necessary in this
hyperosmotic environment, creating an irrevocable loss of homeostasis
D)
the gills became encrusted with salt, resulting in inadequate gas exchange and
a resulting asphyxiation
17)
Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine
production?
A)
a vampire bat
B)
a salmon in fresh water
C)
a marine bony fish
D)
a shark inhabiting the Mississippi River
18)
One of the waste products that accumulates during cellular functions is carbon
dioxide. It is removed via the respiratory system. What is another waste
product that accumulates during normal physiological functions in vertebrates?
I) ammonia
II) uric
acid
III) urea
A)
only I and III
B)
only II and III
C)
only I and II
D)
I, II, and III
19)
Urea is produced in the _____.
A)
liver from NH3 and carbon dioxide
B)
liver from glycogen
C)
kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids
D)
bladder from uric acid and water
20)
Urea is _____.
A)
insoluble in water
B)
the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans
C)
the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds
D)
the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates
21)
Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
A)
ammonia
B)
ammonium ions
C)
urea
D)
uric acid
22)
Ammonia is likely to be the primary nitrogenous waste in living conditions that
include _____.
A)
lots of fresh water flowing across the gills of a fish
B)
lots of seawater, such as a bird living in a marine environment
C)
a terrestrial environment, such as that supporting crickets
D)
a moist system of burrows, such as those of naked mole rats
23)
Excessive formation of uric acid crystals in humans leads to _____.
A)
a condition called diabetes, where excessive urine formation occurs
B)
a condition of insatiable thirst and excessive urine formation
C)
gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints
D)
osteoarthritis, an inevitable consequence of aging
24)
Ammonia _____.
A)
is soluble in water
B)
has low toxicity relative to urea
C)
is metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea
D)
is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects
25)
The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is
that _____.
A)
urea can be exchanged for Na+
B)
urea is less toxic than ammonia
C)
urea does not affect the osmolar gradient
D)
less nitrogen is removed from the body
26)
In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of
_____.
A)
starch and cellulose
B)
triglycerides and steroids
C)
proteins and nucleic acids
D)
phospholipids and glycolipids
27)
Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid _____.
A)
is readily soluble in water
B)
is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products
C)
requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus reducing body mass
D)
can be reused by birds as a protein source
28)
Among the following choices, the most concentrated urine is excreted by _____.
A)
frogs
B)
kangaroo rats
C)
humans
D)
freshwater bass
29)
African lungfish, which are often found in small, stagnant pools of fresh
water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this
adaptation?
A)
Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.
B)
Small, stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.
C)
The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.
D)
Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.
30)
Which of the following most accurately describes selective permeability?
A)
An input of energy is required for transport.
B)
Lipid-soluble molecules pass through a membrane.
C)
There must be a concentration gradient for molecules to pass through a
membrane.
D)
Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane.
31)
Through studies of insect Malpighian tubules, researchers found that K+ accumulated on the inner face of the tubule,
against its concentration gradient. What can you infer about the mechanism of
transport?
A)
Potassium transport is a passive process.
B)
Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an
energy-requiring process.
C)
Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the
lumen of the tubules.
D)
Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.
32)
A potassium ion gradient is set up in insect Malpighian tubules through an
active transport process. As a result, potassium concentration is higher in the
lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph. How would the potassium gradient affect
water movement?
A)
Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an
osmotic gradient.
B)
The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement.
C)
There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules.
D)
Water would be conserved, forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian
tubules.
33)
Why are the renal artery and vein critical to the process of osmoregulation in
vertebrates?
A)
The kidneys require constant and abnormally high oxygen supply to function.
B)
The renal artery delivers blood with nitrogenous waste to the kidney and the
renal vein brings blood with less nitrogenous wastes away from the kidneys.
C)
The kidneys require higher than normal levels of hormones.
D)
The renal artery and vein are the main pathways regulating how much is produced
by the kidneys.
34)
The figure above shows a nephron. Filtration takes place in the structure
labeled _____.
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
35)
The osmoregulatory/excretory system of a freshwater flatworm is based on the
operation of _____.
A)
protonephridia
B)
metanephridia
C)
Malpighian tubules
D)
nephrons
36)
Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following
processes?
A)
filtration
B)
selective reabsorption
C)
secretion
D)
excretion
37)
Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in _____.
A)
flatworms
B)
insects
C)
jellyfish
D)
sea stars
38)
The osmoregulatory process called secretion refers to the _____.
A)
reabsorption of nutrients from a filtrate
B)
selective elimination of excess ions and toxins from body fluids
C)
formation of an osmotic gradient along an excretory structure
D)
expulsion of urine from the body
39)
The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an earthworm is based on the operation
of _____.
A)
protonephridia
B)
metanephridia
C)
Malpighian tubules
D)
nephrons
40)
Choose a pair that correctly associates the mechanism for osmoregulation or
nitrogen removal with the appropriate animal.
A)
metanephridium — flatworm
B)
Malpighian tubule — frog
C)
flame bulb — snake
D)
exchange across the body surface — marine invertebrate
41)
An excretory system that is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high
hydrostatic pressure is the _____.
A)
flame bulb system of flatworms
B)
protonephridia of rotifers
C)
Malpighian tubules of insects
D)
kidneys of vertebrates
42)
The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule _____.
A)
results from active transport
B)
transfers large molecules as easily as small ones
C)
is very selective as to which subprotein-sized molecules are transferred
D)
is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus
43)
Within a normally functioning kidney, blood can be found in _____.
A)
the vasa recta
B)
Bowman's capsule
C)
the proximal tubule
D)
the collecting duct
44)
A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of
all body organs is that _____.
A)
they have membranes of varying permeability to water
B)
they operate an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps
C)
they are the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients
D)
they have an abundance of myogenic smooth muscle
45)
Which process in the nephron is LEAST selective?
A)
filtration
B)
reabsorption
C)
active transport
D)
secretion
46)
What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney? The osmotic
gradient allows for _____.
A)
electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP
B)
the precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes
C)
the loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein
D)
the filtration of large cells at the glomerulus
47)
The loop of Henle dips into the renal cortex. This is an important feature of
osmoregulation in terrestrial vertebrates because _____.
A)
absorptive processes taking place in the loop of Henle are hormonally regulated
B)
differential permeabilities of ascending and descending limbs of the loop of
Henle are important in establishing an osmotic gradient
C)
the loop of Henle plays an important role in detoxification
D)
additional filtration takes place along the loop of Henle
48)
Low selectivity of solute movement is a characteristic of _____.
A)
H+ pumping to control pH
B)
reabsorption mechanisms along the proximal tubule
C)
filtration from the glomerular capillaries
D)
secretion along the distal tubule
49)
If ATP production in a human kidney was suddenly halted, urine production would
_____.
A)
decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma
B)
increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma
C)
increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma
D)
decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma
Bloom's
Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
50)
Compared to wetland mammals, water conservation in mammals of arid regions is
enhanced by having more _____.
A)
juxtamedullary nephrons
B)
urinary bladders
C)
ureters
D)
podocytes
51)
Processing of filtrate in the proximal and distal tubules _____.
A)
achieves the conversion of toxic ammonia to less toxic urea
B)
maintains homeostasis of pH in body fluids
C)
regulates the speed of blood flow through the nephrons
D)
reabsorbs urea to maintain osmotic balance
52)
In humans, the transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle _____.
A)
are the largest epithelial cells in the body
B)
are not in contact with interstitial fluid
C)
have plasma membranes of low permeability to water
D)
are not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes
53)
The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following
EXCEPT _____.
A)
active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb
B)
the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons
C)
diffusion of urea from the collecting duct
D)
diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle
54)
Natural selection should favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary
nephrons in which of the following species?
A)
a river otter
B)
a mouse species living in a tropical rain forest
C)
a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest
D)
a mouse species living in a desert
55)
If you are hiking through the desert for several days, one would pack which of
the following to ensure proper hydration?
A)
a drink with a combination of water and electrolytes
B)
caffeinated beverages
C)
bottled water kept at room temperature
D)
bottled water that had been frozen to ensure that it would be as cold as
possible
56)
Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is likely after _____.
A)
drinking lots of pure water
B)
sweating-induced dehydration increases plasma osmolarity
C)
eating a small sugary snack
D)
blood pressure becomes abnormally high
57)
After blood flow is artificially reduced at one kidney, you would expect that
kidney to secrete more of the hormone known as _____.
A)
angiotensinogen
B)
renin
C)
antidiuretic hormone
D)
atrial natriuretic peptide
58)
After drinking alcoholic beverages, increased urine excretion is the result of
_____.
A)
increased aldosterone production
B)
increased blood pressure
C)
inhibited secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D)
increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule
59)
Osmoregulatory adjustment via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system can be
triggered by _____.
A)
sleeping for one hour
B)
severe sweating on a hot day
C)
eating a pizza with olives and pepperoni
D)
drinking several glasses of water
60)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (the
RAAS) work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of
the following ways?
A)
ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of
water, and the RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ and water reabsorption.
B)
ADH and the RAAS work antagonistically; ADH stimulates water reabsorption
during dehydration and the RAAS causes increased excretion of water when it is
in excess in body fluids.
C)
Both stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone, which increases both
blood volume and pressure via its receptors in the urinary bladder.
D)
ADH and the RAAS combine at the receptor sites of proximal tubule cells, where
reabsorption of essential nutrients takes place.
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